2013 Flashcards

Question

Given the following conditions: • The Reactor has tripped due to a LOCA. • All RCPs are secured due to low RCS subcooling. • Initial HPSI flow to each cold leg is 300 gpm. Subsequently • SIB-P02, HPSI Pump ‘B’ trips. Which ONE of the following identifies the expected flowrates on the instruments listed below? FT-331, HPSI TO 1A FLOW (SIA-FI-331) FT-321, HPSI TO 2B FLOW (SIB-FI-311-1) FT-331 FT-321 A. Approximately 75 gpm 0 (ZERO) gpm B. Approximately 150 gpm 0 (ZERO) gpm C. Approximately 75 gpm Approximately 75 gpm D. Approximately 150 gpm Approximately 150 gpm

Answer 1

A Wrong Incorrect because FT-331 will read approximately 150 gpm, not 75, and because FT321 will read approximately 150 gpm, not ZERO. Also plausible because a novice operator may deduce that since a Train B pump tripped, the “SIB” indicator will not indicate flow. ZERO flow is also possible because the associated flow indicator would read ZERO gpm if a LPSI pump tripped. B Wrong Incorrect because FT-321 will read approximately 150 gpm, not ZERO. Plausible because the 1st part is correct. Also plausible because a novice operator may deduce that since a Train B pump tripped, the “SIB” indicator will not indicate flow. ZERO flow is also possible because the associated flow indicator would read ZERO gpm if a LPSI pump tripped. C Wrong Incorrect since FT-331 will read approximately 150 gpm, not 75. Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because a novice operator may deduce that, since 1 of 2 pumps tripped, the flowrate will be split between SIA and SIB indicators. D Correct Each Train of HPSI has redundant indicators which show injection flow to each of the 4 cold legs.

Answer 2

A Correct 225 psia is the saturation pressure for 392°F. IAW 40EO-9EP05, Excess Steam Demand, the operating crew is required to stabilize RCS temperature at the lowest Tcold. This is accomplished by controlling SG pressure. Per 40EO-9EP05, Step 14, Page 10: 14. Stabilize RCS temperature using the lowest Tc by performing the following: a. Maintain Tc within the P/T limits. REFER TO Appendix 2, Figures b. Steam the least affected Steam Generator using ANY of the following: • SBCS • ADVs from the Control Room • Appendix 18, Local ADV Operation c. Control feedwater to the least affected steam generator. d. WHEN control is regained, THEN record the following: Time: ______ RCS Tc: ______ PZR Pressure: ______ B Wrong Incorrect because the required SG pressure is 225 psia, not 465 psia. Plausible because 465 psia is the saturation pressure for the given Loop 2 Tcold. C Wrong Incorrect because the required SG pressure is 225 psia, not 565 psia. Plausible because 565 psia is the saturation pressure for the given Loop 1Thot. D Wrong Incorrect because the required SG pressure is 225 psia, not 610 psia. Plausible because 610 psia is the saturation pressure for the given Loop 2Thot.

Answer 3

A Correct SG #2 will have a lower SG level because it is generating more steam due to greater RCS flow. B Wrong Incorrect since SG#1 will have a higher level due to the lower steaming rate. C/D Wrong There will be no difference in temperature even though there is a difference in the steaming rate. These are plausible distracters because there is a difference in the steaming rate of the two loops. Also plausible because there are conditions such as ESDs where Tcold will diverge after an MSIS is actuated.

Answer 4

A Wrong Incorrect because VCT overpressure is not maintained to prevent flashing within the VCT – it helps prevent flashing in the charging pump suction. Plausible because there are components within many systems that maintain a pressure to prevent flashing. For example, in the CVCS, the two letdown backpressure control valves maintain a backpressure to prevent flashing upstream of the valves, to help prevent damage to the Letdown Heat Exchanger. (Refer to L.P. NNI02C141A04, Charging and Letdown Subsystem, Page 29). Also plausible because the 1st part is correct. B Correct Per 40AL-9RK3A, Panel BO3A Alarm Responses, Window 3A09A, Group C (Volume Control Tank Pressure Hi-Lo), if VCT pressure is low, the operators are directed to raise pressure using either the hydrogen regulator or the nitrogen regulator. Since the Unit is at power, the hydrogen regulator should be used since a hydrogen overpressure exists on the VCT. Per L.P. NNI02C141A04, Charging and Letdown Subsystem, Page 38, one function of the VCT is to maintain NPSH to the charging pumps. This is accomplished by the hydrogen overpressure in the VCT while at power, the head due to the height of water in the VCT, and VCT/charging pump suction temperature. If pressure in the VCT drops, available NPSH will be reduced. C Wrong Incorrect because VCT overpressure is not maintained to prevent flashing within the VCT – it helps prevent flashing in the charging pump suction. Plausible because there are components within many systems that maintain a pressure to prevent flashing. For example, in the CVCS, the two letdown backpressure control valves maintain a backpressure to prevent flashing upstream of the valves, to help prevent damage to the Letdown Heat Exchanger. (Refer to L.P. NNI02C141A04, Charging and Letdown Subsystem, Page 29). Also incorrect because, while at power, nitrogen would not be used to control VCT pressure. Nitrogen is plausible because it is used to maintain VCT pressure while the Unit is shutdown. D Wrong Incorrect because, while at power, nitrogen would not be used to control VCT pressure. Nitrogen is plausible because it is used to maintain VCT pressure while the Unit is shutdown. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct.

