2016 Flashcards

Question

An RMS alarm on _____(1)_____ , which monitor(s) radiation levels of the _____(2)_____ , is(are) the primary RMS indication(s) of high reactor coolant activity and possible fuel failure. A. 1. Containment High Range Area Monitors, RU-148/149 2. 100’ elevation inside Containment B. 1. Containment High Range Area Monitors, RU-148/149 2. 140’ elevation inside Containment C. 1. Reactor Coolant Letdown Line Radiation Monitor, RU-155D 2. letdown line at the inlet of the Letdown Heat Exchanger D. 1. Reactor Coolant Letdown Line Radiation Monitor, RU-155D 2. letdown line between the Letdown Heat Exchanger and the Ion Exchangers

Answer 1

D A. RU-148/149 is plausible since they are used to determine the status of the Fuel Clad Barrier, however the primary indicator for high RCS activity is RU-155D. Monitored location is plausible since RU-1, another Containment Area RM monitors levels on the 100’ elevation. B. RU-148/149 is plausible since they are used to determine the status of the Fuel Clad Barrier, however the primary indicator for high RCS activity is RU-155D. Monitored location is correct. C. RU-155D is correct. Plausible that RU-155D would detect radiation upstream of the letdown HX and downstream of the letdown containment isolation valve to provide earlier detection of high RCS activity than the actual monitoring point for RU-155D and while allowing for the isolation of letdown to determine if RU-155D was reading actual activity or the RM was providing false indications of high activity. D. Correct.

Answer 2

C A. Plausible that 30°F/hr would be the cooldown rate for the entire cooldown since a rapid cooldown could potentially uncouple the primary and secondary during natural circulation, however the 30°F/hr limit is only when one SG is isolated. B. Plausible that the cooldown rate would be limited prior to isolating the ruptured SG since we use both SGs for the initial cooldown and a 100°F/hr cooldown rate using the ruptured SG could make the tube break worsen, however the strategy is to cooldown as quick as possible to < 540°F to isolate the ruptured SG and then continue at 30°F/hr to ensure the primary and secondary do not become uncoupled with asymmetrical steaming following the SG isolation. C. Correct. D. Plausible that the cooldown rate would be unaffected following the SG isolation as this is true with forced circulation.

Answer 3

D A. Plausible since the driving force for aux spray and seal injection is the discharge of the charging pumps, and the charging pumps may be restarted when the alignment to the alternate header is complete, however when aligned to the alternate discharge header, seal injection and aux spray are not available. B. Plausible since the driving force for seal injection is the discharge of the charging pumps, and the charging pumps may be restarted when the alignment to the alternate header is complete, however when aligned to the alternate discharge header, seal injection is not available. Second part is correct. C. Plausible since the driving force for aux spray is the discharge of the charging pumps, and the charging pumps may be restarted when the alignment to the alternate header is complete, however when aligned to the alternate discharge header, aux spray is not available. First part is correct. D. Correct.

Answer 4

D A. Plausible that trip criteria of 250°F would be exceeded since HPSC inlet temp is the outlet temp from the RCP journal bearing and the loss of seal injection results in a partial loss of cooling to the seals, however with NC still in service, HPSC inlet temp will stabilize between 200 and 220°F and all other seal temps will rise but remain in their normal control bands. B. Plausible that trip criteria of 250°F would be exceeded since HPSC inlet temp is the outlet temp from the RCP journal bearing and the loss of seal injection results in a partial loss of cooling to the seals, however with NC still in service, HPSC inlet temp will stabilize between 200 and 220°F. Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Plausible that trip criteria of 200°F would be exceeded since the loss of seal injection results in a partial loss of cooling to the seals, however with NC still in service all other seal temps will rise but remain in their normal control bands. D. Correct.

Answer 5

C A. 15% is plausible since at 15% the suction of the charging pumps is automatically aligned to the VCT, however 34% is when auto makeup to the VCT begins. 44% is when makeup stops. B. 15% is plausible since at 15% the suction of the charging pumps is automatically aligned to the VCT, however 34% is when auto makeup to the VCT begins. 58% is plausible since there is an auto alignment at 58% in the VCT, however that is when letdown is aligned to the VCT. C. Correct. D. 34% is when auto makeup starts. 58% is plausible since there is an auto alignment at 58% in the VCT, however that is when letdown is aligned to the VCT.

Answer 6

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since raising the setpoint would create a delta between actual level and desired level (setpoint), however with desired level higher than actual level, the letdown flow control valve would throttle closed. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since lowering the output on LIC-110 will raise pressurizer level which would cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle open if in auto, however if in manual, lowering output will cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle closed. Second part is plausible since raising the setpoint would create a delta between actual level and desired level (setpoint), however with desired level higher than actual level, the letdown flow control valve would throttle closed. D. First part is plausible since lowering the output on LIC-110 will raise pressurizer level which would cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle open if in auto, however if in manual, lowering output will cause the letdown flow control valve to throttle closed. Second part is correct.

Answer 7

C A. First part is plausible since total flow will rise, which would normally result cooldown rate rising, however the flow being diverted around the SDC HX will result in cooldown rate lowering. Second part is correct. B. Plausible as this would be the correct answer if HV-306 was throttled closed, however when it is opened the opposite is correct. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible if thought that SDC flow is the measure of flow actually being sent through the SDC HX, however total SDC flow is the sum of flow bypassed around the HX and flow through the HX. Also, plausible if thought that this is referring to the SDCHX warm-up bypass valve, in which this would be correct.

Answer 8

B A. Plausible since transition to Train ‘B’ SDC is correct, however these conditions require entry into the LMFR. B. Correct. C. Plausible since SDC is already aligned to Train ‘A’, however CS cannot be used for SDC in MODE 4. Also plausible that 40OP-9SI01 would be used to restore SDC, however these conditions require entry into the LMFR. D. Plausible since SDC is already aligned to Train ‘A’, however CS cannot be used for SDC in MODE 4. LMFR is correct.

Answer 9

C A. First part is plausible since there are HPSI hot leg injection valves which are DC powered, however the cold leg injection valves are AC powered. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since there are HPSI hot leg injection valves which are DC powered, however the cold leg injection valves are AC powered. Second part is plausible since the HPSI ‘A’ recirc valve to the RWT is AC powered, however the combined recirc valve to the RWT is DC powered. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the HPSI ‘A’ recirc valve to the RWT is AC powered, however the combined recirc valve to the RWT is DC powered.

