2° Full-Length Test Flashcards

(180 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is a primary output of ‘Develop Project Charter’?
- A) Project scope statement
- B) Project management plan
- C) Project charter
- D) Stakeholder register

A

Correct Answer: C

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2
Q

The ‘Buyer-Conducted Performance Review’ is an activity within which process?
- A) Control Procurements
- B) Plan Procurement Management
- C) Conduct Procurements
- D) Close Procurements

A

Correct Answer: A

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3
Q

‘Project Scope Management’ includes:
- A) Defining and controlling what is included and what is not included in the project.
- B) Identifying the project outcomes beneficial to stakeholders.
- C) Managing the project team.
- D) Ensuring the project is completed within the approved budget.

A

Correct Answer: A

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4
Q

‘Earned Value Analysis’ (EVA) is utilized to:
- A) Estimate the required budget at completion of the project.
- B) Measure the project performance against the scope, schedule, and cost baselines.
- C) Define the total scope of the project.
- D) Allocate the project resources efficiently.

A

Correct Answer: B

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5
Q

The main purpose of ‘Control Schedule’ is to:
- A) Develop the project schedule.
- B) Ensure that project activities are completed on time.
- C) Monitor the status of project activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline.
- D) Allocate sufficient time for project tasks.

A

Correct Answer: C

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6
Q

Which process involves reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and updating the project management plan and project documents?
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work
- B) Monitor and Control Project Work
- C) Perform Integrated Change Control
- D) Control Scope

A

Correct Answer: C

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7
Q

‘Stakeholder Analysis’ is a technique used in:
- A) Develop Project Charter
- B) Identify Stakeholders
- C) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A

Correct Answer: B

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8
Q

The ‘To-Complete Performance Index’ (TCPI) is calculated to:
- A) Determine the cost performance required to complete the project within the original budget.
- B) Measure the cost efficiency of work performed to date.
- C) Forecast the project’s schedule performance.
- D) Assess the project team’s effectiveness.

A

Correct Answer: A

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9
Q

‘Qualitative Risk Analysis’ should:
- A) Assign a numerical value to both the probability of occurrence and the impact of project risks.
- B) Prioritize risks based on their probability of occurrence and potential impact on project objectives.
- C) Quantify the possible outcomes for the project and their probabilities.
- D) Develop responses for the highest priority risks.

A

Correct Answer: B

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10
Q

In the ‘Manage Communications’ process, what is a key activity?
- A) Creating a detailed project budget.
- B) Ensuring that project information is generated, collected, distributed, and understood.
- C) Performing a stakeholder analysis.
- D) Updating the project risk register.

A

Correct Answer: B

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11
Q

Which of the following best describes ‘Resource Leveling’?
- A) Enhancing project team members’ skills through additional training.
- B) Adjusting the project schedule to address resource over-allocation.
- C) Allocating the most skilled resources to high-priority tasks.
- D) Reducing the project scope to meet resource availability.

A

Correct Answer: B

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12
Q

The ‘Cost Management Plan’ is developed in which process?
- A) Plan Cost Management
- B) Estimate Costs
- C) Determine Budget
- D) Control Costs

A

Correct Answer: A

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12
Q

‘Procurement Statements of Work’ (SOW) are developed to:
- A) Describe the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results.
- B) Outline the project’s scope in detail.
- C) Provide vendors with a clear understanding of project timelines.
- D) Establish the project’s quality requirements.

A

Correct Answer: A

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13
Q

What does the ‘Project Schedule Network Diagram’ provide?
- A) An estimation of the project’s costs.
- B) A visual representation of the project’s activities and their interdependencies.
- C) The critical path of the project.
- D) Both B and C.

A

Correct Answer: D

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14
Q

During which process group is the ‘Project Charter’ developed?
- A) Initiating
- B) Planning
- C) Executing
- D) Monitoring and Controlling

A

Correct Answer: A

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15
Q

‘Risk Urgency Assessment’ is a tool used to:
- A) Measure the severity of potential project risks.
- B) Prioritize risks based on their urgency and potential impact on project objectives.
- C) Identify the risks that require immediate response.
- D) Determine the probability of risk occurrence.

A

Correct Answer: B

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16
Q

The main goal of ‘Plan Communications Management’ is to:
- A) Ensure that all project stakeholders are kept informed about the project status.
- B) Determine the information and communications needs of the project stakeholders.
- C) Develop an appropriate approach for project communications based on stakeholder needs and requirements.
- D) Implement the tools and techniques necessary to enhance project communication.

A

Correct Answer: C

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17
Q

The ‘Control Quality’ process is crucial because it:
- A) Defines the quality standards for the project.
- B) Identifies quality metrics for the project.
- C) Ensures that the project’s deliverables meet the defined quality standards.
- D) Develops the project management plan.

A

Correct Answer: C

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18
Q

‘Bottom-Up Estimating’ is a technique that:
- A) Estimates the project cost by aggregating the individual costs from the bottom up.
- B) Provides a quick and easy way to estimate project duration.
- C) Is used exclusively during the closing phase of the project.
- D) Relies solely on the expertise of top management for estimation.

A

Correct Answer: A

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19
Q

Which process involves establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule?
- A) Plan Schedule Management
- B) Develop Schedule
- C) Control Schedule
- D) Sequence Activities

A

Correct Answer: A

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19
Q

‘Configuration Management’ is primarily concerned with:
- A) Managing the project team’s configuration.
- B) Tracking changes to the product configuration and documenting them.
- C) Ensuring the compatibility of project hardware and software.
- D) Managing the project schedule configuration.

A

Correct Answer: B

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20
Q

‘Stakeholder Management Plan’ is developed to:
- A) Identify project stakeholders.
- B) Analyze the potential impact of project decisions on stakeholders.
- C) Outline strategies to engage stakeholders effectively.
- D) Track stakeholder satisfaction.

