20) Medically Important Gram-Negative Bacilli Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
Medically important gram negative bacilli is a large diverse group of…?
A
Non spore forming bacteria
2
Q
Medically important gram negative bacilli have a wide range of habitats such as…?
A
large intestine( enteric), zoonotic, respiratory, soil, water
3
Q
Most in gram negative bacilli are not medically important, but some are true pathogens and…?
A
opportunistic
4
Q
All medically important gram negative bacilli have outer membrane lipopolysaccharide of the cell wall known as…?
A
endotoxin
5
Q
Enodotoxin or lipid A of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) is the primary initiator of
A
septic shock
6
Q
Pseudomonas and Burkholderia are what type of pathogens?
A
opportunistic pathogens
7
Q
Brucella and Francisella are what type of pathogens?
A
zoonotic pathogens
8
Q
Bordetella and Legionella are mainly what type of pathogens?
A
mainly human pathogens
9
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an aerobic, gram negative, nonenteric bacilli with a single polar…?
A
flagellum
10
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is free living in…?
A
Soil, seawater, and freshwater. Also colonize plants and animals.
11
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa are important decomposers and bioremediators used for…?
A
oil spills and pesticide clean up
12
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa use aerobic respiration and do not ferment…?
A
carbohydrates
13
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce…?
A
pseudomycins
14
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to…?
A
Soaps, dyes, quaternary ammonium disinfectants, drugs, drying
15
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces water soluble pigments that are what color?
A
blue- green (pyocyanin)
16
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a frequent contaminant of…?
A
Ventilators, IV solutions, anesthesia equipment
17
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa are what type of pathogen?
A
Opportunistic
18
Q
How is Pseudomonas aeruginosa acquired?
A
Nosocomial, soil, water, stain
19
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa nosocomial infections are common to?
A
Burn patients, pneumonia, cystic fibrosis, UTI’s
20
Q
Pseudomonas aeruginosa effect healthy individuals in the form of?
A
Rash, UTI’s, external ear infections from hot tubs/ swimming pools/ sponges/ wash cloths
21
Q
The odor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa smells…?
A
grapelike
22
Q
Is Pseudomonas aeruginosa drug resistant?
A
Yes multidrug resistant
23
Q
Treatment for Pseudomonas aeruginosa uses…?
A
3rd to 5th generation cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones
24
Q
Burkholderia, Acinetobacter, and Stenotrophomonas are also aerobic gram negative bacilli that have wide variety of habitats in…?
A
Soil, water, and related environments
25
Burkholderia, Acinetobacter, and Stenotrophomonas are what type of pathogen?
Opportunistic
26
Gram negative aerobic brucella has two species which are?
Brucella abortus (cattle), Brucella suis (pigs)
27
What does brucella and it's two species cause?
Brucelliosis, Malta fever, undulant fever, and Big Bang disease(zoonosis)
28
Brucella can be found in...?
Unpasteurized milk or cheese
29
Brucella can cause wound, digestive tract, respiratory tract or...?
Conjunctiva disease
30
Symptoms of brucella are...?
flu like symptoms(headache, muscle pain, weakness)
fluctuating pattern of fever- weeks to a year
arthritis, inflammation of liver, spleen, heart, testicles
31
Brucella has a low mortality rate at what percent?
2%
32
The treatment for brucella is a combination of doxycycline and rifampin or...?
Streptomycin
33
Does Brucella have a animal vaccine or human vaccine?
Animal
34
Burkholderia cepacia is active in biodegradation of a variety of substances and an opportunistic agent in the...?
respiratory tract, urinary tract, and occasionally skin infections drug resistant
35
Is Burkholderia cepacia drug resistant?
Yes
36
B. pseudomallei it's generally acquired from a penetrating injury, wound infections, inhalation from environmental reservoir, bronchitis and pneumonia and septicemia
septicemia
37
How is Acinetobacter baumanii acquired?
nosocomial and community
38
Acinetobacter baumanii infects?
wounds, lungs, urinary tract, burns, blood
39
Is Acinetobacter baumanii drug resistant?
