2. Network Implementation Flashcards

1
Q

This routing method requires manual configuration of routes and does not adapt to network changes.

A

Static Routing

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2
Q

This routing method uses protocols to automatically discover and maintain routes.

A

Dynamic Routing

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3
Q

This exterior gateway protocol is used to route data between autonomous systems on the internet.

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

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4
Q

This Cisco proprietary protocol is designed for fast convergence and loop-free paths in interior networks.

A

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

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5
Q

This link-state routing protocol calculates the shortest path using Dijkstra’s algorithm and supports VLSM and CIDR.

A

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

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6
Q

This routing decision factor is based on the reliability of the routing source; lower is preferred.

A

Administrative Distance

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7
Q

This value represents how specific a route is; longer values are more precise and preferred.

A

Prefix Length

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8
Q

This routing metric includes values like hop count, bandwidth, or delay to evaluate route preference.

A

Metric

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9
Q

This technique translates private IP addresses to public ones for internet access.

A

Network Address Translation (NAT)

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10
Q

This type of NAT translates multiple private IP addresses using different port numbers on a single public IP.

A

Port Address Translation (PAT)

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11
Q

This protocol ensures high availability for gateway routers by allowing multiple routers to share a virtual IP.

A

First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP)

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12
Q

This is an IP address shared among multiple routers in a redundancy group for high availability.

A

Virtual IP (VIP)

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13
Q

This is a logical interface created on a physical router interface to support VLANs or logical segmentation.

A

Subinterface

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14
Q

Used in small or stable networks, this method doesn’t require CPU overhead but lacks fault tolerance.

A

Static Routing

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15
Q

Best for dynamic environments, this method adapts to network changes and scales well with large topologies.

A

Dynamic Routing

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16
Q

This protocol is essential to how the internet works, routing between ISPs and large organizations.

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

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17
Q

This Cisco protocol uses composite metrics like bandwidth and delay to determine the best route.

A

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

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18
Q

This open standard protocol builds a complete view of the network and converges quickly in the event of a failure.

A

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

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19
Q

This value determines which routing source (e.g., static, OSPF, BGP) is preferred when multiple paths exist.

A

Administrative Distance

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20
Q

Routes with this attribute are more specific and therefore preferred, even over routes with better metrics.

A

Prefix Length

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21
Q

This value helps compare multiple routes learned from the same source; lower typically means better.

A

Metric

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22
Q

Common in home and small business routers, this technique hides internal IPs from external networks.

A

Network Address Translation (NAT)

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23
Q

This is the most common type of NAT in IPv4 networks, allowing many internal hosts to share a single public IP.

A

Port Address Translation (PAT)

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24
Q

Used in protocols like HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP, this ensures uninterrupted connectivity if a router goes down.

A

First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP)