A

Correct Answer: C

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21
Q

The purpose of ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ is to:
- A) Review all change requests, approve changes, and manage changes to the deliverables, organizational process assets, and project documents.
- B) Ensure that all changes are communicated to all stakeholders.
- C) Implement approved changes to the project scope, plans, and environment.
- D) Both A and C.

A

Correct Answer: D

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22
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘Monitor Stakeholder Engagement’ process?
- A) To identify all stakeholders at the beginning of the project.
- B) To plan how to engage stakeholders effectively.
- C) To track project performance and make necessary adjustments to the engagement strategies.
- D) To ensure all stakeholders are fully satisfied with the project outcomes.

A

Correct Answer: C

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23
'Critical Path Method' (CPM) is primarily used for: - A) Identifying the longest sequence of activities in a project plan which must be completed on time for the project to complete on due date. - B) Estimating the shortest possible project duration. - C) Determining the most cost-effective way to complete the project. - D) Assessing the risk impact on project schedules.
Correct Answer: A
24
In 'Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis', what is a primary factor to consider? - A) The numerical impact of each risk on project objectives. - B) The probability and impact of risks occurring. - C) The total cost of risk mitigation activities. - D) The exact duration impact of each risk on the project.
Correct Answer: B
25
'Resource Optimization Techniques' are used to address: - A) The alignment of project budget allocations. - B) The improvement of team performance and skills. - C) The balancing of resource allocation to ensure project milestones are met. - D) The enhancement of communication methods within the project team.
Correct Answer: C
26
Which output from the 'Direct and Manage Project Work' process is used to influence and inform stakeholders of project progress? - A) Change requests - B) Project documents updates - C) Deliverables - D) Work performance data
Correct Answer: D
27
The 'Schedule Performance Index' (SPI) is a measure of: - A) Cost efficiency on a project. - B) Schedule efficiency on a project. - C) The accuracy of the project scope. - D) The effectiveness of risk management.
Correct Answer: B
28
What is a key activity in the 'Manage Communications' process? - A) Updating the risk register with new communications risks. - B) Ensuring that the communications meet stakeholders' needs and are understood. - C) Creating a new project management plan. - D) Conducting performance reviews with the project team.
Correct Answer: B
29
'Earned Value Management' (EVM) integrates information from which areas? - A) Scope, schedule, and quality - B) Scope, quality, and risk - C) Scope, schedule, and cost - D) Cost, quality, and risk
Correct Answer: C
30
The primary purpose of 'Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix' is to: - A) List all potential project stakeholders and their information. - B) Document how stakeholders prefer to receive project communications. - C) Assess the current engagement level of stakeholders and plan future engagement strategies. - D) Evaluate the power and influence of stakeholders over the project.
Correct Answer: C
31
'Plan Procurement Management' involves: - A) Deciding which project needs can be best met by procuring products or services outside the project organization. - B) Selecting sellers and awarding contracts. - C) Managing contract and vendor performance. - D) Closing out contracts upon project completion.
Correct Answer: A
32
'Analogous Estimating' is characterized by: - A) High accuracy and is based on detailed project data. - B) Using historical data from similar projects as the basis for estimating. - C) Being the most time-consuming estimating technique. - D) Providing an estimate for the total project rather than individual tasks.
Correct Answer: B
33
In project management, 'Procurement Audits' are conducted to: - A) Review the procurement process from planning through closure. - B) Ensure that all procurements comply with legal requirements. - C) Audit the project team's performance. - D) Assess the seller's financial stability.
Correct Answer: A
34
'Decision Tree Analysis' is a tool used in which process? - A) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis - B) Plan Risk Responses - C) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - D) Identify Risks
Correct Answer: A
35
'Work Performance Reports' provide information on: - A) The physical work accomplished. - B) Project forecasts and potential issues. - C) Detailed financial expenditures. - D) Compliance with project governance.
Correct Answer: B
36
Which of the following is true about the 'Close Project or Phase' process? - A) It focuses exclusively on financial closure of the project. - B) It involves handing off completed deliverables to the next phase or project closure. - C) It is conducted during the execution phase to close out parts of the project work. - D) It includes activities to transfer the completed project to operations or maintenance.
Correct Answer: D
37
The 'Cost of Quality' includes costs associated with: - A) Procuring high-quality materials only. - B) Prevention, appraisal, and failure (both internal and external). - C) Training project team members on quality management processes. - D) Meeting legal requirements for product quality.
Correct Answer: B
38
'Scope Creep' refers to: - A) The total work included in the project scope. - B) The uncontrolled expansion to project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources. - C) The reduction of project scope during the project execution phase. - D) Detailed documentation of the project scope.
Correct Answer: B
39
Which process ensures that project work is performed according to the project management plan and authorizes the transition between project phases? - A) Monitor and Control Project Work - B) Direct and Manage Project Work - C) Perform Integrated Change Control - D) Close Project or Phase
Correct Answer: B
40
'Resource Smoothing' is a technique where: - A) Project resources are extended to lower overall costs. - B) Resources are adjusted so that requirements on all days of the project are not to exceed certain predefined levels. - C) Additional resources are allocated to critical tasks. - D) Tasks are delayed to manage resource utilization.
Correct Answer: B
41
The 'Project Schedule Network Diagram' provides a graphical representation of: - A) The project's cost baseline. - B) The project's resources and their allocations. - C) The logical relationships among all the project activities. - D) The project's time and cost performance data.
Correct Answer: C
42
In which process would you develop a 'Stakeholder Engagement Plan'? - A) Identify Stakeholders - B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement - C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement - D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Correct Answer: B
42
