1st 901 Hardware Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Where can you find information about your current version of BIOS?
A
- system info utility
- typing “msinfo32” in cmd prompt
2
Q
What is the procedure for updating or upgrading a BIOS called?
A
- Flashing the BIOS
3
Q
The _____ tells the BIOS where to look to load the operating system.
A
- boot sequence
4
Q
How can you secure access to the BIOS?
A
- By adding passwords
5
Q
What BIOS security measure offers tracking, remote shutdown, and keylogger functionality?
A
- Lojack
6
Q
The ____ is another BIOS security measure that can encrypt the contents of a storage device, or harden the encryption of BitLocker and SecureBoot.
A
- Trusted Platform Module
7
Q
What is the most common motherboard in today’s desktops?
A
- The ATX aka Advanced Technology Extended
8
Q
____ is a little bit smaller than the ATX and does not have as much expansion ability.
A
- The micro-ATX
9
Q
____ is a significantly smaller form factor board and was created by VIA Technologies.
A
- The ITX
10
Q
_____ is the largest of the three ITX form factors, with a size of 6.7 by 6.7 inches. It is also the most popular.
A
- The Mini-ITX
11
Q
_____ was introduced by Intel in the 1990s. It replaced older 8- and 16-bit expansion slots with a 32-bit slot.
A
- The PCI or Peripheral Component Interconnect
12
Q
____ incorporates a 64-bit data bus that was considerably faster than PCI slots, but because of the bus, it was difficult to incorporate onto the motherboard.
A
- PCI-X (Extended)
13
Q
_____ is the newest expansion slot being used in modern computers. It sends data over a serial stream at higher speeds than conventional PCI slots.
A
- PCIe (Express)
14
Q
What are the serial streams of a PCIe expansion slot referred to as?
A
- Lanes
15
Q
The ____ slots were those modified to be applied to laptops. They use low power and lie flat.
A
- Mini-PCI
16
Q
What type of RAM slot is used in desktops?
A
- DIMM (dual inline memory module)
17
Q
What type of RAM slot is used in laptops?
A
- SO-DIMM (Small Outline)
18
Q
What type of RAM slot is used in smaller mobile devices?
A
- Micro-DIMM
19
Q
The _____ interfaces directly with the CPU through the front-side bus, handles high-speed connections to memory and videos as well as creating the connection to the Southbridge.
A
- Northbridge
20
Q
The ____ handles I/O functions and all other slower devices such as the hard drive, PCI bus, and Audio.
A
- Southbridge
21
Q
The ____ is used to power the system’s real-time clock.
A
- The CMOS battery
22
Q
List four common power connector types.
A
- SATA
- Molex
- ATX
- EPS
23
Q
Most fans will connect with ____ on the motherboard.
A
- 3- or 4-pin Molex connector
24
Q
_____ indicates how fast all of the components on your motherboard are able to communicate with each each other.
A
- Bus Speed
25
_____ is the industry standard for RAM; 184-pin DIMM, and 200- or 172-pin SO-DIMM.
DDR (Double Data Rate)
26
_____ is faster than DDR and has less power consumption; comes in 240-pin DIMM and 240-pin SO-DIMM.
- DDR2
27
_____ is faster than DDR2 and consumes 30% less power; it comes in 240-pin DIMM AND 204-pin SO-DIMM.
- DDR3
28
is a RAM form factor found commonly in laptops; it comes in 100-, 144-, 200-, 204-, and 260-pin.
- SO-DIMM
29
_____ is configured in either 168- or 184-pins; both sides of the chip are used to provide connection to the socket.
- DIMM
30
____ refers to the RAM chip's ability to identify errors within the memory.
- Parity vs Non-Parity
31
_____ refers to using multiple identical sticks of RAM in paired slots, which increases the memory throughput.
- RAM configurations (single/double/triple channel)
32
______ refers to position of the memory chips on the memory module.
Single sided vs Double sided
33
____ also known as "registered" memory; buffers between the memory and the controller; used on high tier systems.
- Buffered Memory
34
Check your _____ to find out which types of RAM are compatible with your system.