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25
This address is assigned to a router group instead of a single device to provide high availability.
Virtual IP (VIP)
26
This virtual interface allows one physical port to carry traffic from multiple VLANs, enabling router-on-a-stick setups.
Subinterface
27
Which type of routing requires manual configuration and does not automatically adapt to network changes? A. Dynamic Routing B. OSPF C. Static Routing D. BGP
C. Static Routing
28
Which protocol is used to route data between autonomous systems on the internet? A. EIGRP B. OSPF C. RIP D. BGP
D. BGP
29
Which dynamic routing protocol uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to calculate the shortest path? A. EIGRP B. BGP C. OSPF D. RIP
C. OSPF
30
What is the purpose of administrative distance in routing? A. To encrypt routing updates B. To determine the most specific prefix C. To prioritize routing sources D. To assign virtual IPs
C. To prioritize routing sources
31
Which routing metric measures the specificity of an IP route? A. Administrative Distance B. Hop Count C. Metric D. Prefix Length
D. Prefix Length
32
What type of NAT allows many internal IPs to share a single public IP with different port numbers? A. SNAT B. Static NAT C. PAT D. DNAT
C. PAT
33
Which protocol ensures router failover by sharing a virtual IP among routers? A. OSPF B. HSRP C. DHCP D. RIP
B. HSRP
34
What is a virtual IP (VIP)? A. An IP assigned to a cloud server B. A dynamic NAT address C. An IP shared among routers for failover D. An IPv6 tunneling address
C. An IP shared among routers for failover
35
Which of the following allows a single router interface to support multiple VLANs? A. Subinterface B. Loopback C. NAT D. PAT
A. Subinterface
36
This logical network segment separates broadcast domains on a switch, improving performance and security.
Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
37
This contains and manages the definitions of VLANs configured on a switch.
VLAN Database
38
This virtual interface enables Layer 3 routing capabilities on a switch for inter-VLAN communication.
Switch Virtual Interface (SVI)
39
This is the default VLAN used for untagged traffic on a trunk link.
Native VLAN
40
This dedicated VLAN is configured for prioritizing VoIP traffic.
Voice VLAN
41
This IEEE standard is used to tag frames so that VLAN information is preserved across trunk links.
802.1Q Tagging
42
This feature combines multiple physical links into one logical link to increase bandwidth and redundancy.
Link Aggregation
43
This port setting determines how fast data can travel over a switch port (e.g., 100Mbps, 1Gbps, etc.).
Speed
44
This setting determines whether both ends of a connection can transmit at the same time (full) or take turns (half).
Duplex
45
This protocol prevents loops in Layer 2 networks by blocking redundant paths.
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
46
This setting defines the largest packet size that can be transmitted over a network interface.
Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)
47
These Ethernet frames are larger than the standard 1,500 bytes and are used to improve efficiency on high-speed networks.
Jumbo Frames
48
Used to segment traffic, this allows departments or functions on the same switch to be isolated for security and efficiency.
Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
49
This is a list of all VLANs defined on a switch, which can be synchronized across devices using protocols like VTP.
VLAN Database
50
Used for inter-VLAN routing, this logical Layer 3 interface represents a VLAN and has an IP address.
Switch Virtual Interface (SVI)
51
This is the VLAN that untagged frames are assigned to on a trunk port; mismatched settings can cause traffic issues.
Native VLAN
52
This VLAN ensures high-quality service (QoS) for VoIP by prioritizing voice traffic on a dedicated path.
Voice VLAN
53
This tagging standard adds a 4-byte field to Ethernet frames, allowing switches to identify and manage VLAN traffic.
802.1Q Tagging
54
Also known as EtherChannel, this boosts bandwidth and provides redundancy by treating multiple cables as a single link.
Link Aggregation
55
Incorrect settings here can lead to mismatched speeds, resulting in performance degradation or dropped packets.
Speed
56
Duplex mismatches can lead to collisions, excessive retransmissions, and poor network performance.
Duplex
57
STP ensures loop-free topology by electing a root bridge and blocking redundant links while maintaining redundancy.
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
58
If a packet exceeds this limit, it may be fragmented or dropped depending on network settings.
Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)
59
Used in high-performance environments, these oversized frames reduce overhead and CPU usage by carrying more data per packet.
Jumbo Frames
60