'Plan Quality Management' is crucial for determining: - A) The project’s quality policy, objectives, and responsibilities so that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken. - B) The metrics to be used for monitoring and controlling quality. - C) The specific quality standards that the project will aim to meet. - D) Both A and C.
Correct Answer: D
43
'Earned Value Management' (EVM) helps project managers to: - A) Track the ethical conduct of the project team. - B) Measure project performance against the project scope baseline. - C) Assess project performance and progress against established scope, schedule, and cost baselines. - D) Ensure the project team's compliance with legal requirements.
Correct Answer: C
44
'Change Management Plan' is a component of: - A) The project management plan that describes how changes will be managed throughout the project. - B) The project scope statement that outlines how scope changes will be handled. - C) The communications management plan that details how changes are communicated to stakeholders. - D) The stakeholder engagement plan that outlines how stakeholders are informed about changes.
Correct Answer: A
44
'Bottom-Up Estimating': - A) Is a method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). - B) Provides an estimate for the project as a whole without going into detailed estimates for activities. - C) Is used primarily in the early phases of project planning when detailed information is not available. - D) Is less accurate than analogous and parametric estimating.
Correct Answer: A
45
What is the primary focus of the 'Develop Schedule' process in project management? - A) Allocating project resources effectively. - B) Analyzing project risks and their impact on the project schedule. - C) Establishing the order and timing of project activities to complete the project. - D) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of project team members.
Correct Answer: C
46
'Parametric Estimating' involves: - A) Estimating the duration or cost of an activity by applying an average of similar activities from past projects. - B) Using project-specific variables in a mathematical model to forecast project costs or durations. - C) Summing the costs of individual work packages or activities to come up with a project total. - D) Relying on the expertise of seasoned project managers to estimate costs and durations.
Correct Answer: B
47
In project risk management, 'Secondary Risks' are best described as: - A) Risks that have been identified but are considered low priority. - B) New risks that arise as a direct result of implementing a risk response. - C) Risks that are identified by stakeholders external to the project team. - D) The risks remaining after the primary risks have been mitigated.
Correct Answer: B
48
The 'Manage Team' process is crucial for: - A) Identifying the skills and expertise required for project tasks. - B) Developing individual team members to enhance project performance. - C) Tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to enhance project performance. - D) Ensuring that the project team adheres to the project schedule.
Correct Answer: C
49
'Work Performance Data' includes: - A) The analysis of project progress and performance. - B) Raw observations and measurements identified during activities performed to carry out the project work. - C) Recommendations for future actions to improve performance. - D) High-level information regarding project progress.
Correct Answer: B
50
What is the main outcome of the 'Plan Stakeholder Engagement' process? - A) A detailed list of project stakeholders. - B) A plan describing how to effectively engage stakeholders and manage their expectations. - C) A report on stakeholder satisfaction with the project. - D) Documentation of resolved stakeholder issues.
Correct Answer: B
51
'Cost-Benefit Analysis' in project management is used to: - A) Track and report actual costs incurred during the project. - B) Evaluate the financial viability of the project. - C) Estimate the costs associated with project risks. - D) Determine the project's internal rate of return (IRR).
Correct Answer: B
52
In 'Perform Integrated Change Control,' a major role of the Change Control Board (CCB) is to: - A) Implement changes as soon as they are requested by any stakeholder. - B) Review, evaluate, and approve or reject change requests. - C) Ensure that all changes are reflected in the project schedule. - D) Communicate changes to external stakeholders.
Correct Answer: B
53
The 'Collect Requirements' process is essential for: - A) Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives. - B) Gathering the project team's input on the project scope. - C) Collecting the project deliverables at the end of each phase. - D) Understanding the budgetary requirements of the project stakeholders.
Correct Answer: A
54
'Resource Calendars' are important in project management because they: - A) Outline the financial resources available over the life of the project. - B) Detail when specific project resources are available to perform project activities. - C) Provide a timeline of project milestones and deliverables. - D) Indicate the availability of equipment and materials required for the project.
Correct Answer: B
55
The main goal of 'Control Costs' is to: - A) Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project work. - B) Monitor the status of the project to update project costs and manage changes to the cost baseline. - C) Ensure that all project expenditures are recorded and reported. - D) Provide a comprehensive breakdown of all costs associated with the project.
Correct Answer: B
56
'Project Charter' includes information about: - A) Detailed project requirements and the project management plan. - B) High-level project description, key stakeholders, and the project's objectives. - C) The project's cost baseline and budget allocations. - D) Specific tasks assigned to project team members.
Correct Answer: B
57
'Quality Metrics' might include measurements such as: - A) The number of change requests approved. - B) The percentage of tasks completed on schedule. - C) The number of defects per thousand lines of code. - D) The total cost of the project at completion.
Correct Answer: C
58
'Stakeholder Engagement' levels throughout a project are typically: - A) Static and unchanging. - B) Decreasing as the project progresses. - C) Increasing in a linear fashion as the project moves forward. - D) Dynamic and may change based on project phase and stakeholder influence.
Correct Answer: D
59
The 'Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis' process primarily: - A) Assigns numerical values to the probability and impacts of identified risks. - B) Prioritizes risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. - C) Involves developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats. - D) Quantifies the possible outcomes for the project and their probabilities.
Correct Answer: B
60
'Decision Tree Analysis' in project management is useful for: - A) Organizing and presenting the schedule activities in a graphical sequential order. - B) Making informed decisions when multiple options are available with different outcomes. - C) Tracking the project progress against its objectives. - D) Analyzing the project team's performance.