Answer 10

D A. First part is plausible since most tanks will be vented when pressure rises to a certain level, however the RDT vent valve is normally open and receives a close signal when pressure reaches 10 psig. Second part is plausible as 30 psig is the setpoint for the EDT relief valve, however the RDT rupture disk will blow if D/P across the disk reaches 120 psid. B. First part is plausible since most tanks will be vented when pressure rises to a certain level, however the RDT vent valve is normally open and receives a close signal when pressure reaches 10 psig. Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible as 30 psig is the setpoint for the EDT relief valve, however the RDT rupture disk will blow if D/P across the disk reaches 120 psid. D. Correct.

Answer 11

A A. Correct. B. Plausible since the LDHX is cooled by NC and portions of the letdown and NC systems are located inside containment, however the LDHX and associated NC piping are located upstream of NCBUV- 401. C. CEDM ACU air temp is correct. Plausible since the NC sample coolers are a priority load cooled by NC, and all loads inside containment are priority loads, however the sample coolers are still cooled following the closure of UV-401. D. LDHX is plausible since the LDHX is cooled by NC and portions of the letdown and NC systems are located inside containment, however the LDHX and associated NC piping are located upstream of NCB-UV-401. Plausible since the NC sample coolers are a priority load cooled by NC, and all loads inside containment are priority loads, however the sample coolers are still cooled following the closure of UV-401.

Answer 12

A A. Correct. B. Plausible since NNN-D16 powers control room indications such as multipoint recorders, and the relief valve indicating lights are powered from non-class instrument power, however the pressurizer reliefs are powered from NNN-D11. C. Plausible that the pressurizer relief valve indicating lights would be class instrument power since the pressurizer relief valve positions indicators are required by the PVNGS TRM (3.3.105), however these lights are powered from NNN-D11. D. Plausible that the pressurizer relief valve indicating lights would be class instrument power since the pressurizer relief valve positions indicators are required by the PVNGS TRM (3.3.105), however these lights are powered from NNN-D11.

Answer 13

A A. Correct. Since the ‘A’ channel has a higher priority, when it is placed in bypass, any other trip bistable already in bypass will come out of bypass. B. Plausible since A will go into bypass and B will come out of bypass, and with two failed bistables the TS action is to place one in bypass and the other in trip, however this would have to be done manually. C. Plausible since an interlock exists which prevents two bistables from simultaneously being in bypass at the same time, however since A is a higher priority, it would go into bypass and B would come out of bypass. D. Plausible since both bistables cannot be placed in bypass simultaneously. Also plausible that the interlock would cause the “one in trip, one in bypass” to take two steps (i.e. B goes from bypass to trip, which would then allow the operator to place A in bypass).

Answer 14

A A. Correct. 960 psia is the Low SG Pressure reactor trip setpoint as well as one of the setpoints for MSIS. B. Plausible since low SG pressure is correct and 38% WR level will result in a reactor trip, however the AFAS setpoint is 25.8% WR. C. Plausible since 38% WR level will result in a reactor trip, however the AFAS setpoint is 25.8% WR. Also, the reactor will trip on low DNBR at ~ 2080 psia in the pressurizer, however the RPS Low Pressurizer Pressure trip setpoint and SIAS setpoint (in MODE 1) is 1837 psia. D. Plausible since the reactor will trip on low DNBR at ~ 2080 psia in the pressurizer, however the RPS Low Pressurizer Pressure trip setpoint and SIAS setpoint (in MODE 1) is 1837 psia.

Answer 15

D A. 200 psia is plausible since the low SG pressure reset will lower the MSIS setpoint by 200 psia, however the SIAS reset lowers by 400 psia. Plausible that the SIAS setpoint pushbutton will lower the setpoint by a set amount from current setpoint, however the setpoint is lowered by a set amount from current pressurizer pressure. B. 200 psia is plausible since the low SG pressure reset will lower the MSIS setpoint by 200 psia, however the SIAS reset lowers by 400 psia. Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Plausible that the SIAS setpoint pushbutton will lower the setpoint by a set amount from current setpoint, however the setpoint is lowered by a set amount from current pressurizer pressure. D. Correct.

Answer 16

C A. 55 psig is plausible since this is the CTPC safety function limit for a LOCA, however the DBA limit, however the containment design pressure is 60 psig. Second part is correct. B. 55 psig is plausible since this is the CTPC safety function limit for a LOCA, however the DBA limit, however the containment design pressure is 60 psig. Second part is plausible if thought that the 24 hour/50% peak pressure reduction was based on two trains of CS and since we only have one train available the time would be doubled. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part plausible if thought that the 24 hour/50% peak pressure reduction was based on two trains of CS and since we only have one train available the time would be doubled.

Answer 17

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since it would be allowed to use one CS pump for injection and the other for spray, however each pump is only procedurally allowed to perform one function. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since simultaneous hot and cold leg injection is performed, however this can only be performed using HPSI pumps. Second part is plausible since it would be allowed to use one CS pump for injection and the other for spray, however each pump is only procedurally allowed to perform one function. D. First part is plausible since simultaneous hot and cold leg injection is performed, however this can only be performed using HPSI pumps. Second part is correct.

Answer 18

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since 9SG01 directs placing steam traps in a normal lineup when header temperature reaches 300°F. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since slowly opening the bypass manual isolation valves would introduce some fluid into the steam lines, however slowly opening these valves would aid in avoiding/minimizing steam/water hammer in the steam lines. Second part is plausible since 9SG01 directs placing steam traps in a normal lineup when header temperature reaches 300°F. D. First part is plausible since slowly opening the bypass manual isolation valves would introduce some fluid into the steam lines, however slowly opening these valves would aid in avoiding/minimizing steam/water hammer in the steam lines. Second part is correct.

Answer 19

A A. Correct. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since it will align to feed SG 1 and it was already aligned to feed SG 2, however on an AFAS-1, all feed will stop to SG 2 and both AFW Pumps will commence feeding SG 1. C. First part is plausible since AFA-P01 is drawing steam from both SGs on an AFAS-1 or AFAS-2, however it will only feed the SG with the active AFAS signal. Second part is correct. D. First part is plausible since AFA-P01 is drawing steam from both SGs on an AFAS-1 or AFAS-2, however it will only feed the SG with the active AFAS signal. Second part is plausible since it will align to feed SG 1 and it was already aligned to feed SG 2, however on an AFAS-1, all feed will stop to SG 2 and both AFW Pumps will commence feeding SG 1.