Yes
40
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia forms...?
biofilms
41
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is a contaminant of?
disinfectants dialysis equipment, respiratory equipment, water dispensers, and catheters
42
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia is a clinical isolate in...?
respiratory soft tissue, blood, and CSF
43
high resistance to multidrugs
44
Is Stenotrophomonas maltophilia drug resistant?
yes
45
Franciscella tularensis causes tularemia which is a zoonotic disease of mammals endemic to the northern hemisphere such as...?
rabbits = rabbit fever
46
Francisella tularensis is transmitted by contact with infected animals, water and dust, or bites by vectors such as...?
ticks (flies, mosquitoes)
47
Most common portal of Francisella tularensis is?
skin or eye
48
Symptoms of Francisella tularensis are...?
ulcerative skin lesions, conjunctival inflammation, sore throat, intestinal disruption, and pulmonary involvement
49
Francisella tularensis has a 10% death rate in systemic and _______ forms?
pulmonic
50
Treatment for Francisella tularensis is?
Doxycycline
51
Does Francisella tularensis have a vaccine?
No
52
Francisella tularensis has coccobacilli cells that are what color?
blue
53
Bordatella pertussis causes ________ in babies?
Whooping cough
54
Bordatella pertussis is acquired by droplets from what kind of individual?
Healthy or infected
55
Bordatella pertussis has two stages which are?
catarrhal stage and paroxysmal stage
56
Bordatella pertussis catarrhal stage includes symptoms such as...?
Nasal drainage, congestion, sneezing, and occasional cough
57
Bordatella pertussis paroxysmal stage includes symptoms such as...?
Recurrent coughing of 10 - 20 coughs that produce a "whoop"
58
Bordatella pertussis virulence factors include receptors that recognize and bind to ciliated respiratory epithelial cells and toxins that destroy and dislodge what cells?
ciliated cells
59
With Bordatella pertussis loss of ciliary mechanism leads to...?
buildup of mucus and blockage of the airways
60
What drug is used to treat Bordatella pertussis?
Erythromycin
61
Old vaccination for Bordatella pertussis (DPT) contained attenuated pertussis (whole cell) which caused...?
Side effects
62
New vaccination for Bordatella pertussis (DTaP) contains...?
toxoid (acellular)
63
Boostrixis a vaccine for Bordatella pertussis for children ages...?
10-18 years
64
```
Tetanus vaccine (Td) is given to adolescents/ adults
every ___ years?
```
10
65
Vaccine for Bordatella pertussis (Tdap) is given to adolescents/ adults before contact with babies, and ______ women.
Pregnant
66
DTaP vaccine is given to children in _____ doses to prevent prevent diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
5
67
Diphtheria and tetanus (DT) vaccine is ONLY given to children that cannot tolerate _______ vaccine
pertussis
68
Alcaligenes live primarily in soil and water and may become...?
Normal flora
69
A. faecalis most common alcaligene that is isolated from feces, urine and?
sputum
70
A. faecalis is occasionally associated with opportunistic infections such as...?
pneumonia, septicemia, and meningitis
71
Legionella pneumophilia causes Legionnaire's disease and ______ fever?
Pontiac
72
Legionella pneumophilia is prevalent in males over the age of?
50
73
Legionella pneumophilia is widely found in?
aquatic environments
74
Legionella pneumophilia needs to live
| inside amebas in ________ to survive
natural waters
75
Legionella pneumophilia is acquired by...?
Inhaling moist contaminated air
76
Is Legionella pneumophilia communicable?
No
77
There are 2 forms of Legionella pneumophilia that can occur...?
Pontiac fever and Legionnaires disease
78
Pontiac fever symptoms are...?
rising fever, cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain
79
What is the treatment for Pontiac fever?
Self limiting
80
Can Pontiac fever lead to death?
no
81
Legionnaires disease symptoms are rising fever, cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain, but leads to...?
Pneumonia
82
Legionnaires disease has a fatality rate of what percent?
3-30%
83
What is the treatment for Legionnaires disease?
erythromycin alone or with rifampin (azithromycin)
84
Enteric bacteria are gram negative and ____ anaerobes
Facultative
85
Enterobacteriaceae are gram-negative ________ anaerobes?