Answer 5

A Wrong 4160 kV buses but are not the power supply to LPSI pump B B Wrong C Wrong D Correct Class 4160kV PBB-S04 is the correct source

Answer 6

A Wrong Incorrect because the INITIATION PATH RESET pushbutton at the PPS cabinet must first be depressed. Plausible because it is partially correct in that either pushbutton will reset the function. B Wrong Incorrect because both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons do not have to be reset. Plausible because a novice operator may not recall that either pushbutton will accomplish the reset and conclude that, in many cases, both pushbuttons must be depressed to reset a function. C Correct IAW 40AO-9ZZ17, Appendix B, PPS-ESFAS Reset, Steps 5.2 (SIAS Initiation Relay lamps will not be illuminated), PPS Initiation Path is reset first. Then, in Appendix B, Step 6.1 (SIAS Actuation Signal lamps will not be illuminated), the PPS-ESFAS actuation is reset at the Aux Relay Panels. D Wrong Incorrect because both LOCKOUT RESET pushbuttons do not have to be reset. Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because a novice operator may not recall that either pushbutton will accomplish the reset and conclude that, in many cases, both pushbuttons must be depressed to reset a function.

Answer 7

A Wrong Incorrect because a sheared shaft would result in low amps on the pump. Plausible because low discharge pressure and low flow are also indications of a sheared shaft. Also plausible because the second part is correct. B Correct High amps, low discharge pressure and low flow are indications consistent with a discharge header pipe rupture. The FRP is structured to restore power to class buses. 40DP-9AP16, Section 7.0.1, states: The FRP might also be entered from an ORP if an ORP had been initially selected but failed the Safety Function Status Check or the ORP selected is not mitigating the event. If the Safety Function Status Check acceptance criteria are not satisfied at any time, then the operator is directed to evaluate the need to implement the FRP. 40DP-9AP16, Section 9.0, states: Each ORP has its own Safety Function Status Check (SFSC) which must be used whenever the ORP is in use. The SFSC is used to check the status of safety functions. By satisfying the SFSC acceptance criteria, the operating staff is assured that the actions being taken are maintaining the plant in a safe condition. If SFSC criteria are not satisfied, the operators will take corrective actions to satisfy the safety functions, implement another ORP, or exit to the FRP. Since the RCS Pressure Control Safety Function Acceptance Criteria are not met (HPSI flow is in the Region Not Acceptable on Appendix 2), entry into the FRP is required. NOTE – K/A MATCH: If the question was structured to ask for “predict impact of an ECCS header rupture,” the answer would have to be similar to “reduced injection flow” and this would have little discriminatory value. Therefore, to improve discriminatory value, “reverse logic” was used to require the examinee to determine the event and the mitigating action. NOTE – APPROPRIATE LICENSE LEVEL This question is at the RO level because the conditions in the stem provide the Entry Conditions to a major EOP. C Wrong Incorrect because a sheared shaft would result in low amps on the pump. Also incorrect because the EOP User’s Guide requires entry into the FRP when a Safety Function is not satisfied. Plausible because using 40AO-9ZZ12 would work. D Wrong Incorrect because the EOP User’s Guide requires entry into the FRP when a Safety Function is not satisfied. Plausible because using 40AO-9ZZ12 would work. Also plausible because the first part is correct.