Correct Answer: B
61
'Variance Analysis' in the context of project management is used to: - A) Determine the cause of differences between the planned and actual performance. - B) Analyze the variance between different project estimates. - C) Compare the cost variances of different projects within the same program. - D) Establish new baselines for project performance.
Correct Answer: A
62
Which of the following is NOT a direct benefit of 'Project Scope Management'? - A) Ensuring the project includes all and only the work required. - B) Preventing scope creep. - C) Increasing the project's budget to accommodate changes. - D) Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
Correct Answer: C
63
The 'Manage Communications' process is important because it: - A) Defines the project's communications channels. - B) Ensures that project information is generated, collected, distributed, stored, retrieved, and disposed of according to the communications management plan. - C) Establishes new communication technologies for project management. - D) Documents the project's communication requirements in the project charter.
Correct Answer: B
64
'Lessons Learned' documentation is compiled: - A) Only at the beginning of the project during the initiating process. - B) Exclusively at the end of the project during the closing process. - C) Throughout the project lifecycle and finalized during the closing process. - D) During project planning and never revisited.
Correct Answer: C
65
What is the primary purpose of 'Project Integration Management'? - A) To ensure that all project phases are completed on time. - B) To oversee the performance of the project team. - C) To coordinate all aspects of the project plan. - D) To manage the integration of project budget and resource allocations.
Correct Answer: C
66
'Monte Carlo Analysis' is a tool used in: - A) Developing the project schedule. - B) Performing quantitative risk analysis. - C) Estimating project costs. - D) Planning resource allocations.
Correct Answer: B
67
In which process would 'Expert Judgment' be utilized to estimate the duration of project activities? - A) Develop Schedule - B) Estimate Activity Durations - C) Plan Resource Management - D) Define Activities
Correct Answer: B
68
'Plan Cost Management' involves: - A) Approving project budgets and funding. - B) Estimating costs of individual activities. - C) Defining how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled. - D) Allocating additional funds to cover project risks.
Correct Answer: C
69
The process of 'Close Procurements' is primarily concerned with: - A) Documenting project procurement decisions. - B) Completing and settling each contract, including the resolution of any open items. - C) Developing the procurement management plan. - D) Selecting sellers and awarding contracts.
Correct Answer: B
70
The 'Define Scope' process primarily aims to: - A) Establish the project's boundaries and acceptance criteria. - B) Identify the high-level objectives and deliverables of the project. - C) Detail the project's specific goals, deliverables, tasks, and deadlines. - D) Create a detailed description of the project and product
Correct Answer: D
71
'Schedule Compression' techniques include: - A) Fast tracking and resource leveling. - B) Crashing and fast tracking. - C) Monte Carlo simulations and crashing. - D) Resource smoothing and Monte Carlo simulations.
Correct Answer: B
72
In project management, 'Scope Creep' can be best managed by: - A) Increasing the project budget to accommodate additional work. - B) Implementing a rigorous change control process. - C) Reducing the project scope to offset additional tasks. - D) Allowing stakeholders to make changes without formal approval.
Correct Answer: B
73
'Earned Value Management' (EVM) helps in determining: - A) The project's communication needs. - B) The project's strategic alignment with organizational goals. - C) The project's physical progress compared to its planned progress. - D) The effectiveness of the project team's collaboration.
Correct Answer: C
74
A 'Stakeholder Engagement Plan' is developed to: - A) List all potential and current project stakeholders. - B) Detail strategies for engaging stakeholders throughout the project lifecycle. - C) Document the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders. - D) Ensure all stakeholders approve the project management plan.
Correct Answer: B
75
'Cost Performance Index' (CPI) and 'Schedule Performance Index' (SPI) are components of: - A) Scope management. - B) Quality management. - C) Risk management. - D) Performance measurement.
Correct Answer: D
76
The 'Monitor and Control Project Work' process is vital for: - A) Approving project changes and updating the project management plan. - B) Tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project. - C) Ensuring that project objectives are met through stakeholder engagement. - D) Developing and managing the project team and organizational interfaces.
Correct Answer: B
77
Which process involves the formal authorization to begin a new project or project phase? - A) Develop Project Charter - B) Develop Project Management Plan - C) Define Scope - D) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Correct Answer: A
78
'Qualitative Risk Analysis' includes evaluating risks based on their: - A) Probability and impact. - B) Cost implications. - C) Duration effects. - D) Response costs.
Correct Answer: A
79
In the 'Control Quality' process, the main focus is on: - A) Identifying quality requirements. - B) Inspecting the quality of deliverables and ensuring they meet the project and product requirements. - C) Developing the project team's quality management skills. - D) Planning how quality will be managed throughout the project
Correct Answer: B
80
'Resource Leveling' is a technique used to: - A) Enhance team performance by providing training and development. - B) Address resource over-allocation within the project schedule. - C) Allocate additional resources to activities to compress the schedule. - D) Level out project risks by applying adequate resources.
Correct Answer: B
81
'Procurement Management Plan' details: - A) How the project will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization. - B) The project's budget for external purchases. - C) A list of preferred vendors. - D) The contract closure process.
Correct Answer: A
82
Which of the following best describes 'Project Integration Management'? - A) It involves making choices about resource allocation. - B) It focuses exclusively on integrating the project schedule. - C) It ensures that project components are properly coordinated. - D) It deals only with the integration of project costs and budgets.
Correct Answer: C
83
The purpose of the 'Perform Integrated Change Control' process is to: - A) Ensure that all changes are beneficial to the project's objectives. - B) Review all change requests, approve changes, and manage changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan. - C) Prevent any changes to the project scope. - D) Document all changes made to the project.
Correct Answer: B
84
'Bottom-Up Estimating' is most useful when: - A) There is a high level of uncertainty in project activities. - B) Detailed information about the project is available. - C) The project is small and not complex. - D) Quick project estimates are required.