Answer 20

A A. Correct. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the turbine runback signal will reduce load at 130%/min to match turbine power with reactor power, however the initial drop to 60% is performed via the turbine setback signal. C. First part is plausible since its plausible that the loss of feedpump signal would be generated by low flow from the MFP, and a feed flow deviation of 8% from setpoint will cause a FWCS Trouble alarm, however the RPCB is generated from low MFP control oil pressure. Second part is correct. D. First part is plausible since its plausible that the loss of feedpump signal would be generated by low flow from the MFP, and a feed flow deviation of 8% from setpoint will cause a FWCS Trouble alarm, however the RPCB is generated from low MFP control oil pressure. Second part is plausible since the turbine runback signal will reduce load at 130%/min to match turbine power with reactor power, however the initial drop to 60% is performed via the turbine setback signal

Answer 21

C A. Plausible that AFB would be preferred since it is an essential AFW pump, however AFN is preferred since the flowpath will help in warming the MFW system piping. 3% is correct. B. Plausible that AFB would be preferred since it is an essential AFW pump, however AFN is preferred since the flowpath will help in warming the MFW system piping. 5% is plausible since the procedure in which this evolution takes place is the “Plant Startup from Mode 2 to Mode 1” procedure and 5% is where MODE 1 is declared. C. Correct. D. AFN is correct. 5% is plausible since the procedure in which this evolution takes place is the “Plant Startup from Mode 2 to Mode 1” procedure and 5% is where MODE 1 is declared.

Answer 22

B A. Plausible that the S01 bus powers the loop 1 RCPs, however S01 powers the ‘A’ RCPs. B. Correct. C. Plausible that the S01 bus powers the ‘B’ RCPs, however this is provided by NAN-S02. D. Plausible that the S01 bus powers the loop 2 RCPs, however S01 powers the ‘A’ RCPs.

Answer 23

B A. First part is Correct. Second part is plausible since condenser vacuum will initially degrade but will stabilize and recovery quickly when the ‘B’ MFP trips and the RPCB actuates(~ 10 seconds into the event) B. Correct. C. First part is plausible as the ‘A’ and ‘B’ condensate pumps trip on a loss of a non-class 4kV bus, however the bus that powers them is NBN-S01. Additionally the Heater Drain Pumps are counterintuitively power, meaning that the ‘A’ pump is from NBN-S02 and the ‘B’ pump is from NBN-S01, adding to the plausibility of which loads are powered from which bus. Second part is plausible since condenser vacuum will initially degrade but will stabilize and recovery quickly when the ‘B’ MFP trips and the RPCB actuates (~ 10 seconds into the event) D. First part is plausible as the ‘A’ and ‘B’ condensate pumps trip on a loss of a non-class 4kV bus, however the bus that powers them is NBN-S01. Additionally the Heater Drain Pumps are counterintuitively power, meaning that the ‘A’ pump is from NBN-S02 and the ‘B’ pump is from NBN-S01, adding to the plausibility of which loads are powered from which bus. Second part is correct

Answer 24

B A. Plausible if thought that the battery charger would only indicate current during a battery charge, however in a normal lineup the battery indicates zero amps and the charger shows ~ 100 amps. B. Correct. Zero amps from the charger and the battery discharging is indicative of the charger output breaker having opened. C. Plausible since the BD charger has zero volts and amps, however the BD charger input and output breakers would have already been open due to the B charger being in service (as indicated by ~130 VDC on the B charger). D. Plausible since the B charger indicates ~ 130 VDC and the battery is indicating current, however if the battery was charging the current would be indicated on the left side of the battery ammeter, not on the right side (indicative of the battery discharging)

Answer 25

B A. First part is plausible since several breakers in the electrical distribution system have electrical interlocks, however, the interlock that prevents placing the ‘EF’ on both NKN-M45 and NKN-M46 at the same time is a mechanical interlock. Second part is correct. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since several breakers in the electrical distribution system have electrical interlocks, however, the interlock that prevents placing the ‘EF’ on both NKN-M45 and NKN-M46 at the same time is a mechanical interlock. Second part is plausible since Main Turbine Generator Tripping is a load on the opposite DC bus, NKN-M45. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since Main Turbine Generator Tripping is a load on the opposite DC bus, NKN-M45.

Answer 26

A. Plausible if thought that full load consumes 25 gpm, however this is the capacity of the fuel oil transfer pump, not the consumption of the EDG at full load. B. Plausible if thought 550 gallons in the day tank could provide 1.5 hours total for both EDGs and thus could only provide 0.75 hours for each EDG. C. Correct. Approximately 6.4 gpm at full load = 86 minutes for 550 gal (~ 1.5 hours). D. Plausible if thought 550 gallons in the day tank could provide for 1.5 hours for each EDG at full load, then one EDG could run for 3.0 hours.

Answer 27

A. Correct. Starting air from each receiver will be applied to both banks of cylinders. On a CSAS, the EDGs start in the test run mode of operation. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the EDGs start in emergency mode on a LOP, SIAS, or AFAS. C. Plausible that air would only be applied to the left cylinders since the right side air start system is tagged out, however air is applied to both sides of cylinders. Second part is correct. D. Plausible that air would only be applied to the left cylinders since the right side air start system is tagged out, however air is applied to both sides of cylinders. Second part is plausible since the EDGs start in emergency mode on a LOP, SIAS, or AFAS.

Answer 28

D A. Plausible if thought that only SG #1 N-16 RM would respond to a SGTR on SG #1, however the “shine” from the SG #1 steam lines will be sensed on the SG #2 N-16 RM as well (approximately ½ the magnitude). Also plausible if thought that N-16 rad levels would rise until the MSIVs are closed (i.e. SG #1 isolated). B. Plausible if thought that only SG #1 N-16 RM would respond to a SGTR on SG #1, however the “shine” from the SG #1 steam lines will be sensed on the SG #2 N-16 RM as well (approximately ½ the magnitude). Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Plausible if thought that N-16 rad levels would rise until the MSIVs are closed (i.e. SG #1 isolated). D. Correct.