Answer 8

A Wrong Incorrect because 40AL-9RK3A requires that the RDT be vented to the gas surge header. Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because venting to Containment is an option in 40AL-9RK3A. B Correct Explanation: VCT level will drop due to the loss of inventory. Pzr level will remain stable as letdown flow lowers. RDT level will increase as the RCS fluid flows past the failed seal. Containment temp and humidity are unaffected as failed RCP seal flow is collected in the RDT. The RDT rupture disc blows at 120#. If no actions are taken to relieve the increasing pressure, the rupture disc will eventually blow Per the NOTE in 40AL-9RK3A: If the reactor drain tank pressure continues to increase to 10 psig the RDT vent to gas surge header valve CHN-UV-540 and RDT outlet containment isolation valve CHA-UV-560, will close. At approximately 120 psid the RDT rupture disc, CHN-PSE-12 will rupture. Per the 40AL-9RK3A: Unit 2 Only: Vent the RDT to the gas surge header using CHN-UV-540 to maintain RDT pressure below 7 psig. Units 1 and 3 Only: Vent the RDT to the gas surge header using CHN-UV-540 to maintain RDT pressure below 10 psig C Wrong Incorrect because the makeup capabilities exceed the given leak rate. VCT level will be maintained above 34%, above the point where charging pump suction is lost. The action is plausible because, if the VCT TRBL (due to LOW level) actuates, 40AL-9RK3A, window 3A09A requires manual makeup. D Wrong Incorrect because the makeup capabilities exceed the given leak rate. VCT level will be maintained above 34%, above the point where charging pump suction is lost. The action is plausible because, if the VCT LVL LO-LO alarm actuates, 40AL-9RK3A, window 3A08B describes that the charging pump suction will auto-swap to the RWT (when CHN-UV-514 opens)..

Answer 9

A Wrong Incorrect because the CST is not the normal makeup to the NC Surge Tank. Plausible because the CST supplies makeup to many surge tanks, such as the Essential Chilled Water Surge Tank and the Essential Cooling Water Surge Tank. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. B Wrong Incorrect because the CST is not the normal makeup to the NC Surge Tank. Also incorrect because the RMWT does not supply backup makeup. Plausible because the CST supplies makeup to many surge tanks, such as the Essential Chilled Water Surge Tank and the Essential Cooling Water Surge Tank. RMWT is plausible because it is a source of pure makeup water for other tanks in the Auxiliary Building, such as the Equipment Drain Tank and the VCT. C Correct Per DWG 01-M-NCP-001 (upper left corner), the normal makeup source is automatically supplied from Demineralized Water System via LCV 75. Backup makeup is from the Cooling Water Holdup Tank via normally-closed manual valve V070. D Wrong Incorrect because the RMWT does not supply backup makeup. RMWT is plausible because it is a source of pure makeup water for other tanks in the Auxiliary Building, such as the Equipment Drain Tank and the VCT. Also plausible because the 1st part is correct.

Answer 10

A Wrong Incorrect because stroke time is until the red light goes out, not when the green light comes on. Plausible because each close stroke time test in 73ST-9XI23 contains the following step: “Verify only the green light is on at…” T.S. 3.9.3 is incorrect because it only applies during Refueling Ops. T.S. 3.9.3 is plausible because 73ST-9XI23 specifically cites entry into this T.S.’s actions when a Containment Purge Isolation Valve is declared INOPERABLE. These valves are also tested in 73ST-9XI23. Per 73ST-9XI23, Step 8.3: IF any valve fails to satisfy the Technical Specification Acceptance Criteria OR is otherwise determined to be Inoperable, THEN perform the following: 8.3.1 Declare the valve Inoperable. 8.3.1.1 IF any Containment Purge Isolation Valve is determined to be Inoperable, THEN observe the action requirements of LCO 3.9.3, Containment Penetrations. B Wrong Incorrect because stroke time is until the red light goes out, not when the green light comes on. Plausible because each close stroke time test in 73ST-9XI23 contains the following step: “Verify only the green light is on at…” Also plausible because the second part is correct. C Wrong T.S. 3.9.3 is incorrect because it only applies during Refueling Ops. Plausible because the first part is correct. T.S. 3.9.3 is plausible because 73ST-9XI23 specifically cites entry into this T.S.’s actions when a Containment Purge Isolation Valve is declared INOPERABLE. These valves are also tested in 73ST-9XI23. D Correct Per several NOTES in 73ST-9XI23: Valve close stroke time is measured from handswitch operation to when the red light goes out. Per several Steps in 73ST-9XI23: Measure stroke time from handswitch operation until red indication light goes out. Per 73ST-9XI23, Step 8.3: IF any valve fails to satisfy the Technical Specification Acceptance Criteria OR is otherwise determined to be Inoperable, THEN perform the following: 8.3.1 Declare the valve Inoperable. Once a Containment Isolation Valve is declared INOPERABLE, T.S. 3.6.3 must be applied.

