2 Plasmids Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What are the features of plasmids

What size ar ether

A

They are extrachromsomal circular dsDNA (so there’s the plasmids and then also the chromsmal dna in the cell)

Range from 1kb to 200 kb

Most have at least one origin of replication that lets them replicate independent of the main chromsomal dna

They are supercoiled and circular

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2
Q

What are natural plasmids

A

Plasmids that come from yeast and viruses and bacteria

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3
Q

What is special about the genes of plasmids

A

They don’t encode essential genes so they can be lost/tranferred easily

Plasmids usually have virulence or antibiotic resistance genes

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4
Q

What are the uses of plasmids in the lab

A

Cloning vectors :
- to store and replicate a desired DNA sequence

Expression vectors:
- to make RNA for RNA isolation and transgenics
- to make protien (overexpression)

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5
Q

What are the key features of plasmids

A

Origin of replication: allows plasmid to replicate

Selectable marker:
- an antibiotics resistance gene the positively selects for the bacteria with the plasmid

MCS:
- has many unique RE sites for DNA insertion

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6
Q

What are other useful features of plasmids

A

LacZalpha gene: for blue white screening

Phage M13 origin of replication : to make ssDNA

Promoters: to make RNA

tags: they can fuse protien tags to the protien being expressed

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7
Q

What is the origin of replication

How is it regulated and what does it control

What happens if plasmids have similar ori

A

Highly variable

Can be regulated by the host cells initiation protiens (stringent) or not (relaxed)

Ori controls the plasmids copy number, either low or high copy number plasmids exist

Plasmid with similar ori are incompatible because they compete for the same replication machinery
- so plasmids from the same incompatibility group will not grow well together

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8
Q

Slode 10

A

Idk

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9
Q

What are Postive selection and Negative selection in selectable markers

A

Postive selection:

  • a selectable marker that selects for wanted cells. So the presence of the plasmids allows the cell to live
  • In bactreria this is antibiotic resistance - in yeast this is a gene need for synthesis of an essential nuterient (so the plasmid is added to yeast strains that are autotrophic for the essential nuterient , can’t make it themselves)

Negative selection removes unwanted cells:
- presence of the plasmid kills the cell
- ex. The ccdB gene kills the bacteria with the plasmid

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10
Q

Whag is the MCS

A

Multiple cloning site

Allows for cutting of the plasmid to insert new DNA at specific positions and in desired orientations
- used for cloning and when making transgenic protiens

The unique sequences in the MCS means the RE only cuts the plasmid once

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11
Q

What is lacZalpha

What is lacZdeltaM15

What is alpha complementation

A

lacZalpha: The n terminal fragment (1-41) of LacZ beta gal , it’s the alpha fragment/peptide

lacZdeltaM15: is missing amino acids 11-41 of lacZ

Alpha complimentation: So the two fragments compliment each other to form a functional beta gal protien

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12
Q

Explain how the lac operon functions

Slide14

A

No lactose:
The lacI repressor bind to the operator and stops pol binding to promote and transcribing lacZ Y and A

Lactose:
- bind to lacI to displace it from operator, pol can bind, lacZ Y and A made

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13
Q

What is beta gal

A

Hydrolyzes lactose to galactose and glucose

Is a homo tetramer:
- the w (omega)-peptide (lacZdeltaM15) cant tetramerize
- the w (omega)-peptide + alpha peptide can

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14
Q

What is X-gal

A

An analog of lactose the turns blue when hydrolyzed by beta gal

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15
Q

Explain blue white colony screening

How does it work

A

Use the bacterial strain lacZdeltaM15

The transformed plasmid in the cells has the lac promoter/operator > MCS > lacZalpha

The media has:IPTG (induced the lac operon) to make lacZalpha in the plasmid, also has x-gal

How it works:

  • Insertion of DNA in the MCS of the plasmid disrupts expression of lacZalpha
  • so then cells won’t have functional beta gal
  • the. X-gel in the media is t hydrolyzed by beta gal
  • white colonies
  • plasmids without inserts have functional lacZalpha
  • cells have functional beta gal
  • x gal hydrolyzed
  • blue colony
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16
Q

Slide 18

A

Okay

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17
Q

What is the phage M13 origin of replication (f1 ori)