Answer 29

C A. First part is plausible since nominal system pressure of the SP system is ~ 50-55 psig compared to EW which has a nominal system pressure of ~ 95 psig, however the EW system is designed such that at the EW heat exchanger, EW pressure is lower than SP pressure to ensure that in the event of an EW HX tube leak, leakage goes from the SP system to the EW system to minimize the potential for environmental contamination. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since nominal system pressure of the SP system is ~ 50-55 psig compared to EW which has a nominal system pressure of ~ 95 psig, however the EW system is designed such that at the EW heat exchanger, EW pressure is lower than SP pressure to ensure that in the event of an EW HX tube leak, leakage goes from the SP system to the EW system to minimize the potential for environmental contamination. Second part is plausible since the Spray Pond system is the cooling medium for EW, and thus the ultimate heat sink for SDC, however the Spray Pond system cannot be directly lined up to the SDCHX. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the Spray Pond system is the cooling medium for EW, and thus the ultimate heat sink for SDC, however the Spray Pond system cannot be directly lined up to the SDCHX.

Answer 30

D A. Plausible that the MSIVs would fail closed as this is the fail safe position, and the valves are stroked open in slow speed and can be closed in slow speed, however the MSIVs remain open on a loss of instrument air. B. Plausible that the MSIVs would fail closed as this is the fail safe position, and the valves are normally closed in fast speed, however the MSIVs remain open on a loss of instrument air. C. Plausible since they will remain open, however slow close is not available on a loss of instrument air. D. Correct.

Answer 31

B A. Plausible that NC would be isolated to containment as this happens on a CSAS (Phase B containment isolation). Plausible that tripping the reactor would be the correct action as this is true if NC flow cannot be restored to containment within 10 minutes. B. Correct. UV-516 can be overridden and opened to facilitate the restoration of letdown, therefore resetting the CIAS is not necessary to restore letdown. C. Plausible since letdown will isolate on a Train ‘A’ CIAS, however the CIAS does not need to be reset prior to letdown being restored using 40AO-9ZZ05. D. Plausible that NC would be isolated to containment as this happens on a CSAS (Phase B containment isolation). If NC isolated on an inadvertent CSAS, this would be the correct action to restore flow to the RCPs.

Answer 32

A A. Correct. B. First part is correct. Second part if plausible since only the proportional heaters are normally used to maintain pressure while at power, and a larger water mass in the pressurizer could require more or larger heaters to maintain 2250 psia, however this is not the basis for 53%. C. Plausible that a minimum level of 33% will prevent reaching the SIAS setpoint on an uncomplicated trip since the Pressurizer pressure bottoms out at a lower pressure from a lower starting level at the same power level, however this is not the design basis for 33%. Second part is correct. D. Plausible that a minimum level of 33% will prevent reaching the SIAS setpoint on an uncomplicated trip since the Pressurizer pressure bottoms out at a lower pressure from a lower starting level at the same power level, however this is not the design basis for 33%. Second part if plausible since only the proportional heaters are normally used to maintain pressure while at power, and a larger water mass in the pressurizer could require more or larger heaters to maintain 2250 psia, however this is not the basis for 53%.

Answer 33

D A. Plausible that NNN-D11 would power the 2A and 2B seal injection controllers since NNN-D11 and NNN-D12 power counter-intuitive loads, however the 2A and 2B seal injection controllers are powered from NNN-D12. Plausible that selecting channel X would be the correct action since channel X controls are on the left and the left hand side seal injection controllers are energized, however channel Y is the correct channel to select for a loss of NNN-D12. B. Plausible that NNN-D11 would power the 2A and 2B seal injection controllers since NNN-D11 and NNN-D12 power counter-intuitive loads, however the 2A and 2B seal injection controllers are powered from NNN-D12. Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since it is plausible that selecting channel X would be the correct action since channel X controls are on the left and the left hand side seal injection controllers are energized, however channel Y is the correct channel to select for a loss of NNND12. D. Correct.

Answer 34

D A. First part is plausible since HEPA filters are used in several air filtration units throughout the plant and filter our micro particles from the air, however the iodine is filtered by use of charcoal filters. Second part is plausible since the water injected into the core during a LOCA is a boric acid solution, and boric acid has a pH less than 7.0, however in order to maintain iodine in solution, trisodium phosphate is added to the water to raise the pH to greater than 7.0. B. First part is plausible since HEPA filters are used in several air filtration units throughout the plant and filter our micro particles from the air, however the iodine is filtered by use of charcoal filters. Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the water injected into the core during a LOCA is a boric acid solution, and boric acid has a pH less than 7.0, however in order to maintain iodine in solution, trisodium phosphate is added to the water to raise the pH to greater than 7.0. D. Correct.

Answer 35

C A. Plausible as several ‘B’ components are powered from NBN-S02, however the ‘B’ Hydrogen Recombiner is powered from PHB-M34. B. Plausible as several ‘B’ components are powered from PBB-S04, however the ‘B’ Hydrogen Recombiner is powered from PHB-M34. C. Correct. D. Plausible as several ‘B’ components are powered from NHN-M20, however the ‘B’ Hydrogen Recombiner is powered from PHB-M34.

Answer 36

B A. Plausible since a ventilation change with the fuel transfer canal can cause fuel pool level to change, however if the fuel building supply fan tripped, level in the fuel pool would rise. B. Correct. The loss of a refueling purge supply fan will result in lower pressure in containment. This will cause water in the spent fuel pool to be “pushed” into containment due to the now higher pressure in fuel building relative to containment (manometer effect). C. Plausible that a loss of air to the cask loading pit gate would result in the gate seals losing their seal pressure and water leaving the fuel pool to the cask loading pit, however the gate seals have an automatic nitrogen backup which would prevent this from happening. D. Plausible that the loss of air to the decontamination pit gate would result in the gate seals losing their seal pressure causing water to leave the fuel pool, and this could occur if the cask loading pit gate was open during core offload, however the gate seals have automatic nitrogen backup to prevent this from happening.