Which switching feature allows logical separation of devices on the same physical switch? A. MTU B. VLAN C. Trunking D. SVI
B. VLAN
61
Which interface allows inter-VLAN routing from within a Layer 3 switch? A. Access Port B. VLAN Database C. Native VLAN D. Switch Virtual Interface (SVI)
D. Switch Virtual Interface (SVI)
62
Which VLAN handles untagged traffic on a trunk port? A. Voice VLAN B. Native VLAN C. Default VLAN D. Trunk VLAN
B. Native VLAN
63
Which VLAN is typically assigned to VoIP traffic to provide prioritization? A. Data VLAN B. Default VLAN C. Voice VLAN D. Management VLAN
C. Voice VLAN
64
What protocol tags Ethernet frames to identify VLAN membership across switches? A. 802.1D B. 802.1X C. 802.1Q D. 802.3af
C. 802.1Q
65
What is the purpose of link aggregation? A. Prevent VLAN hopping B. Provide backup power C. Combine multiple physical links into one logical link D. Enable DHCP on switches
C. Combine multiple physical links into one logical link
66
Which setting mismatch can lead to frame collisions and poor performance on a switch port? A. VLAN B. Link Aggregation C. Duplex D. Trunk Mode
C. Duplex
67
Which protocol prevents loops by placing redundant links in a blocking state? A. 802.1Q B. OSPF C. NAT D. Spanning Tree Protocol
D. Spanning Tree Protocol
68
What does MTU define on a network interface? A. Max number of VLANs per port B. Max number of switch ports C. Largest allowed Ethernet frame size D. Largest allowed IP packet size
D. Largest allowed IP packet size
69
What is the primary benefit of jumbo frames on high-speed networks? A. Increased VLAN security B. Reduced routing table size C. Reduced overhead and improved throughput D. Enhanced link aggregation
C. Reduced overhead and improved throughput
70
This defines a specific range of frequencies used by wireless networks to transmit data.
Channel
71
This setting determines how much frequency bandwidth a channel uses—common values include 20, 40, 80, and 160 MHz.
Channel Width
72
In 2.4GHz, these are channels (1, 6, and 11) that do not overlap and reduce interference.
Non-Overlapping Channels
73
This 802.11 amendment addresses dynamic frequency selection and power control for interference mitigation.
802.11h
74
This wireless band has better range and wall penetration but more interference and lower throughput.
2.4GHz
75
This wireless band offers faster speeds and more channels, but shorter range.
5GHz
76
This latest band introduced in Wi-Fi 6E offers high throughput and many non-overlapping channels.
6GHz
77
This feature encourages dual-band clients to connect to the less congested 5GHz or 6GHz bands.
Band Steering
78
This is the name of a wireless network that devices see when scanning for Wi-Fi.
SSID (Service Set Identifier)
79
This is the MAC address of the wireless access point used to identify the specific transmitter.
BSSID (Basic Service Set Identifier)
80
This is the name shared by multiple access points in the same logical network.
ESSID (Extended Service Set Identifier)
81
This network type uses multiple interconnected nodes to extend wireless coverage across a large area.
Mesh Network
82
This peer-to-peer network mode allows devices to communicate without an access point.
Ad Hoc
83
This wireless connection directly links two locations without using intermediate devices.
Point-to-Point
84
This common wireless mode uses access points to manage client connections.
Infrastructure Mode
85
This encryption method, used in modern wireless networks, provides strong security and supports AES encryption.
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)
86
This latest Wi-Fi security protocol adds better encryption, forward secrecy, and resistance to brute-force attacks.
WPA3
87
This is a separate, isolated wireless network often used for visitors.
Guest Network
88
This login system forces users to authenticate through a browser before getting internet access.
Captive Portal
89
This mode uses a shared password to authenticate all wireless clients.
Pre-Shared Key (PSK)
90
This mode authenticates users against a central RADIUS or AAA server for improved control and auditing.
Enterprise Authentication
91
This antenna radiates signal in all directions and is typically used for general coverage.
Omnidirectional Antenna
92
This antenna focuses signal in a specific direction, improving range and signal strength.
Directional Antenna
93
This type of AP handles all control functions locally, including RF management and client association.
Autonomous Access Point
94
This AP offloads control functions to a centralized controller for easier network management.
Lightweight Access Point
95
Interference can occur when adjacent wireless networks use overlapping frequencies in this spectrum.
Channel
96
A wider value here allows more throughput but increases the risk of interference from neighboring networks.
Channel Width
97
Using channels 1, 6, and 11 in this band avoids signal overlap and improves reliability.
Non-Overlapping Channels
98
