2016

Question 1

What are clinical and imaging characteristics typical of intervertebral disc PROTRUSION?

Answer 1

• longer duration of clinical signs
• midline instead of lateralized disk herniation
• partial instead of complete disk degeneration
• presence of multiple intervertebral disc herniations

Question 2

What are imaging characteristics typical of intervertebral disc EXTRUSION?

Answer 2

• The presence of a single intervertebral herniation
• dispersed intervertebral disk material not confined to the disk space
• complete disc degeneration

Question 3

What were common CT findings of the TMJ in non-symptomatic, <1yo horses?

Answer 3

alterations in the shape and density of the mandibular condyle

Question 4

What are common CT findings of the TMJ in older horses?

Answer 4

• spherical hypodensities consistent with bone cysts

- dystrophic mineralization of the intra-articular disc

Question 5

What percentage of asymptomatic horses had TMJ abnormalities on CT in one study?

Answer 5

40% (29% of joints) - COMMON!

Question 6

Bronchial collapsibility over ___ can be seen in healthy dogs on CT

Answer 6

50%

Question 7

What was the mean MPA:Ao ratio on CT in one study of healthy dogs without pulmonary hypertension?

Answer 7

average of 1.1 +/- 0.152

Question 8

Did the CT scan protocol change the MPA:Ao ratio on CT?

Answer 8

Yes.

expiratory scans –> reduced MPA:Ao ratio compared to inspiratory

Inspiratory scants –> ratio obtained overestimated the MPA:Ao ratio when compared to echo

Question 9

Is the MPA:Ao cutoff ratio the same on echo and CT?

Answer 9

Nope, do not suggest using the echo cutoff of 0.98 for CT (most dogs would have had MPA enlargement)

Question 10

What is best for measuring cartilage thickness in the fetlock of TB horses? computed tomographic arthrography (CTA), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and magnetic resonance arthrography (MRA)?

Answer 10

This study failed to identify one imaging test that consistently yielded measurements correlating with gross cartilage thickness

Even with the use of intra-articular contrast, cartilage surfaces were difficult to differentiate in regions where the cartilage surfaces of the proximal phalanx and third metacarpal bone were in close contact with each other

Question 11

max pharyngeal contraction occurred later with medium solid or medium liquid boluses?

UES opening occured earlier with large solid boluses or medium solid boluses?

thoracic esophageal transit time was longer with small liquid boluses or small solid boluses?

Odds of primary esophageal peristasis occuring were significantly higher with large liquid or large solid boluses?

Answer 11

medium solid

large solid

small solid

large solid

Question 12

What is more accurate for detecting gall bladder wall necrosis/rupture, CEUS or conventional ultrasound?

Answer 12

CEUS was more accurate (100% sensitive and specific) in diagnosing gallbladder wall necrosis/rupture than conventional ultrasonography (75% sensitive and 81% specific)

Question 13

What is the typical type/orientation of central tarsal bone fractures in non-racehorses?

How many central tarsal bone fractures were missed on initial radiographs?

What radiographic views can be helpul for delineating the fracture line?

Answer 13

simple, nondisplaced slab fracture in a dorsomedial to plantarolateral orientation

3/4 were initially missed

BUT, when additional plantarolateral-dorsomedial views were obtained, the fracture could be IDed in all cases

Question 14

how is interobserver agreement for diagnosing Ischemic myelopathy vs. ANNPE?

When was it strongest?

Answer 14

Interobserver agreement in diagnosing IM or ANNPE was moderate and intraobserver agreement was moderate to good

Agreement was strongest for detecting presence of lesions overlying a vertebral body (94% of lesions that were diagnosed as IM) or overlying an intervertebral disk (85% of lesions that were diagnosed as ANNPE).

Question 15

Lesions with an agreed diagnosis of ischemic myelopathy more likely to have what on MRI?

Answer 15

• overlying a vertebral body
• did not demonstrate lateralization
• extended over a longer segment
• More likely to affect L4-S3 or C6-T2 regions

Question 16

Lesions with an agreed diagnosis of ANNPE more likely to have what on MRI?

Answer 16

• more likely to be lateralized
• located over an intervertebral disc space (and shorter segment of spinal cord)
• reduced volume of the intervertebral disc
• associated with extradural material or extradural signal changes
• more likely to affect cervical spine (C1-C5)

Question 17

What were common findings in lyphoma affecting the dog spine?

Answer 17

• multifocal disease (4/6),
• vertebral involvement (5/6)
• spinal cord compression (4/6)
• involvement of more than one spinal compartment (medullary cavity, vertebral canal, paraspinal soft tissues) (6/6).

Question 18

Did lymphoma lesions affecting the vertebral body affeft the medullary cavity and exhibit osteolysis?

Answer 18

did affect the medullary cavity (confined)

but did NOT have osteolysis

Question 19

What were the most helpful sequences for identifying lymphoma on spinal MRI?

Answer 19

STIR and postcontrast T1

Question 20

What is the sequence of filling and emptying for habituated, non-sedated or restrained dogs having fluoroscopy for the assessment of meal progression through the gastrointestinal tract?

Answer 20

• Gastric emptying half-time occurred between 1 and 2 h postmeal.
• Mean fill density of the small intestine increased from 15 min postmeal and reached a peak at 3 h postmeal.
• Mean fill density of the proximal large intestine mirrored that of the small intestine
• distal large intestine remained empty for the first 2 h postmeal, then increased between hours 2 and 5 postmeal, and was subsequently at maximum fill density from hour 6 postmeal onwards.

Question 21

When using PET for the equine digit, what had the highest uptake and what had the lowest uptake?

Answer 21

highest uptake –> coronary band

lowest uptake –> tendons

Question 22

Could you discrimate anatomic structures in PET of the equine digit?

Answer 22

yes because of high contrast between soft tissue and bone

Question 23

Radiation exposure was higher in technicium scintigraohy or PET of equne digit?

Answer 23

PET

Question 24

which vertebra has a unique morphology due to a ventral extension from the transverse process - known as the ventral lamina?

Answer 24

C6

Question 25

What the the most common morphologic variations in the C6 vertebra?

in what percentage of horses had this?

Answer 25

symmetric absence of ventral lamina (less common)

asymmetric absence of ventral lamina (mmore common)

24% of horses

Question 26

what breed is more commonly affected by anomalous C6 vertebrae? was there any association with sex?

Answer 26

warmbloods

no association with sex

Question 27

was there an association between anomalous C6 and articular process OA? What about cervical pain?

Answer 27

no association with AP OA

but there was an association with cervical pain

Question 28

A greater proportion of horses with anomalous vertebrae had what?

Answer 28

intravertebral sagittal ratio of <0.5 at C6

Question 29

What percentage of dogs with central european tick bourne encephalitis had 3T MRI lesions at presentation?

Answer 29

10/12

so if normal, can’t rule out!

Question 30

What 3T MRI findings were typical in canine central european tick-bourne encephalitis?

Answer 30

• bilateral and symmetrical gray matter distributed lesions i–> thalamus, hippocampus, brain stem, basal nuclei, and ventral horn on the spinal cord.
• hyperintense in T2-w sequences compared to white matter
• iso- to hypointense in T1-w
• nonenhancing
• minimal or no mass effect or perilesional edema.

Question 31

What airway pressure should be applied during breath-hold in dogs undergoing thoracic CT?

Answer 31

A PP of 10–12 cmH 2 O during the breath-hold technique should be considered to improve lung aeration during a breath-hold technique in dogs undergoing thoracic CT.