Answer 37

C A. First part is plausible that 1024 is failed high since it is significantly higher than 1027, and 1024 is reading ~ 25 psia higher than normal, however 1027 is failed low. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible that 1024 is failed high since it is significantly higher than 1027, and 1024 is reading ~ 25 psia higher than normal, however 1027 is failed low. Second part is plausible since if 1024 was failed high, there would be a constant modulate signal to the SBCS valves and the examinee may believe that placing the master controller in local/auto would control the modulate signal based on the local (manual) setpoint. C. Correct. Normal main steam common header pressure at 100% power is ~ 1025 psia, therefore 1027 has failed low. With 1027 failed low, the auto permissive setpoint will not be reached on a load rejection and giving the valves manual permissives will allow the valves to auto modulate to control RCS temperature. D. First part is correct. Plausible that placing the master controller in local/auto will allow for manual control of permissive setpoints and automatic valve modulation, however the permissives will not come in and the valves will not be able to modulate.

Answer 38

C A. Plausible as changes in humidity will affect condenser vacuum, however lowering humidity will improve vacuum. B. Plausible as changes in circ water temperature will affect condenser vacuum, however lowering circulating water temperature will improve vacuum. C. Correct. D. The vacuum breaker make-up isolation valve leaking by will have no impact due to supplying more water to the vacuum breaker, however if the drain valve were leaking by, the resultant air inleakage would result in degrading vacuum.

Answer 39

A A. Correct. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since with both setpoints matched and the controller remaining in automatic control that going to manual would not be required, however since the LOCAL/REMOTE selector switch is break before make, there may be a brief period of time in which the controller output will lower resulting in reduced letdown flow. This is plant PVNGS OE from 2014 and the temporary reduction in controller output resulted in letdown flow lowering and PZR level exceeding the TS limit of 56%. C. First part is plausible since shifting to a lower setpoint would result in letdown flow rising initially and provide some margin between the normal full power PZR level setpoint of 53% and the TS limit of 56%. Second part is correct. D. First part is plausible since shifting to a lower setpoint would result in letdown flow rising initially and provide some margin between the normal full power PZR level setpoint of 53% and the TS limit of 56%. Second part is plausible since with both setpoints matched and the controller remaining in automatic control that going to manual would not be required, however since the LOCAL/REMOTE selector switch is break before make, there may be a brief period of time in which the controller output will lower resulting in reduced letdown flow. This is plant PVNGS OE from 2014 and the temporary reduction in controller output resulted in letdown flow lowering and PZR level exceeding the TS limit of 56%.

Answer 40

C A. Plausible since low canal level could cause low suction pressure and low flow, but will not prevent a pump start. Additionally, there are several administrative limits in 40OP-9CW01, Operating the CW System, related to intake canal level. Low canal level also causes the CIRC WTR SYS TRBL alarm to come in in the control room. B. Plausible since there is an interlock between the pump discharge valve and the pump, however the discharge valve must be closed to allow the pump to start. C. Correct. D. Plausible since there is an interlock on CW-HV-11 which closes the valve when there is unbalanced flow between CW loops, however this valve being closed will not prevent a pump start.

Answer 41

C A. First part is plausible since the DW system provides make-up to several systems at the plant, and each unit has a DW storage tank, however fire water makeup is from DS. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since the DW system provides make-up to several systems at the plant, and each unit has a DW storage tank. Second part is plausible since the fire water storage tanks are located near the WRF plant boundary, and the WRF reservoirs are the makeup supply to the circ water system. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the fire water storage tanks are located near the WRF plant boundary, and the WRF reservoirs are the makeup supply to the circ water system.

Answer 42

A B. Plausible as starting an EDG would normally require a plant announcement, however not during SPTAs. C. Plausible that a chemical on-load would require a plant announcement, however this is not an evolution which requires an announcement per ODP-1. D. Plausible if thought that purging air from containment would warrant a plant announcement, however an announcement is not required for this evolution.

Answer 43

A A. Correct. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since an average height adult plus the length of a survey instrument is ~ 8 feet, thus anything above that height would require a survey prior to commencing work, however the requirement is 6 feet. C. First part is plausible since 6 feet was the minimum height which required fall protection until 2015, however the current minimum height requiring fall protection is 4 feet. Second part is correct. D. First part is plausible since 6 feet was the minimum height which required fall protection until 2015, however the current minimum height requiring fall protection is 4 feet. Second part is plausible since an average height adult plus the length of a survey instrument is ~ 8 feet, thus anything above that height would require a survey prior to commencing work, however the requirement is 6 feet.

Answer 44

C A. Plausible since > 1.5 ppm sodium in the hotwell requires entry into the condenser tube rupture AOP, however a reactor trip is not required until > 35 ppm in the hotwell. B. Plausible since > 100 ppb sodium in a SG requires entry into the condenser tube rupture AOP, however a reactor trip is not required until > 1 ppm (1000 ppb) in a SG. C. Correct. D. Plausible since > 2 μmho/cm Cation Conductivity requires entry into the condenser tube rupture AOP, however a reactor trip is not required until > 15 μmho/cm Cation Conductivity.

Answer 45

A A. Correct. B. Plausible since this is the correct action to take if the reactor unexpectedly goes subcritical, however if critical below the PDIL, trip and borate is the correct action. C. Plausible since this is directed if conditions change during the startup and it is decided to terminate the startup, and going critical below the PDIL is an unexpected condition, however the trip and borate direction for being critical below the PDIL is more conservative and must be taken. D. Plausible since this is the completion time for both LCO 3.1.1 (inadequate SDM) and LCO 3.1.7 (CEA insertion limits) condition B, however trip and borate is the correct answer.

Answer 46

C A. Plausible since the valve fails open and that personnel safety could be impacted by the use of a valve which fails open, however this is permitted with additional action. B. Plausible since the contingency action to ensure the valve remains in its clearance position is taken, however this is not the approved method for using a fail-open air valve in a clearance. C. Correct. D. Plausible since the contingency action to ensure the valve remains in its clearance position is taken, however this is not the approved method for using a fail-open air valve in a clearance.

Answer 47

D A. First part is plausible since 0800 is the earliest the shiftly logs can be completed and reviewed, however the latest is 1100. Second part is plausible since some of the Mode 1 daily surveillances are done on the day shift (i.e. ISFSI daily checks), however the Daily Surveillance Logs Data Sheets are done on the night shift. B. First part is plausible since 0800 is the earliest the shiftly logs can be completed and reviewed, however the latest is 1100. Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since some of the Mode 1 daily surveillances are done on the day shift (i.e. ISFSI daily checks), however the Daily Surveillance Logs Data Sheets are done on the night shift. D. Correct.