Correct Answer: B
85
'Stakeholder Analysis' in the 'Identify Stakeholders' process is used to: - A) Determine the project scope. - B) Analyze stakeholders' potential impact on the project. - C) Estimate the resources required by stakeholders. - D) Create a communications plan.
Correct Answer: B
86
The 'Control Scope' process involves: - A) Developing a detailed project scope statement. - B) Monitoring the status of the project and managing changes to the scope baseline. - C) Ensuring all requested changes and recommended corrective actions are processed. - D) Defining and documenting project and product functionality.
Correct Answer: B
87
What is a primary concern of 'Cost Management'? - A) Determining how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled. - B) Ensuring that project purchases stay within the budget. - C) Allocating additional funds to cover unforeseen expenses. - D) Reducing project costs to increase profitability.
Correct Answer: A
88
'Work Performance Information' is: - A) Data collected from performance measurements to analyze project progress. - B) The raw observations and data identified during project execution. - C) An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process. - D) Detailed information on which project aspects are performing as planned.
Correct Answer: D
89
The main objective of 'Plan Stakeholder Engagement' is to: - A) Identify all people or organizations impacted by the project. - B) Develop approaches to involve stakeholders based on their needs and potential impact. - C) Communicate project information to stakeholders to ensure their continued support. - D) Monitor overall project stakeholder relationships.
Correct Answer: B
90
'Monte Carlo Simulation' is utilized in project management to: - A) Define the project scope. - B) Estimate the probability of completing the project by a certain date or within a certain cost. - C) Develop the project schedule. - D) Allocate project resources.
Correct Answer: B
91
'Project Governance' includes: - A) Managing project deliverables and tasks. - B) The framework within which project decisions are made. - C) The daily management of the project team. - D) Documenting project changes.
Correct Answer: B
92
Which process aims to document project procurement decisions, specify the approach, and identify potential sellers? - A) Plan Procurement Management - B) Conduct Procurements - C) Control Procurements - D) Close Procurements
Correct Answer: A
93
'Project Scope Statement' is developed in which process? - A) Plan Scope Management - B) Collect Requirements - C) Define Scope - D) Create WBS
Correct Answer: C
94
The primary purpose of 'Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis' is to: - A) Numerically analyze the effect of identified risks on project objectives. - B) Prioritize risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact. - C) Implement risk responses for the most significant project risks. - D) Monitor identified risks throughout the project lifecycle.
Correct Answer: B
95
Which process involves determining the project stakeholders' information needs and defining a communication approach? - A) Identify Stakeholders - B) Plan Communications Management - C) Manage Communications - D) Monitor Communications
Correct Answer: B
96
'Resource Histogram' is a tool used in which of the following processes? - A) Estimate Activity Resources - B) Acquire Resources - C) Develop Schedule - D) Control Resources
Correct Answer: A
97
What is the main goal of the 'Identify Risks' process? - A) To implement risk response actions for identified risks. - B) To determine the probability and impact of identified risks on project objectives. - C) To document the overall risk management approach for the project. - D) To determine which risks might affect the project and document their characteristics.
Correct Answer: D
98
The 'Cost Performance Index' (CPI) is an indicator of: - A) The efficiency of time management on the project. - B) The efficiency of cost management on the project. - C) The status of the project schedule. - D) The project's progress toward completion.
Correct Answer: B
99
In the context of project scope management, 'Control Scope' is important because it: - A) Identifies the work required for the project. - B) Ensures that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. - C) Monitors the status of the project and product scope and manages changes to the scope baseline. - D) Defines and approves all project and product deliverables.
Correct Answer: C
100
Which process ensures that the project's deliverables are complete and satisfactory? - A) Validate Scope - B) Control Quality - C) Define Scope - D) Plan Quality Management
Correct Answer: A
101
'Procurement Documents' should be used during which process to solicit proposals from prospective sellers? - A) Plan Procurement Management - B) Conduct Procurements - C) Control Procurements - D) Close Procurements
Correct Answer: B
101
'Work Breakdown Structure' (WBS) is primarily used to: - A) Allocate project budgets. - B) Organize and define the total scope of the project. - C) Schedule project tasks. - D) Identify project risks.
Correct Answer: B
102
The purpose of 'Monitor Risks' process is to: - A) Identify new risks and reassess existing risks. - B) Prioritize risks based on their impact and probability. - C) Implement risk response plans. - D) Track identified risks, monitor residual risks, and identify new risks, ensuring the execution of risk response plans.
Correct Answer: D
103
In 'Perform Integrated Change Control', the main role of the Change Control Board (CCB) is to: - A) Implement all approved changes. - B) Review and approve, postpone, or reject changes to the project. - C) Update the project management plan to reflect changes. - D) Ensure that all change requests are documented.
Correct Answer: B
104
Which of the following best describes 'Fast Tracking'? - A) Increasing project resources to speed up the project completion. - B) Performing more project activities in parallel. - C) Reducing the project scope to meet deadlines. - D) Extending the project schedule to accommodate all tasks.
Correct Answer: B
105
'Qualitative Risk Analysis' typically involves assessing risks based on their: - A) Quantitative impact on the project's objectives. - B) Severity and the cost to mitigate them. - C) Probability of occurrence and potential impact on project objectives. - D) Relationship to other project risks.
Correct Answer: C
106
'Stakeholder Engagement Plan' includes strategies for: - A) Identifying stakeholders. - B) Engaging stakeholders based on their needs, interests, and potential impact on project success. - C) Communicating project information to stakeholders. - D) Assigning tasks to stakeholders.
Correct Answer: B
107
The 'To-Complete Performance Index' (TCPI) is used to: - A) Calculate the performance needed to complete the project within the original budget. - B) Measure the cost performance to date. - C) Estimate the project's final cost at completion. - D) Assess the schedule performance of the project.
Correct Answer: A
108
Which of the following is NOT typically a reason for project initiation? - A) A market demand. - B) An organizational need. - C) A legal requirement. - D) A competitor's performance.