- Motherboard Documentation
35
_____ add additional functionality to your PC.
- Expansion Cards
36
_____ a read only memory Optical drive. It can store up to 700 MB of data per disk.
CD-ROM
37
_____ is an optical storage device like a CD-ROM, except the disk can be rewritten multiple times.
CD-RW
38
____ is a read only memory Optical Drive. It's disk can store up to 4.7 GB of data.
DVD-ROM
39
____ is an optical storage device like a DVD-ROM, except the disk can be rewritten multiple times.
DVD-RW
40
_____ a dual-layer version of a DVD-RW. Its capacity is almost doubled at 8.5 GB per disk.
DVD-RW DL
41
_____ is a newer optical storage format, the disk can store up to 25GB of data.
Blu-ray
42
____ is a Blu-ray recordable format, it allows you to write data to the disk.
BD-R
43
____ is a Blu-ray recordable/erasable format that allows you to write data to the disk more than once.
BD-RE
44
_____ can be inserted or removed in real time, while the system is still powered on. A USB is a common type of this drive.
A Hot Swappable Drive
45
_____ is the largest in physical size of the card type memory hardware.
Compact Flash
46
______ or Secure Digital is a form of flash that is very popular today.
SD
47
_____ is a flash type memory card that is used in small mobile devices and can be inserted into MiniSD cards for modularity or multipurpose use
Micro SD
48
____ a flash type card that is used in small mobile devices similar to the Micro SD.
Mini SD
49
_____ is a flash card type typically found in older digital cameras.
an xD card
50
_____ is an alternative to a standard hard disk drive; far superior, in that it is a form of flash memory.
An SSD
51
_____ is a drive that combines a traditional hard drive with a solid state drive; the SSD is typically there just to make cacheing data easier; its more cost effective than a full SSD.
A Hybrid or a Solid-State Hybrid drive
52
____ is a flash memory type chip installed in mobile phones.
eMMC
53
____ is a RAID type that offers stripping of data only; it requires 2 drives; it offers no redundancy but good performance.
RAID 0
54
____ is a RAID type that offers mirroring of data only; requires at least 2 drives; requires more storage space to store full copies of data.
RAID 1
55
____ is a RAID type that offers stripping with parity; it requires at least 3 drives; it has the ability to calculate missing data and rebuild it; parity calculation may slow the system.
RAID 5
56
_____ is a RAID type that offers both stripping and mirroring for improved performance and full redundancy; it requires at least 4 drives.
RAID 10
57
A ______ is good for archiving data over extended periods of time at a low cost.
Tape Drive
58
The _____ functions as the brain of the computer; it comes in many different formats.
CPU
59
_____ is the unit of measurement for CPU speed in most modern processors.
Gigahertz
60
A ______ is extremely fast memory found near the core of a processor that enables the CPU to process a larger amount of information; its effectiveness depends on its size.
Cache
61
____ allows you to increase your CPU, typically gaining a 15-30% performance increase.
Hyperthreading
62
_____ allows for graphics processing to be directly embedded with the CPU.
An integrated GPU
63
The _____ allows for hardening of the CPU by segmenting areas where code is needed to run and, for protection, disallowing it to run anywhere else.
Non-eXecute Bit
64
_____ are positioned on top of components that get really hot.
Heat Sinks
65
_____ are attached to the top of heatsinks to create what is referred to as a cooler.
Fans
66
____ is a heat-conductive substance that is applied between the surface of the CPU and the bottom of the heat sink.
Thermal Paste
67
______ uses liquid piped to devices such as the CPU, Northbridge, ect.... to cool the device.
Liquid cooling
68
Fanless devices use ______ with heat sinks only. Typically these devices use minimal power.
Passive cooling
69
____ was the first widely used version of USB; low speed of 1.5 Mbps and full speed of 12 Mbps.
USB 1.1
70
_____ a version of USB with a speed is 480 Mbps; max cable length of 5 meters.
USB 2.0
71
______ a type of USB with a speed of 5 Gbps; known as Superspeed USB; maximum cable length of 3 meters.
USB 3.0
72
____ is a USB connector that attaches to a computer.
USB "A type" connector
73
_____ is a USB connector that attaches to a peripheral, such as a printer.
USB "B type" connector
74
____ and _____ are USB connectors that attach smaller mobile devices such as cell phones or tablets.
Mini and micro
75
_____ is a standard popularized by Apple; comes in speeds of 100, 200, or 400 Mbps.
IEEE 1394a
aka
Firewire 400
76
____ is a standard like the IEEE 1394a, its called "Beta Mode", and it has a maximum speed of 800 Mbps
IEEE 1394b
aka
Firewire 800
77
SATA1 has a maximum speed of _____; a maximum cable length of _____
1.5 Gbps
1 meter
78
SATA2 maximum speed of ______; maximum length of ______.