Answer 48

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since continuous RP coverage is required in high rad areas, but only if they are locked high rad areas. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since double PCs are required in high contamination areas, however 30,000 dpm/100cm2 doesn’t meet the threshold for a high contamination area. Second part is plausible since continuous RP coverage is required in high rad areas, but only if they are locked high rad areas. D. First part is plausible since double PCs are required in high contamination areas, however 30,000 dpm/100cm2 doesn’t meet the threshold for a high contamination area. Second part is correct.

Answer 49

C A. First part is plausible since 100 cpm above background is the limit to call RP, however the maximum background radiation to use the frisker is 300 cpm. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since 100 cpm above background is the limit to call RP, however the maximum background radiation to use the frisker is 300 cpm. Second part is plausible since 300 cpm is the max background radiation level, however if personal frisker readings are 100 cpm above background, RP must be called. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since 300 cpm is the max background radiation level, however if personal frisker readings are 100 cpm above background, RP must be called.

Answer 50

D A. Plausible if thought that Containment Pressure transmitters would be post-accident instruments, and some containment pressure transmitters are PAMI, however these two are not. B. Plausible if thought that the two NR instruments shown would be post-accident since the NR are more accurate, and SGA-LI-1114A is PAMI, HCA-LI-351A is not. C. Plausible if thought that the two WR instruments shown would be post-accident since the WR indicate over a larger scale, and SGA-LI-1113Ais PAMI, HCA-PI-352A is not. D. Correct. PAMI instruments in the control room are indicated with a white stripe below the placard.

Answer 51

C A. Plausible that the action can be taken without concurrence since that is true for an exceeded PPS or ESFAS setpoint, however this is not the case in this situation. The action can be taken immediately, but only with CRS concurrence. B. Plausible that the action can be taken without concurrence since that is true for an exceeded PPS or ESFAS setpoint, however this is not the case in this situation. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the safety functions are generally performed in order, however an exception can be made if contingency actions need to be taken. C. Correct. Contingency actions may be pulled forward and performed outside of the normal safety function hierarchy, however it requires CRS concurrence. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the safety functions are generally performed in order, however an exception can be made if contingency actions need to be taken.

Answer 52

B A. Plausible since the mitigating strategy of the SGTR EOP is to lower RCS pressure in order to minimize the leakrate and backflow from the SG to the RCS in order to minimize contamination of the Main Steam Piping; however, it should not be accomplished at the expense of violating NPSH of the RCPs. B. Correct. C. Plausible since the mitigating strategy of the SGTR EOP is to lower RCS pressure in order to minimize the leakrate and establish backflow from the SG to the RCS in order to minimize contamination of the Main Steam Piping; however, it should not be accomplished at the expense of violating NPSH of the RCPs. D. Plausible since securing RCPs will prevent Main Spray since RCPs are the motive force, however this is not the basis for RCP NPSH taking precedence. Additionally, Main Spray is much better for “fine adjustments” to RCS pressure which Aux Spray is more of a “course adjust” control.

Answer 53

C A. First part is plausible since this is correct if the loss of NC is concurrent with a loss of seal injection, however seal injection is not isolated on a CSAS. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since this is correct if the loss of NC is concurrent with a loss of seal injection, however seal injection is not isolated on a CSAS. Second part is plausible as there is a 24 hour completion time in LCO 3.6.3, however this is for purge valves, not NC containment isolation valves. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible as there is a 24 hour completion time in LCO 3.6.3, however this is for purge valves, not NC containment isolation valves.

Answer 54

A A. Correct. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since 23.5% narrow range is the top of the SG utubes and below the top of the u-tubes will provide less than maximum heat transfer, however only 25% wide range is required for the RCS loop to be OPERABLE. C. First part is plausible since there were previously two trains of SDC in service and placing the RCP loop in operation would match the previous condition, however LCO 3.4.6 only required one train of SDC or RCS loop to be in operation and one train/loop to be available. Second part is correct. D. First part is plausible since there were previously two trains of SDC in service and placing the RCP loop in operation would match the previous condition, however LCO 3.4.6 only required one train of SDC or RCS loop to be in operation and one train/loop to be available. Second part is plausible since 23.5% narrow range is the top of the SG u-tubes and below the top of the u-tubes will provide less than maximum heat transfer, however only 25% wide range is required for the RCS loop to be OPERABLE.

Answer 55

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since pressurizer level is above the safety function limit for inventory control, and the charging pump is causing pressurizer level to continue to rise, however with an ESD inside containment, NC cooling to the RCPs is lost and the seal injection flow provided by the running charging pump is required. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since the ESD procedure says, “if the RCS boron concentration is sufficient to maintain the reactor 1% or more shutdown during the entire cooldown, then cooldown to SDC entry conditions” however since the cooldown is the only currently available method to lower pressurizer level, verification of SDM is not required to commence the cooldown. Additionally, the ESD tech guideline says “maintaining RCP seal integrity to prevent complicating the emergency has priority over establishing shutdown margin. Second part is plausible since pressurizer level is above the safety function limit for inventory control, and the charging pump is causing pressurizer level to continue to rise, however with an ESD inside containment, NC cooling to the RCPs is lost and the seal injection flow provided by the running charging pump is required. D. First part is plausible since the ESD procedure says, “if the RCS boron concentration is sufficient to maintain the reactor 1% or more shutdown during the entire cooldown, then cooldown to SDC entry conditions” however since the cooldown is the only currently available method to lower pressurizer level, verification of SDM is not required to commence the cooldown. Additionally, the ESD tech guideline says “maintaining RCP seal integrity to prevent complicating the emergency has priority over establishing shutdown margin. Second part is correct.

Answer 56

D A. First part is plausible since the SFSC for containment pressure is exceeded; however both pressure and temperature are above their SFSC limits for blackout. Second part is plausible since Appendix 53 would be directed, however transition to the FR is required due to not meeting the CPTC safety function. B. First part is plausible since the SFSC for containment pressure is exceeded; however both pressure and temperature are above their SFSC limits for blackout. Second part is correct. C. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since Appendix 53 would be directed, however transition to the FR is required due to not meeting the CPTC safety function. D. Correct.