This amendment is important in regions where radar or weather systems share frequencies with Wi-Fi.
802.11h
99
This band is ideal for large areas or penetrating obstacles but is crowded with devices like microwaves and Bluetooth.
2.4GHz
100
This band supports more non-overlapping channels, making it better for performance in dense environments.
5GHz
101
This band offers ultra-fast speeds and is best used in open, indoor environments where range is less of a concern.
6GHz
102
This feature automatically connects devices to the optimal band based on load and signal quality.
Band Steering
103
This label is often hidden or obfuscated to improve security but can still be discovered with scanning tools.
SSID
104
This address is how client devices differentiate between multiple APs broadcasting the same SSID.
BSSID
105
This name appears the same across all APs in a wireless deployment, supporting seamless roaming.
ESSID
106
Used in large-scale networks like smart cities, this topology allows self-healing and self-forming wireless coverage.
Mesh Network
107
Useful for quick, device-to-device file transfers, this network type does not rely on infrastructure.
Ad Hoc
108
This type of connection is often used for building-to-building wireless bridges or surveillance feeds.
Point-to-Point
109
This is the standard model for enterprise Wi-Fi, where clients connect through APs to reach wired resources.
Infrastructure Mode
110
This protocol introduced AES encryption, replacing the weaker TKIP used in earlier WPA versions.
WPA2
111
This protocol includes Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) and blocks offline brute-force attempts.
WPA3
112
This isolated network allows guest access while protecting the internal LAN from unauthorized users.
Guest Network
113
This system often includes a welcome page, terms of service, and authentication fields before granting access.
Captive Portal
114
This mode is easy to deploy but lacks per-user identity tracking and is less secure in public settings.
Pre-Shared Key (PSK)
115
This mode is used in enterprise environments to integrate wireless login with Active Directory or LDAP.
Enterprise Authentication
116
This antenna type radiates signal like a donut shape and is used for general area coverage.
Omnidirectional Antenna
117
This antenna can be used to focus wireless signal toward distant locations like warehouses or campus buildings.
Directional Antenna
118
This AP is self-managed and suited for smaller deployments without centralized controllers.
Autonomous Access Point
119
This AP connects to a wireless controller and is easier to deploy and manage at scale.
Lightweight Access Point
120
Which wireless band is most likely to experience interference from devices like microwaves and baby monitors? A. 5GHz B. 6GHz C. 2.4GHz D. 900MHz
C. 2.4GHz
121
Which channels are non-overlapping in the 2.4GHz band? A. 1, 3, 5 B. 2, 4, 6 C. 1, 6, 11 D. 1, 6, 10
C. 1, 6, 11
122
Which 802.11 amendment deals with dynamic frequency selection and power control to avoid interference? A. 802.11n B. 802.11h C. 802.11ac D. 802.11i
B. 802.11h
123
What is the function of band steering on dual-band access points? A. Blocks 2.4GHz traffic B. Connects legacy clients automatically C. Prioritizes 6GHz traffic D. Moves capable clients to 5GHz or 6GHz for better performance
D. Moves capable clients to 5GHz or 6GHz for better performance
124
Which of the following is a MAC address used to identify the access point in a wireless network? A. SSID B. BSSID C. ESSID D. PSK
B. BSSID
125
Which wireless mode enables peer-to-peer communication without a central access point? A. Mesh B. Infrastructure C. Ad Hoc D. Point-to-Point
C. Ad Hoc
126
Which wireless encryption standard uses AES and is widely supported across modern devices? A. WEP B. WPA C. WPA2 D. TKIP
C. WPA2
127
What is a key benefit of using Enterprise mode over PSK in a wireless network? A. Faster speeds B. Dynamic IP addressing C. Centralized authentication and auditing D. Simpler setup
C. Centralized authentication and auditing
128
Which antenna type would be best for covering a large open floor with multiple users? A. Directional B. Yagi C. Sector D. Omnidirectional
D. Omnidirectional
129
Which type of access point offloads management to a centralized controller? A. Autonomous B. Standalone C. Lightweight D. Hybrid
C. Lightweight
130
This telecommunications room connects end devices to the rest of the network, typically located on each floor.
Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)
131
This central location houses core networking equipment, often linking multiple IDFs.
Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
132
Standard rack height measured in units (U), with 42U being the common full-size for enterprise deployments.
Rack Size
133
This refers to the direction of airflow through equipment and must align with rack cooling strategies.
Port-Side Exhaust/Intake
134
This panel organizes and manages copper cabling connections between switches and endpoints.