A

M13 is a ssDNA phage in the plasmid

The orientation (+/-) determines which strand (+/-) is replicated

The phage f1 ori can be used to make ssDNA from the plasmids for:
- in situ hybridization
- can encapsulate the ssDNA into a phage
- ssDNA can be used for sequencing

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18
Q

What are promoters

A

These are RNA polymerase promoters Present in expression plasmids

The promoter in these plasmids flank the MCS (and so the inserted DNA)

Either constitutive (viral promoters) or inducible (ex. Lac operon)

The promoter allows RNA transcripts to be made in vivo or in vitro, but are usually used to make proteins

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19
Q

What are tags and some examples

A

Plasmids have Epitope tags that encode a peptide that helps with protien purification and antibody recognition

Expression vectors for PROTIEN expression have epitope tags that are either n or c terminal . But have to be in frame with the protien and before the stop codon

Tags:
6x his: binds nickle column
GST: binds glutathione
MBP: binds amylose and eluted by maltose
FLAG tag or myc tag: short peptides with commercially available antibodies

20
Q

Cloning vector pbs Slode 22

21
Q

What the first example of an expression vector

A

pQE (6xhis)

It’s designed for indicible expression in bacteria by IPTG which induces Lac O

It also add the 6xhis tag to the c terminal of the protein (can also buy n term versions)

Stop codons in all three frames are included

22
Q

What the second example of an expression vector

A

pcDNA3.1

has constitutive expression in mammalian cell lines, has the Pcmv promoter (from a mammalian virus)

Is you want expresse a eukaryotic gene in the BGH pA MCS, the gene needs poly adenylation for efficient expression

SV40 and neomycin are used for selection

23
Q

What are the steps of plasmid extraction

A

Sample collection and growth:
- grow bacteria (e.coli) with the plasmid in liquid (LB) media
- centrifuge to pellet the cells

Alkaline Lysis:
- chemical
- so treat cells with alkali and SDS

Purification:
- neutralizing with postassium acetate, precipitation of protiens and chromosomal DNA by centrifuging (plasmid in supernatant)

  • bind plasmid to silica column with salt (dna binds silica), wash column to remove RNA/protien
  • elute the DNA with TE buffer or water
24
Q

Explain alkaline lysis to extract plasmids

A

Use high pH and SDS

This opens the cell wall, denatured the protiens and chromosomal DNA
- but need to be careful to not shear the chromosomal DNA (so don’t mix by vortexing or pipetting)