Correct Answer: D
109
'Earned Value Management' (EVM) integrates information from: - A) Scope, schedule, and cost for measuring project performance. - B) Quality, risk, and procurement to control project costs. - C) Human resources, communications, and stakeholder engagement for project planning. - D) Scope, quality, and human resources for performance measurement.
Correct Answer: A
110
The primary purpose of 'Plan Cost Management' is to: - A) Estimate the costs of project activities. - B) Establish policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, managing, expending, and controlling project costs. - C) Allocate the project budget across project work packages. - D) Develop a schedule for project cost reporting.
Correct Answer: B
110
A 'Responsibility Assignment Matrix' (RAM) such as a RACI chart is developed to: - A) Track project expenses and budget allocations. - B) Clarify roles and responsibilities in project tasks and processes. - C) Manage project risks and develop mitigation strategies. - D) Schedule project activities and milestones.
Correct Answer: B
111
'Analogous Estimating' is a technique used in: - A) Determining the project schedule based on the project team's availability. - B) Calculating the project budget based on historical data from similar projects. - C) Assessing project risks using past project experiences. - D) Allocating project resources based on past allocation trends.
Correct Answer: B
112
The 'Manage Quality' process aims to: - A) Determine how quality will be managed and controlled throughout the project. - B) Ensure that the project's deliverables meet the required quality standards. - C) Incorporate the organization’s quality policies into project activities. - D) Audit the quality requirements and results from quality control measurements.
Correct Answer: D
112
In project management, 'Scope Verification' is primarily concerned with: - A) Developing a detailed project scope statement. - B) Ensuring that all project work has been completed satisfactorily. - C) Obtaining formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables from the customer or sponsor. - D) Controlling changes to the project scope.
Correct Answer: C
113
'Resource Optimization' in project scheduling is used to: - A) Ensure that resources are used efficiently across the project. - B) Increase the project's duration to utilize resources fully. - C) Reduce the amount of resources required for the project. - D) Assign the best resources to the most critical tasks.
Correct Answer: A
114
Which process involves documenting the procedures to manage changes to the project scope? - A) Define Scope - B) Control Scope - C) Plan Scope Management - D) Validate Scope
Correct Answer: C
115
'Lessons Learned' documentation is used to: - A) Record the experiences and insights gained during the project for use in future projects. - B) Provide feedback to project team members on their performance. - C) Satisfy the project's compliance requirements with organizational policies. - D) Document the project team's disagreements and conflicts.
Correct Answer: A
116
What does 'rolling wave planning' imply in project management? - A) Planning the project in detail from start to finish at the beginning. - B) Planning for high-risk activities to occur as late as possible in the schedule. - C) Detailed planning for near-term activities and high-level planning for future work. - D) Adjusting the project plan daily based on team performance.
Correct Answer: C
116
'Project Integration Management' is crucial because it: - A) Deals exclusively with the integration of schedules and resources within the project. - B) Ensures that project components are properly coordinated. - C) Focuses on the project's alignment with business goals. - D) Manages the project's budget and financial resources.
Correct Answer: B
117
The main objective of the 'Identify Stakeholders' process is to: - A) Determine the project scope based on stakeholder needs. - B) Document relevant information regarding interested parties in the project. - C) Ensure all stakeholders agree with the project plan before proceeding. - D) Assign roles and responsibilities to stakeholders.
Correct Answer: B
118
'Control Schedule' is a process that aims to: - A) Develop the schedule management plan. - B) Shorten the project duration without changing the project scope. - C) Monitor the status of project activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline. - D) Allocate adequate time for project tasks.
Correct Answer: C
119
In project risk management, 'Avoidance' is a strategy that involves: - A) Changing the project plan to eliminate the threat posed by an adverse risk. - B) Accepting the risk and actively responding to its impacts. - C) Sharing the risk with another party to mitigate its impact. - D) Ignoring the risk since its impact is deemed insignificant.
Correct Answer: A
120
'Procurement Statements of Work' (SOW) are created to: - A) Outline the project's scope in detail for the procurement team. - B) Describe the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. - C) Define the specific tasks that the project team will perform. - D) Establish the project's budget for external purchases.
Correct Answer: B
120
Which of the following best describes the 'Manage Stakeholder Engagement' process? - A) Identifying people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project. - B) Communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement. - C) Monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships and adjusting strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders. - D) Assigning project roles and responsibilities to stakeholders.
Correct Answer: B
121
The 'Cost Performance Index' (CPI) is a measure of: - A) The amount of budgeted resources allocated to work. - B) The financial effectiveness of project activities. - C) The schedule efficiency of the project. - D) The projected cost at completion.
Correct Answer: B
122
'Project Charter' is an output of which process? - A) Develop Project Management Plan - B) Identify Stakeholders - C) Develop Project Charter - D) Plan Scope Management
Correct Answer: C
123
The purpose of 'Plan Risk Management' is to: - A) Identify all potential project risks. - B) Determine how to approach, plan, and execute risk management activities for a project. - C) Assign risk owners and develop risk response strategies. - D) Quantify the possible outcomes for the project and their probabilities.
Correct Answer: B
124
'Work Performance Data' consists of: - A) Analyses of project progress and performance. - B) Raw observations and measurements identified during project activities. - C) Recommendations for corrective actions based on performance. - D) Aggregated project performance information.
Correct Answer: B
125
Which process aims to review all change requests, approve changes, and manage changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan? - A) Direct and Manage Project Work - B) Perform Integrated Change Control - C) Monitor and Control Project Work - D) Control Scope
Correct Answer: B
126