Answer 57

C A. First part is plausible since this would be an acceptable method to comply with 3.8.1 G and is the preferred method per the TS bases, however since Unit 1 is the last unit online, this method is not allowed. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since this would be an acceptable method to comply with 3.8.1 G and is the preferred method per the TS bases, however since Unit 1 is the last unit online, this method is not allowed. Plausible as this raising switchyard voltage is preferred in the TSB, however since it is not allowed in this condition, it is not an available option. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible as this method is an acceptable method to comply with 3.8.1 G, and this would result in maintaining forced circulation in the event of a subsequent loss of offsite power, however since this option would result in the inoperability of offsite sources, TSB lists this option as less preferential than blocking fast bus transfer.as

Answer 58

D A. Plausible since visual and audible indications will be maintained in the control room, and there is nothing to indicate that the SRM is not functioning (i.e. only the speaker in Containment is faulted), however in order for the SRM to be operable, audible indications are required in both the control room and containment. B. Plausible that LCO 3.3.12 would not be met in this situation as inoperability of an SRM normally makes BDAS inoperable, however if SRMs are inoperable SOLELY due to the loss of audible indication, BDAS remains operable. C. Plausible since audible indications will be maintained in the control room, and maintaining constant communication with the refueling machine could be interpreted as meeting the requirement for audible indication in containment, however communication from the control room to the refueling machine is not credited for meeting the operability requirement of LCO 3.9.2.. D. Correct.

Answer 59

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible if thought that the fire in the STSC affected the operability of plant safety systems required to establish or maintain safe shutdown. Additionally, since HA2 is “to the left” of HA5, if both EALs were applicable, HA2 would be the correct EAL classification. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible as it is the second action taken at the RSP and is part of the time critical action program, however the crew has 20 minutes to close UV-515. Second part is plausible if thought that the fire in the STSC affected the operability of plant safety systems required to establish or maintain safe shutdown. Additionally, since HA2 is “to the left” of HA5, if both EALs were applicable, HA2 would be the correct EAL classification. D. First part is plausible as it is the second action taken at the RSP and is part of the time critical action program, however the crew has 20 minutes to close UV-515. Second part is correct.

Answer 60

A A. Correct. Plausible that MVAC-1 would not be selected since the ESF transformer is faulted, however MVAC-1 is still the correct choice to address this event. B. Plausible since the ‘B’ EDG is running due to the SIAS and is not loaded since PBB-S04 is still powered from off-site, however MVAC-1 is preferable to MVAC-2. C. Plausible since this would restore the IC safety function and IC-2 is not satisfied, however MVAC-1 will be addressed first and when power is restored, HPSI Pump ‘A’ will be started to recover the inventory control safety function. D. Plausible since there is no feed in this condition making HR-2 not satisfied, however when PBAS03 is reenergized, AFN-P01 will be available and is a preferred feed source compared to feeding with condensate pumps.

Answer 61

A A. Correct. B. Plausible if the 15 minute time allotment in LCO 3.4.10, Condition A, is applied in addition to the 6 hour requirement in Condition B. C. Plausible if LCO 3.0.3 was incorrectly applied due to Condition A addressing one inoperable PSSV and condition B addressing 2 inoperable PSSVs, however condition B is for 2 OR MORE inoperable PSSVs. D. Plausible if the 15 minute time allotment in condition A is applied, then LCO 3.0.3 is applied.

Answer 62

A A. Correct. Even though the actions are not taken for Train ‘B’ AFW being inoperable as a result of Train ‘B’ EW being inoperable, when Train ‘A’ AFW becomes inoperable, the required action for condition C, two AFW trains being inoperable in MODE 1, 2, or 3, still applies, therefore must be in MODE 3 within 6 hours (1400 on 4/2/16). B. Plausible if thought that since 3.0.6 was invoked, and one train is inop without needing to take required actions and one train is inop and has to have required actions taken, that this would be a condition not covered by technical specifications and entry into LCO 3.0.3 is required, which would mean MODE 3 within 7 hours (1500 on 4/2/16). C. Plausible if thought that the inoperability of Train ‘A’ AFW now requires the actions of condition B to be taken but the start time for the condition B actions was “back dated” to the actual time condition B was entered (due to the Train ‘B’ AFW inoperability on 4/1/16 at 0800). This would result in condition C being entered at 0800 on 4/4/16 and MODE 3 entry required no later than 1400 on 4/4/16. D. Plausible if thought that no actions are required for Train ‘B’ AFW due to the use of LCO 3.0.6, and therefore condition B actions are only entered for Train ‘A’ AFW being inoperable. This would result in 72 hours from the inoperability of Train ‘A’ expiring and entry into condition C for not meeting the completion time for condition B. This would mean 72 hours from 4/2/16 at 0800 plus the 6 hours in condition C for a MODE 3 entry no later than 4/5/16 at 1400.

Answer 63

A A. Correct. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the total limit for feed is 1000 gpm, and all other feed restoration procedures allow feeding both SGs simultaneously, however when feeding with condensate pumps, feed is initially only restored to one SG. C. First part is plausible since the reason for the loss of feed was a problem with the suction path to AFN-P01, and the RMWT can be used as an alternate suction to some Aux Feedwater pumps, however appendix 42 can only be used to align the suctions of AFA-P01 or AFB-P01 to the RMWT. Second part is correct. D. First part is plausible since the reason for the loss of feed was a problem with the suction path to AFN-P01, and the RMWT can be used as an alternate suction to some Aux Feedwater pumps, however appendix 42 can only be used to align the suctions of AFA-P01 or AFB-P01 to the RMWT. Second part is plausible since the total limit for feed is 1000 gpm, and all other feed restoration procedures allow feeding both SGs simultaneously, however when feeding with condensate pumps, feed is initially only restored to one SG.

Answer 64

A A. Correct. TLCO 3.3.108 only required one train of FBEVAS to be functional and Train ‘A’ is actuated by RU-31, Train ‘B’ is actuated by RU-145. B. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since an acceptable action for RU-145 being nonfunctional is to place moveable air monitors in line, and RU-146 monitors the same ventilation stream, however RU-146 cannot monitor the same range as RU-145 and is therefore not an acceptable substitute. C. Plausible that the since RU-145 and RU-146 both monitor the FB ventilation line, however RU-146 does not actuate FBEVAS. Second part is correct. D. Plausible that the since RU-145 and RU-146 both monitor the FB ventilation line, however RU-146 does not actuate FBEVAS. Second part is plausible since an acceptable action for RU-145 being non-functional is to place moveable air monitors in line, and RU-146 monitors the same ventilation stream, however RU-146 cannot monitor the same range as RU-145 and is therefore not an acceptable substitute.