3 Gbps
1 meter
79
SATA3 maximum speed of ______; maximum length of ______.
6 Gbps
1 meter
80
eSATA is an external SATA connection its maximum speed is ______ and it has a maximum length of _____.
the same as the SATA version being used
2 meters
81
____ is a 15-pin blue connector used for videos; it sends analog signals.
VGA
aka
Female DB-15
82
_____ is a digital connector that can send both audio and video
HDMI
83
_____ is a connector capable of sending both analog or digital and supports single/dual links.
DVI
84
_____ is a connector used for analog audio connections.
TRS
Tip Ring Sleeve
85
____ is a connector used for digital audio connections.
TOSLINK
86
_____ is a four-pin network cable used for ethernet application.
RJ-45
87
_____ is a two-pair cable, typically used for phone lines and analog connections.
RJ-11
88
_____ is a high-speed serial connection; sends data and power on the same cable.
Thunderbolt
89
_____ is a wireless connection for industrial use. It has a maximum range of 100 meters.
Bluetooth class 1
90
____ is a wireless connection for mobile use. It has a max distance of 10 meters.
Bluetooth class 2
91
______ is a wireless connection for special usage. It has a max distance of 1 meter.
Bluetooth class 3
92
_____ is encompassed into the 802.11 standards for wireless communications. It operates at varying frequency levels.
RF
93
_____ is a short range wireless technology. Its speeds are 106, 212, or 424 Kbps, and its max distance is around 10 centimeters.
NFC
94
_____ are typically lower frequency audio signals. They are prone to interference (noise) that distorts the signal.
Analog Signals
95
_____ are sent using a binary signal of zeros and ones. They have the advantage of being able to eliminate noise. They can easily be compressed, and they use less storage.
Digital signals
96
_____ deals with how much information you can send through the communication medium at a given time. Its typically measured in bytes or bits, depending on the technology.
Transfer speed
97
Transfer Speed is commonly called _____.
Throughput
98
When choosing connection characteristics _____ is the ability to faithfully reproduce a signal, typically an attribute of voice communication.
Quality
99
_______ is the number of samples of audio carried per second. It should be considered when determining Quality.
Sample Rate
100
(True/False) Lower frequency transmissions have the advantage of range over higher frequencies.
True
101
(True/False) Higher frequency transmissions have the advantage of greater bandwidth.
True
102
_____ connectors can provide 3.3V, 5V and 12V for general specifications.
Molex
103
_____ connectors are called ATX 12V or EPS 12V.
4/8-pin 12V
104
The _____ connector provides 12V as 75 watts through 6 pins or 150 watts through 8 pins.
PCIe 6/8-pin
105
The _____ is likely the largest power connector for your computer; it provides 3.3V 5V or 12V specifications.
20-pin : 20/24-pin connector
106
The ______ is designed to be backwards compatible with the 20-pin connector; it provides 3.3V, 5V or 12V specifications.
24-pin connector
107
______ is a power rating like horsepower. It is the ability to do work. It is the product of current multiplied by voltage.
Wattage
108
The _____ specification indicates the power supply has two 12V rails inside it for connections on independent circuits.
Dual rail
109
A ______ is able to switch between 100V and 240V either manually or automatically.
Dual voltage power supply
110
When building a Graphic/CAD/CAM workstation what components should be considered a priority?
Multicore processor
High End Video Card
Maximum RAM
111
What components should be prioritized when building an Audio/Video editing workstation?
HighEnd Audio Card
HighEnd Video Card
A Large/Fast Hard drive
Dual Monitors
112
What components are recommended for a Virtualization Machine?
Maximum RAM
| Multicore CPU
113
What components should be prioritized for a gaming PC?
Multicore CPU
HighEnd Video Card
HighEnd Audio Card
HighEnd Cooling
114
What components are recommended for a home theater PC?
Surround Sound Audio
HDMI output
HTPC compact form
TV tuner
115
What components are recommended for a Standard Thick Client?
Desktop Applications
| OS requirements
116
What components are recommended for a Thin Client PC?
Basic Applications
OS requirements
Network Connection
117
What components are recommended for a Home Server?