'Qualitative Risk Analysis' is best used for: - A) Providing a numerical probability and impact rating of risks. - B) Prioritizing risks based on their impact and likelihood of occurrence. - C) Calculating the overall risk score for the project. - D) Developing detailed risk response plans.
Correct Answer: B
127
The 'Manage Communications' process involves: - A) Developing a strategy for managing project communications. - B) Creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan. - C) Updating the project management plan and project documents to include new communication strategies. - D) Monitoring and controlling communications throughout the entire project lifecycle.
Correct Answer: B
128
'Resource Leveling' can be used to address: - A) Scope creep by reallocating resources to critical path activities. - B) Overallocation of resources by adjusting the project schedule. - C) Budget constraints by reducing the resources assigned to project activities. - D) Quality issues by assigning more skilled resources to tasks.
Correct Answer: B
129
In the 'Monitor and Control Project Work' process, a primary activity is to: - A) Implement approved changes to the project scope, schedule, and cost baselines. - B) Track, review, and report the progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan. - C) Ensure that all project deliverables are completed on time and within budget. - D) Redefine the project scope based on stakeholder feedback.
Correct Answer: B
130
The 'Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis' process is essential for: - A) Identifying new risks throughout the project lifecycle. - B) Assessing the priority of identified risks for further analysis or action. - C) Implementing risk response actions for high-priority risks. - D) Quantitatively analyzing the impact of risks on project objectives.
Correct Answer: B
131
'Stakeholder Engagement' levels are described by all the following EXCEPT: - A) Unaware - B) Resistant - C) Supportive - D) Controlled
Correct Answer: D
132
Which of the following best describes 'Earned Value Management' (EVM)? - A) A method for measuring project performance and progress in terms of scope, time, and cost. - B) A technique for forecasting future project performance based on historical data. - C) A process for managing the project team's performance and effectiveness. - D) A system for developing and controlling the project's budget.
Correct Answer: A
133
The main purpose of 'Develop Project Management Plan' is to: - A) Document the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans. - B) Establish the total scope of the project. - C) Define and refine objectives and select the best courses of action to achieve project goals. - D) Ensure that the project will be executed in a controlled manner
Correct Answer: A
134
'Analogous Estimating' is most reliable when: - A) The previous projects are substantially similar in fact and not just in appearance. - B) The project team members have the requisite skills and experience. - C) The project is unique with no comparable past projects. - D) Detailed information about the current project is available.
Correct Answer: A
135
The 'Plan Scope Management' process is crucial for ensuring that: - A) The project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully. - B) The project scope is accurately defined and mapped. - C) The scope baseline is monitored, verified, and controlled throughout the project lifecycle. - D) Detailed descriptions of the project and product are documented and protected from scope creep.
Correct Answer: A
136
In 'Manage Team', the project manager's role includes: - A) Assigning tasks and activities to project team members. - B) Tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and implementing development plans. - C) Developing the project budget based on team needs. - D) Communicating project information to external stakeholders.
Correct Answer: B
136
'Monte Carlo Simulation' in project management is used primarily for: - A) Determining the project's critical path. - B) Estimating the probability of completing the project within the budget and on time. - C) Identifying potential project risks and their impacts. - D) Allocating resources across project activities.
Correct Answer: B
137
'Procurement Documents' are important for: - A) Establishing communication protocols between the project team and vendors. - B) Soliciting bids and proposals from prospective sellers. - C) Describing the project management processes and procedures. - D) Documenting the project scope for internal stakeholders.
Correct Answer: B
138
The 'Direct and Manage Project Work' process is responsible for: - A) Leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes. - B) Tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project. - C) Identifying changes to the project scope, schedule, and costs. - D) Approving or rejecting changes to the project.
Correct Answer: A
139
In which process would you determine the project stakeholders' information needs? - A) Identify Stakeholders - B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement - C) Manage Communications - D) Plan Communications Management
Correct Answer: D
140
What is the primary goal of 'Control Quality' in project management? - A) To ensure that the project adheres to the quality standards set forth in the quality management plan. - B) To inspect the final product to determine compliance with quality requirements. - C) To monitor and record the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes. - D) To identify quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables.
Correct Answer: C
141
The 'Plan Risk Responses' process is designed to: - A) Identify new risks throughout the project. - B) Develop options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives. - C) Prioritize risks based on their probability and impact. - D) Monitor and control risks on an ongoing basis.
Correct Answer: B
142
'Earned Value Management' (EVM) integrates information from which project management knowledge areas? - A) Scope, Schedule, and Cost - B) Quality, Human Resources, and Communications - C) Risk, Procurement, and Stakeholder Management - D) Scope, Quality, and Procurement
Correct Answer: A
143
Which of the following is NOT a typical output of the 'Develop Project Charter' process? - A) Project Charter - B) Stakeholder Register - C) Assumption Log - D) Preliminary Scope Statement
Correct Answer: B
144
The 'To-Complete Performance Index' (TCPI) provides a measure of: - A) The cost performance that must be achieved with the remaining resources to meet a specified management goal. - B) The current cost performance trends of the project. - C) The performance of the project team against the baseline. - D) The schedule performance index required to complete on time.
Correct Answer: A
145
'Resource Smoothing' is a technique that: - A) Increases the project duration to make better use of resources. - B) Adjusts the activities of a project such that the requirements on resources do not exceed certain predefined limits. - C) Allocates extra resources to activities to decrease project duration. - D) Redistributes work among resources to address a resource bottleneck.
Correct Answer: B
146
'Fast Tracking' a project involves: - A) Increasing the project budget to expedite project activities. - B) Executing more activities in parallel. - C) Extending the project timeline to accommodate more tasks. - D) Reducing the project scope to meet time constraints.