Answer 65

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since this is the level in the vessel below which SI throttle is not allowed, however a potential loss of the fuel cladding barrier is below 21% in the plenum. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since 1200°F is the temperature above which the fuel cladding barrier is considered lost, and is the temperature above which the containment barrier is considered a potential loss. Second part is plausible since this is the level in the vessel below which SI throttle is not allowed, however a potential loss of the fuel cladding barrier is below 21% in the plenum. D. First part is plausible since 1200°F is the temperature above which the fuel cladding barrier is considered lost, and is the temperature above which the containment barrier is considered a potential loss. Second part is correct.

Answer 66

C A. First part is plausible since the Mast Bumper Interlock does prevent all movement of the bridge and trolley, and it is plausible that this interlock would actuate a manual brake which would prevent use of the manual handwheel, however the manual handwheel is not locked out by this interlock. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since the Mast Bumper Interlock does prevent all movement of the bridge and trolley, and it is plausible that this interlock would actuate a manual brake which would prevent use of the manual handwheel, however the manual handwheel is not locked out by this interlock. Second part is plausible since the fuel assembly did not make contact with any obstruction making the likelihood of any fuel damage extremely unlikely, however any fault of refueling equipment when a fuel assembly is grappled is considered to have placed the fuel at risk, therefore requiring the Fuel Handling Event Recovery Checklist to be completed. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the fuel assembly did not make contact with any obstruction making the likelihood of any fuel damage extremely unlikely, however any fault of refueling equipment when a fuel assembly is grappled is considered to have placed the fuel at risk, therefore requiring the Fuel Handling Event Recovery Checklist to be completed.

Answer 67

B A. First part is plausible since there is guidance in the alarm response procedure to evaluate changing the radiation postings in the event of a radiation monitor alarm, and since RU-12 has failed high, it would be reasonable to raise the postings as a conservative approach to ALARA, however this is not required in order for the release to commence. Second part is correct. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since there is guidance in the alarm response procedure to evaluate changing the radiation postings in the event of a radiation monitor alarm, and since RU-12 has failed high, it would be reasonable to raise the postings as a conservative approach to ALARA. Second part is plausible since the ARP provides contingency actions for alarming or failed RMs, however there are no requirements in the ARP related to gaseous releases. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since the ARP provides contingency actions for alarming or failed RMs, however there are no requirements in the ARP related to gaseous releases.

Answer 68

B A. First part is correct. Second part is plausible since night orders are used to convey information to operations personnel in a timely manner; however night orders are typically cancelled after 30 days, so a standing order would be the correct order for this condition. B. Correct. C. First part is plausible since Charging Pumps are required to be functional per the Technical Requirements Manual to ensure a boration flowpath is available, however Immediate Operability Determinations are only performed for degraded equipment covered by Technical Specifications. Second part is plausible since night orders are used to convey information to operations personnel in a timely manner; however night orders are typically cancelled after 30 days, so a standing order would be the correct order for this condition. D. First part is plausible since Charging Pumps are required to be functional per the Technical Requirements Manual to ensure a boration flowpath is available, however Immediate Operability Determinations are only performed for degraded equipment covered by Technical Specifications. Second part is correct.

Answer 69

A A. Correct. B. Plausible since the Unit 2 SM has ownership of the dry cask until it is delivered in the ISFSI, at which point it belongs to the Unit 1 SM. C. Plausible since Unit 1 has ownership of the dry cask, and the CRS is normally responsible for daily surveillances on the ISFSI, however conditional surveillances are specifically listed as the responsibility of the SM. D. Plausible since the Unit 2 has ownership of the dry cask until the dry cask is delivered to the ISFSI, and the CRS is normally responsible for daily surveillances on the ISFSI, however conditional surveillances are specifically listed as the responsibility of the SM.

Answer 70

B A. Plausible since AFA-P01 is operable, and its plausible since 3.0.4 addresses changing modes and when to perform a risk assessment. B. Correct Answer C. Plausible since not all surveillances on AFA-P01 have been completed. 24 hours is plausible since when a surveillance is out of periodicity, the time requirement to complete the surveillance is that surveillance’s completion time or 24 hours, whichever is longer. D. Plausible since not all surveillances on AFA-P01 have been completed. 72 hours is plausible since it is the time requirement to perform SR 3.7.5.3 once at NOT.

Answer 71

D A. Plausible if thought that the 25% extension was the allotted time to complete the SR, however it is the greater of 25% or 24 hours. 24 hours is greater than 3 hours. B. Plausible if thought that the allowable extension was the frequency of the SR, however it is 24 hours. C. Plausible if thought that the allowable extension was the frequency plus 25%, however it is 24 hours. D. Correct.

Answer 72

D A. Plausible since the EOD is responsible for overall coordination of onsite and offsite emergency functions, however the SM has the authority for plant operations. B. Plausible since the TSC Operations Manager relays technical and operational information between the TSC and the control room, however the SM retains the authority for plant operations. C. Plausible since the OSC manager dispatches emergency teams for emergent operations, however the SM has the authority for plant operations. D. Correct. The SM remains as the ultimate authority for plant operations during emergencies.

Answer 73

C A. First part is plausible since tripping RCPs is directed in the AOP prior to “GO TO” SPTAs, however when the reactor is tripped, addressing the reactivity control safety function is always performed before other actions are taken. Second part is correct. B. First part is plausible since tripping RCPs is directed in the AOP prior to “GO TO” SPTAs, however when the reactor is tripped, addressing the reactivity control safety function is always performed before other actions are taken. Second part is plausible because there are several cases in which the AOP would be performed concurrently with SPTAs, however if that was the case, the AOP would say “Perform SPTAs”, not “GO TO SPTAs”. C. Correct. D. First part is correct. Second part is plausible because there are several cases in which the AOP would be performed concurrently with SPTAs, however if that was the case, the AOP would say “Perform SPTAs”, not “GO TO SPTAs”.