```
Media Streaming
File Sharing
Print Sharing
Gigabit NIC
RAID array
```
118
_____ is a display device technology where light shines through liquid crystals to create images; it uses a colored filter.
An LCD
119
____ or Twisted Nematic LCD; has fast response times.
LCD TN
120
_____ is an In Plane Switching LCD; good for mobile devices; its more expensive than other LCDs.
LCD IPS
121
_____ is an older display device technology; it uses more power than a LED backlighting LCD.
LCD fluorescent backlighting
122
_____ is a modern display device technology; its useful in complex lighting designs
LED backlighting
123
_____ is an older display device technology that uses extremely bright lamps to project images onto a wall; it commonly uses LCD technology; replacement bulbs are expensive.
A projector
124
_____ is a display device technology that uses organic diode material to create the display; it doesn't use a backlight.
OLED (Organic LED)
125
_____ refers to how many times a screen can be updated in a second.
Refresh rate
Or
Frame rate
126
______ refers to the number of pixels that can be used on the display; aka aspect ratio.
Resolution
127
______ happens when the number of pixels match up as intended for the resolution or aspect ratio; manually setting to an odd resolution can result in distortion.
Native Resolution
128
______ the amount of light given off that we can detect; depends on the size of the room and the amount of light in the area.
Brightness/lumens
129
_____ is sent as a continuos signal and can appear distorted; _____ is simply a numerical value.
Analog
| Digital
130
_____ makes a display only viewable only when you are right in front of it.
A privacy filter
131
_____ reduces the glare coming off a bright screen.
Antiglare filter
132
_____ improves the efficiency when working on a computer; common for business environments.
Multiple displays
133
______ 1920 pixels width by 1200 height.
16:10 ratio
134
______ 1600 pixels width by 1200 height.
4:3 ratio
135
_____ allows printers to use both sides of the paper for printing.
Duplex Printing
136
_____ allow you to print multiple copies of information and have the printer send these copies out in the correct order.
Collate Settings
137
_____ refers to printing in a landscape fashion verses a portrait fashion.
Orientation settings
138
When considering printers _____ can refer to printing in color verses black and white, or simply adjusting resolution settings.
Quality
139
Printers usually connect to a computer _____.
Via USB
140
Older printer models may connect via a serial connection, utilizing a _____.
DB-25 connector
141
Windows devices will allow access to a ______ port number that is mapped to the printer.
TCP
142
Apple devices will use a different protocol to print, commonly called ______.
Bonjour
143
Most Apple mobile devices will use _____ protocol.
Airprint
144
______ is a rotating drum that the laser beams the image onto; it also picks up toner.
Imaging drum
145
_____ applies pressure and heat to allow the toner to bond with the paper.
Fuser assembly
146
_____ works in tandem with the roller to transfer the image onto the paper.
Transfer belt
147
_____ works in tandem with the belt to assist with moving the paper along the transfer process.
Transfer roller
148
_____ moves paper throughout the printer.
Pickup rollers
149
_____ pulls single sheets of paper into the printer.
Separate pads
150
_____ allows printing on both sides of the paper; flips over the paper inside of the printer.
Duplex assembly
151
____ processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing and cleaning.
The imaging process
152
_____ is an inkjet part that stores ink used for printing.
Ink cartridge
153
_____ is an inkjet part that is often integrated with the ink cartridge.
Printhead
154
_____ is an inkjet part that pulls paper throughout the printer.
Roller
155
______ is an inkjet part that brings paper into the printer to start a print job.
Feeder
156
_____ is an inkjet part that allows printing on both sides of the paper by flipping paper over during the printing process.
Duplexing assembly
157
_____ Is an inkjet part that allows print heads to move back and forth, printing to paper.
Carriage and belt
158
_____ is a process that aligns the printhead nozzles with the paper to ensure print jobs are optimal.
Calibration
159
_____ is a type of printer that only needs heat to complete a print job.
Thermal printer
160
_____ is a special kind of paper that is required to print with a thermal printer. This paper is covered with a special chemical that reacts to heat.
Thermal paper
161
The _____ or _____ printer creates output by pushing a pin through a ribbon several times. It is used when printing numerous copies or when using thick paper.
Impact
| Dot Matrix
162
_____ is a dot matrix printer part that contains the pins used to punch through the ribbon onto the paper.
Printhead
163
_____ is a dot matrix printer part that holds the ink needed to make the print impressions.
Ribbon