Patch Panel
135
This is the optical equivalent of a patch panel, used to manage and organize fiber connections.
Fiber Distribution Panel
136
This feature protects physical networking hardware from unauthorized access.
Lockable Equipment
137
This backup device provides temporary power during electrical outages to prevent data loss or downtime.
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
138
This distributes power to multiple devices within a server rack, often with surge protection and monitoring.
Power Distribution Unit (PDU)
139
This refers to the total electrical demand of equipment in a rack or facility.
Power Load
140
This electrical measurement must match equipment specifications to avoid underpowering or damaging hardware.
Voltage
141
Too much of this can cause corrosion or electrical shorts; too little can cause static discharge.
Humidity
142
This system must be safe for use around electronic equipment and capable of extinguishing electrical fires.
Fire Suppression
143
Excess of this can damage components; deficiency can lead to condensation or system instability.
Temperature
144
Located on each floor or zone, this room reduces cable length and improves troubleshooting by segmenting distribution.
Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF)
145
This centralized location often includes routers, core switches, and incoming service provider connections.
Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
146
A 42U rack allows standard 1U/2U equipment to be neatly installed and stacked in data centers.
Rack Size
147
Improper planning of this airflow element can result in equipment overheating or short lifespan.
Port-Side Exhaust/Intake
148
This cabling panel reduces wear on switch ports, simplifies moves/adds/changes, and improves cable management.
Patch Panel
149
This fiber panel allows for clean, organized termination of fiber optic cables, often using LC or SC connectors.
Fiber Distribution Panel
150
Cabinets and racks should feature this security measure to prevent unauthorized device access or tampering.
Lockable Equipment
151
Often battery-powered, this provides immediate power during outages until generators or shutdowns occur.
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
152
These rack-mountable strips distribute electricity and often include circuit breakers, surge protection, and remote monitoring.
Power Distribution Unit (PDU)
153
This must be calculated to ensure that circuits and PDUs aren’t overloaded, preventing shutdown or fire risk.
Power Load
154
Devices may require 120V (typical) or 208V (for enterprise gear), and mismatching this can result in failure or damage.
Voltage
155
Should be maintained around 40-60% to prevent both static discharge (too low) and corrosion (too high).
Humidity
156
Data centers often use non-liquid systems like FM-200 or inert gas to protect electronics during fire events.
Fire Suppression
157
This should be actively monitored to keep systems within safe operating ranges, often 18–27°C (64–81°F).
Temperature
158
Which location is typically found on each floor to connect devices to the main network? A. MDF B. IDF C. Rack D. PDU
B. IDF
159
Where is core networking equipment like routers and incoming ISP connections typically located? A. IDF B. Server Room C. Main Distribution Frame (MDF) D. Patch Panel
C. Main Distribution Frame (MDF)
160
What does “U” represent in a rack specification like “42U”? A. Voltage usage B. Number of cable channels C. Number of rack units for mounting equipment D. Heat output
C. Number of rack units for mounting equipment
161
Which factor must align between switch design and rack airflow to prevent overheating? A. Voltage B. Fire suppression C. Port-side exhaust/intake D. Lockable doors
C. Port-side exhaust/intake
162
What is the purpose of a patch panel in a network rack? A. To provide power B. To mount access points C. To organize and manage copper cable connections D. To monitor temperature
C. To organize and manage copper cable connections
163
What device provides temporary backup power during an outage? A. PDU B. UPS C. Voltage regulator D. Generator
B. UPS
164
Which of the following distributes power to multiple devices in a rack and may include surge protection? A. Patch panel B. PDU C. UPS D. IDF
B. PDU
165
Which environmental factor can lead to static discharge if too low or corrosion if too high? A. Temperature B. Fire suppression C. Voltage D. Humidity
D. Humidity
166
Which type of fire suppression is most appropriate for protecting electronic equipment? A. Water-based sprinklers B. Halon C. Inert gas or chemical suppression (e.g., FM-200) D. Fire blankets
C. Inert gas or chemical suppression (e.g., FM-200)
167
Why is lockable rack or cabinet equipment important? A. To reduce power consumption B. To isolate exhaust air C. To prevent unauthorized access D. To increase bandwidth
C. To prevent unauthorized access