Facultative
86
Enterobacteriaceae is a large family of small, non-spore-forming gram-negative......?
rods
87
Many members of the Enterobacteriaceae inhabit soil, water, decaying matter, and are common occupants of... ?`
large bowel of animals including humans
88
Enterobacteriaceae cause diarrhea through what type of toxins?
enterotoxins
89
Enterobacteriaceae account for almost 50% of what kind of infections?
nosocomial infections
90
Facultative anaerobes, grow best in air or no air?
air
91
All facultative anaerobes ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, oxidase negative and catalase positive or negative?
positive
92
Enterobacteriaceae divided into.....
coliforms and non-coliforms
93
Coliforms are __________ fermenters?
lactose
94
Non-coliforms are ___________fermenters?
non-lactose
95
Enterobacteriaceae need what type of media?
selective and differential
96
Toxigenic disease caused by enterotoxin = _______?
watery diarrhea
97
Invasive disease caused by exoenzymes degrade intestinal lining = _________
bloody diarrhea
98
Is E. coli a coliform or a non-coliform?
Coliform(ferments lactose)
99
E. coli causes what 4 things?
infantile diarrhea
travelers diarrhea
UTI's
hemolytic uremic syndrome(bloody diarrheal illness)
100
E. coli is a ________ anaerobe?
Facultative
101
Coliform count is an indicator of fecal contamination in...?
water
102
Some coliforms Some have developed virulence through _____ transfer, others are opportunists.
Plasmid
103
Infantile diarrhea is caused by what bacteria?
Enteropathogenic E. coli
104
Infantile diarrhea is caused from malnourished child that loses fluid and ?
electrolytes
105
Infantile diarrhea is acquired by contaminated?`
water
106
What can help prevent infantile diarrhea?
nursing/ breast milk
107
Symptoms of infantile diarrhea are...?
Nausea, vomit, watery diarrhea, low grade fever
108
Travelers diarrhea is acquired by contaminated...?
food and water
109
E. coli also causes UTI's that are acquired from...?
Own Norma flora or nosocomial
110
UTI treatment drugs include...?
3rd – 5th generation cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones
111
Bloody diarrheal illness strain is O157:H7 associated with?
gastroenteritis caused from fast food hamburgers
112
E. coli that causes bloody diarrheal illness or hemorrhage colitis acquired(transduction) genes from shigella to be able to produce a ____ toxin?
shiga toxin
113
Shiga-toxin causes epithelial cell death and shedding of...?
intestinal cells
114
Bloody diarrheal illness's reservoir is what animal?
cattle
115
bloody diarrheal illness has an ID of how many cells?
100
116
Bloody diarrheal illness is acquired by contaminated meat that isn't properly cooked contaminated water, vegetables, and what drinks?
fruit
117
Bloody diarrheal illness has symptoms that range from mild gastroenteritis with fever to....?
Bloody diarrhea with fever
118
E. coli can also cause hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS) which is where the toxin effects...?
Kidney damage and failure
119
Hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS) is a high risk for what type of people?
Children, elderly, immunocompromised
120
Do antibiotics for hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS) help?
No
121
What is the treatment for hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS)?
Blood transfusion, dialysis
122
What bacteria causes hemolytic uremic syndrome(HUS)?
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
123
Klebsiella pneumoniae is what type of coliform?
Opportunistic
124
Klebsiella pneumoniae has a large capsule and is a normal inhabitant of the...?
respiratory tract
125
What coliform is the cause of nosocomial pneumonia, meningitis, bacteremia, wound infections, and UTIs?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
126
Salmonella typhi is a non-coliform bacteria that causes what disease?
Typhoid fever
127
Salmonella typhi/ Typhoid disease is acquired from contaminated food or water, close personal contact and..?
carriers
128
Symptoms of Salmonella typhi/ Typhoid fever are fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and ulcerations and hemorrhage with perforation of the ...?
small intestine
129
Salmonella typhi can live in _______ carriers?