Correct Answer: B
147
The purpose of 'Perform Integrated Change Control' is to: - A) Ensure that all changes to the project are recorded. - B) Review all change requests, approve changes, and manage changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan. - C) Implement all changes as soon as they are requested. - D) Update the project management plan with the approved changes.
Correct Answer: B
148
'Quantitative Risk Analysis': - A) Assesses the impact of identified risks on project objectives using numerical data. - B) Determines the probability of achieving project objectives. - C) Prioritizes risks for further action based on their impact and likelihood. - D) Is performed immediately after 'Identify Risks' process.
Correct Answer: A
149
The 'Manage Stakeholder Engagement' process is key to: - A) Identifying all people or organizations affected by the project. - B) Communicating project information to stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations. - C) Engaging stakeholders in project decisions and activities based on their needs, interests, and potential impact. - D) Monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships.
Correct Answer: C
150
'Cost Performance Index' (CPI) and 'Schedule Performance Index' (SPI) are important because they: - A) Help in identifying the project's best practices. - B) Indicate the project's health in terms of cost and schedule. - C) Determine the quality of the project's deliverables. - D) Measure the effectiveness of stakeholder engagement.
Correct Answer: B
151
A 'Project Scope Statement' includes: - A) A detailed list of the project's deliverables, exclusions, constraints, and assumptions. - B) The project's cost baseline. - C) The schedule for stakeholder engagement activities. - D) The criteria for project success.
Correct Answer: A
152
'Procurement Documents' are used primarily for: - A) Documenting the project's purchasing decisions. - B) Soliciting bids and proposals from potential vendors. - C) Outlining the project's scope to the team. - D) Managing project team assignments.
Correct Answer: B
153
In 'Plan Human Resource Management', the key output is: - A) A project team directory. - B) Resource calendars. - C) The human resource management plan. - D) Team performance assessments.
Correct Answer: C
154
The main objective of 'Plan Communications Management' is to: - A) Develop an appropriate approach for the timely and efficient communication of project information. - B) Ensure all project information is archived. - C) Implement communication technologies for the project. - D) Provide performance reports to stakeholders.
Correct Answer: A
155
'Work Breakdown Structure' (WBS) is crucial because it: - A) Defines the project scope by breaking down all project work into smaller, more manageable components. - B) Provides a schedule for project completion. - C) Allocates the project budget across tasks. - D) Identifies the project team required for the project.
Correct Answer: A
156
'Plan Scope Management' process results in the creation of: - A) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS). - B) Scope Management Plan and Requirements Management Plan. - C) Project Scope Statement. - D) Change Management Plan.
Correct Answer: B
157
The 'Direct and Manage Project Work' process involves: - A) Leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes. - B) Monitoring the project team's performance. - C) Managing communications with stakeholders. - D) Controlling the project schedule.
Correct Answer: A
158
What is the purpose of 'Monitor Stakeholder Engagement'? - A) To ensure that all stakeholders are satisfied with the project's deliverables. - B) To track project progress and performance. - C) To monitor stakeholder relationships and tailor strategies for engaging stakeholders. - D) To identify new stakeholders throughout the project lifecycle.
Correct Answer: C
158
'Change Control Tools' are used in which process? - A) Perform Integrated Change Control - B) Direct and Manage Project Work - C) Monitor and Control Project Work - D) Plan Risk Management
Correct Answer: A
159
The 'Identify Risks' process is critical for: - A) Implementing risk responses. - B) Developing the risk management plan. - C) Determining which risks might affect the project and documenting their characteristics. - D) Prioritizing risks for further analysis.
Correct Answer: C
160
'Risk Urgency Assessment' is part of which process? - A) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - B) Identify Risks - C) Plan Risk Responses - D) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Correct Answer: A
161
'Cost Aggregation' refers to: - A) The summing of individual activity costs to establish a total cost baseline for the project. - B) The distribution of the overall project budget to individual work items. - C) The process of determining the project's cost efficiency. - D) Aggregating the estimated costs of project phases to determine the project's ROI.
Correct Answer: A
162
Which process involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project assignments? - A) Develop Project Team - B) Plan Human Resource Management - C) Acquire Resources - D) Manage Team
Correct Answer: C
162
'Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix' is used to: - A) Identify all project stakeholders. - B) Analyze stakeholders’ communication preferences. - C) Evaluate the current level of stakeholder engagement and compare it to the desired level. - D) Develop the project charter.
Correct Answer: C
163
During which process is the 'Risk Register' initially created? - A) Plan Risk Management - B) Identify Risks - C) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis - D) Plan Risk Responses
Correct Answer: B
164
The 'Control Costs' process involves: - A) Approving project budgets. - B) Estimating costs of individual project activities. - C) Monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline. - D) Determining the budget.
Correct Answer: C
165
What is the main outcome of the 'Develop Project Team' process? - A) A list of project team members and their assigned roles. - B) Improved competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance. - C) The project management plan. - D) Resource calendars.
Correct Answer: B
166
'Procurement Management Plan' specifies: - A) The types of contracts to be used. - B) The project schedule. - C) How team members will be acquired. - D) The stakeholder engagement strategies.
Correct Answer: A
167
Which statement best describes the 'Manage Quality' process? - A) It focuses on the adherence to quality standards and the correctness of the deliverables. - B) It is solely concerned with the quality of the final product. - C) It ensures that the project employs all processes necessary to meet quality requirements. - D) It is responsible for quality inspections and audits.
Correct Answer: C
168
'Perform Integrated Change Control' process is critical because it: - A) Ensures that all changes are reflected in the project budget. - B) Requires that all project changes go through a formal review process. - C) Allows project managers to make changes without stakeholder approval. - D) Focuses solely on schedule changes.
Correct Answer: B