The denatured protiens/DNA/cell debris form large complexes coated with SDS

But the plasmids are unaffected because they’re topologically intertwined

25
After alkaline lysis what is done
Neutralize the previously high pH with potassium acetate Potassium dodecyl sulphate is not soluble The large complexes of denatured protiens DNA cell debris that are coated with SDS are precipitated The supernatant now has plasmids, soluble protiens, ribosomes, some RNA
26
Whag is included in the buffers for plasmid purification to remove RNA
RNase A RNA also get removed by being hydrolyzed in the basic conditions (high pH) And RNA doesn’t bind to the silica columns
27
Explain how plasmids are extracted by the silica columns
Plasmids bind the silica membrane in HIGH SALT RNA , cellular protiens, and metabolites don’t bind Low salt or water elutes the plasmids ETHANOL DOES NOT ELUTE
28
What are the ways to check plasmid quality and quantitation
gel electrophoresis: - can find size and quantity of DNA - can observe DNA/RNA contamination Spectrophotometry: - can show quantity of DNA or RNA - can measure salt/buffer/protien contamination Fluromotery: - can find quantity of ssDNA, dsDNA, or RNA bioanalyzer: - can find size and quantity of DNA or RNA
29
Explain generally gel electrophoresis
Can find size and quantity of dna from 50 bp to 10kb Quantitation is possible but not as accurate as other methods Can find DNA/RNA contaminations and plasmid DNA superstructure (like relaxed or supercoil)
30
Explain how electrophoresis is done
Agarose in buffer is melted DNA bind dye added (used to be ethidium bromide but now SYBR safe less mutagenic) - gel can be stained after running too Gel is poured and dna loaded into wells Electricity applied, dna move toward + electrode (run to red) because backbone - charged DNA binding dye is visualized: - ethidium bromide reacts to UV light (but it causes DNA damage) - sybr safe reacts to blue light
31
How are quality , size , and Quantitation found in gel electrophoresis
Quality: - can show the number and relative size of dna fragments. - many bands could be expected or not (which indicates DNA/RNA contaminations) Size: - Using MW ladder to estimate DNA size - if the size is unexpected might be an unwanted DNA/RNA fragment - smaller bands could be degradation products Quantification: - compare the pixel intensity of your band to the intensity of a band of known quantity (in amount of DNA in the ladder is known - can do this using computer program or eyeball it - give an estimation
32
What factors effect migration of DNA through gels
1. DNA size 2. Agarose concentration 3. Voltage applied 4. Buffer used 5. Presence of dna binding dye in the gel 6. Conformation of DNA
33
How does the DNA size and Agarose concentration affect migration
Size: - small faster - large slower Agarose concentration: - 0.5-2% good - high concentration let’s smaller molecules to separate better
34
How does the. Voltage applied and Buffer used affect the migration
Voltage applied: - dna rate of migration is proportional to the voltage applied - high voltage, lower range of separation - low voltage higher separation, but it takes longer - 3-5 V/cm of need good separation, if not use 5-8v/cm Buffer used: - buffer composition and ionic strength affects DNA mobility - TBE and TAE are the standard buffers - make sure gel and running buffer use the same buffer
35
How does the presence of DNA binding dye in the gel affect migration
Ethidium bromide is an intercalating agent and sybr binds to dna as well - so both slow the DNA Both dyes are also + charged, which changes CHARGE, WEIGHT, CONFROMATION, and FLEXIBILITY, of the DNA These effects also apply to the DNA ladder staining the gel after running it removes these effects BUT it takes longer
36
How does the conformation of dna affect migration
Order of migration slower to faster: Relaxed circular (nicked) Linear Supercoiled (intact circular) So for accurate comparison, all DNA must be linear so that shape is not a factor
37
Pros and cons of using gel electrophoresis
Pros: - determines size and quantity of DNA - and quality (contaminating DNA/RNA is visible) Cons: - need high dna amount (>25ng) - Quantitation is not as accurate - no indication of any other contaminants - dsDNA only - ssDNA and RNA gels are possible but more difficult
38
How does spectrophotometry give quality /quantiation
Normally use nano drop Nucleic acids absorbs light at 260nm, based on this absorabnce you can find concentration using c= A/eL, contraption is in ng/microL This calculation is automated in instruments and can be modified for dsDNA, ssDNA, or RNA This method doesn’t distinguish between RNA and DNA
39
What are the nanodrop ratios and what they mean
Since salts and solvent absorb at 230nm and proteins absorbs light at 280, can use ratios to find quality A260/230: - 2.0-2.2 - low ratio means contaminating reagents A260/280 - >1.8 - low ratio means contaminating protiens (or phenol)
40
Pro and cons of spectrophotometry
Pros: - highly accurate Quantitation of DNA or RNA (>10 ng/microL) - very fast - require little sample (0.3-1microL) - a quantitative measure of quality (show salt/biffer/protien contamination) Cons: - determines presence of ALL nucleic acids (ssDNA, dsDNA, and RNA)
41
How can fluorimeter be used to find quality/wuantitation
The pure sample is mixed with a fluorophore , the fluroecnsse is relative to concentration of DNA Only find quantity of DNA, not contamination (quality) Can buy fluorophore specific for ssDNA,dsDNA, and RNA , and protien The fluorophore are ORDERS OF MAGNITUDE more sensitive than absorabnce at 260 nm, which is why it can distinguish between dna rna protien
42
What machine can detect fluorimeter
Thermofisher qubit machines Can tell diff between ss ds DNA , rna and protien where spectrophotometry can’t
43
Pros and cons of fluorimetery
Pros: - extremely sensitive (as low as 10pg/microL) - can distinguish ssDNA, dsDNA AND RNA cons: - Expensive - no measure of contamination of any kind - only finds concentration of dna not quality
44
How can bioanalyzer be used to find quality/wuantitation
The sample is analyzed using micro fluidic electrophoresis (Agilent) Can find quantity and quality at same time Specific to either DNA only or RNA only So can’t tell and RNA contamination if looking at DNA
45
Pros and cons of bioanalyzer
Pros: - determines size and quantity of DNA or RNA or protien - 50bp to 12kb - can visualize DNA or RNA (not both) contamination - finds wuantity and quality at the same time Cons : - Very expensive