Asymptomatic
130
Some chronic carriers shed bacilli from what organ?
gallbladder
131
Typhoid Mary=
Mary Mellon
132
Typhoid Mary/ Mary Mallon was a cook in 1900-1907 that harbored what bacteria in her gallbladder?
Salmonella typhi
133
Treatment for Typhoid Mary...?
fluoroquinolones for current infection or carrier
| Sometimes gall bladder is removed
134
Other salmonella is found in what animals?
cows, poultry, lizards
135
What non-coliform bacteria causes food poisoning?
Salmonella enteritidis
136
Gastrointestinal illnesses such as Salmonella, Shigella, Vibrio, and Escherichia coli are transmitted by the Five F’s, which are? feces, food, fingers, flies, and fomites (also water)
feces, food, fingers, flies, and fomites (also water)
137
Combat the Five F’s with the Five B’s which are...?
Bread, bananas, beer, bottled water, and boiled water
138
Shigella dysenteriae causes bacterial dysentery or
shigellosis
139
Shigella dysenteriae is acquired by contaminated food or water and direct contact with
carriers
140
With Shigella dysenteriae, what intestine is invated?
Large
141
Shigella dysenteriae symptoms are BAD abdominal cramps, watery stool filled with blood and....?
Heavy mucus
142
Treatment for Shigella dysenteriae is the use of...?
fluoroquinolones
143
Yersinia pestis causes the plague and is found in what animal?
rodents
144
Biological vector of Yersinia pestis is what animal?
Flea
145
Campers, backpackers, and _______ are at high risk for Yersinia pestis
veterinarians
146
Yersinia pestis has a virulence factor of an exoenzyme that clots...?
blood
147
Yersinia pestis ID is 30- ______cells
50
148
Yersinia pestis has how many stages?
several
149
Yersinia pestis has several plague such as (3)?
Bubonic plague, pneumonic plague, septicemic plague
150
The bubonic plague has bacilli that multiply at flea bite and enters...?
lymph
151
Symptoms of bubonic plague are fever, chills, headache, nausea, weakness and,,,?
bubo develops (dwelling of axilla, neck, groin)
152
The bubonic plague often progresses to _______ plague?
Septicemic
153
Pneumonic plague is highly contagious by ______ from contagious human.
Droplet
154
Symptoms of pneumonic plague are fever, chills, cough and difficulty breathing, rapid shock and _________ can occur if not treated early.
death
155
Pneumonic plague can progress to ______ plague.
Septicemic
156
Septicemic plague occurs due to the release of...?
Toxins
157
Symptoms of septicemic plague are fever, chills, abdominal pain, shock and bleeding into....?
Skin and other organs
158
Septicemic plague causes intravascular coagulation, subcutaneous hemorrhage that is caused by...?
Necrosis, gangrene, darkens skin= black death
159
Septicemic plague treatment consists of using what antibiotic?
Streptomycin
160
Haemophilus influenzae is an oxidase-Positive ______ Pathogens
Non-enteric
161
Haemophilus = blood loving, require factors from lysed _____?
RBC's
162
Haemophilus influenzae is found in some normal flora of upper respiratory and...?
Vagina
163
Haemophilus influenzae causes acute bacterial meningitis, epiglottitis, otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, and?
bronchitis
164
Haemophilus influenzae causes what disease?
acute bacterial meningitis
165
Who is at risk for Haemophilus influenzae?
3-5 years old
166
Haemophilus influenzae is acquired from close contact and droplets from...?
carrier or infected
167
Haemophilus influenzae symptoms are fever, vomiting, stiff neck, neurological impairment coma and...?
death
168
Haemophilus influenzae has what percent chance of fatality?
90%
169
Children who acquire Haemophilus influenzae sustain a disability be what percent?
20%
170
Antibiotic treatment for haemophilus influenzae is...
3rd - 4th generation Cephalosporin
171
Vaccine treatment for haemophilus influenzae is..
Hib, given with DTaP
172
Heamophilus influenzae and Haemophilus aegyptius both cause acute...?
conjunctivitis or pinkeye
173
Treatment for conjunctivitis or pinkeye is tobramycin ____?
eye drops
174
H. ducreyi causes the STD known as a.....?
chancroid