Answer 11

A Wrong Incorrect because the permissive signal will be biased downward, not the modulate signal. Plausible because downward bias is correct for the permissive signal. Also incorrect because the Master Pressure Controller goes to MAX, not MIN. Plausible because it is a common misconception that the output of the Master Pressure Controller acts “in reverse” of the direction of failure (HIGH failure – LOW output; LOW failure – HIGH output). B Wrong Incorrect because the permissive signal will be biased downward, not upward. Plausible because downward bias is correct for the permissive signal. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. C Wrong Incorrect because the Master Pressure Controller goes to MAX, not MIN. Plausible because the 1st part is correct. Plausible because it is a common misconception that the output of the Master Pressure Controller acts “in reverse” of the direction of failure (HIGH failure – LOW output; LOW failure – HIGH output). D Correct Per Lesson Plan NKASYC014306, Pressurizer Pressure Control System: Selected Pressurizer pressure transmitter fails high: • "Pressurizer Trouble" annunciator. • "Pressurizer Pressure Hi-Lo" annunciator. • “Turbine Bypass Demand” annunciator. • SBCS affected: • If PT-100X - Modulation signal biased downward (controller demand generated). • If PT-100Y - Permissive signal biased downward (permissive light lit). • Master Pressure Controller goes to Maximum output. • Proportional heaters to minimum output. • Pressurizer spray valve controller goes to maximum output. • Spray valves go full open. • All Backup heaters turn off. • High Pressurizer pressure indication on B04.

Answer 12

A Wrong Incorrect because the setpoint for the High Log Power Bypass Permissive is 10-4%, not 10-2%. Also incorrect because the light illuminates, not goes out. Plausible because the Hi Log Power trip setpoint is 10-2%. Also plausible because the light goes out as power drops below 10-4%. B Wrong Incorrect because the setpoint for the High Log Power Bypass Permissive is 10-4%, not 10-2%. Plausible because the Hi Log Power trip setpoint is 10-2%. Also plausible because the second part is correct. C Wrong Incorrect because the light illuminates, not goes out. Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because the light goes out as power drops below 10-4%. D Correct Per 41AL-1RK5A, Window 5A15B: PT ID POSSIBLE CAUSE SETPOINT SBJS10A Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch A l0-4% power SBJS10B Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch B l0-4% power SBJS10C Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch C l0-4% power SBJS10D Hi Log Power Byp Perm Ch D l0-4% power Per 40OP-9ZZ03, Appendix F: Appendix F - Bypassing High Log Power Trips 1.0 Bypassing High Log Power Trips. 1.1 WHEN the High Log Power Bypass Permissive light illuminates (HI LOG PWR BYP PERM, B05A15B will alarm also), THEN perform the following: 1.1.1 Bypass the High Log Power Trips for each Log Safety Channel on B05.

Answer 13

A Wrong Incorrect because there are 6 ESF Matrix Relays, not four. Plausible because there are 4 Initiation Relays. Also incorrect because the correct temperature limit is 5080°F, not 5022°F. 5022°F is plausible because this would be correct (5080 – 58 = 5022) for a burnup of 10000 MWD/MTU. B Wrong Incorrect because there are 6 ESF Matrix Relays, not four. Plausible because there are 4 Initiation Relays. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. C Wrong Incorrect because the correct temperature limit is 5080°F, not 5022°F. 5022°F is plausible because this would be correct (5080 – 58 = 5022) for a burnup of 10000 MWD/MTU. Also plausible because the 1st part is correct. D Correct Per TS 2.1.1.2: In MODES 1 and 2, the peak fuel centerline temperature shall be maintained < 5080°F (decreasing by 58°F per 10,000 MWD/MTU for burnup and adjusting for burnable poisons per CENPD-382-P-A). Stem states 1 week after startup.

Answer 14

A Wrong Incorrect because CIAS does not close these valves. Plausible because valves will be closed (this part is correct). Also plausible because “MSIS” is correct. B Correct 3.0 psig in Containment will initiate CIAS, SIAS and MSIS signals on 2/4 channels. Valves will be closed due MSIS (Containment press) and SIAS (Pzr press). CIAS, although the same setpoint, does not close these valves. C Wrong Incorrect because valves will be closed, not open. Also wrong because CIAS initiates at 3 psig on 2/4 channels). Plausible because a novice operator may confuse the setpoint for CIAS with that of the Containment Spray Actuation Signal (CSAS) setpoint of 8.5 psig. See Operator Information Manual, Pages 48 and 49. D Wrong Incorrect because valves will be closed, not open. Plausible because it is true that Lo S/G pressure MSIS has not initiated (setpoint is 960 psig).

Answer 15

A Wrong Incorrect because B trains fan will NOT start immediately. There is time delay installed in the auto start feature to allow time for damper closing. “Immediately” is plausible because there are some standby HVAC fans (PZR Cooling Fan and the Containment Normal ACU), that automatically start without a time delay. The shutdown is plausible because 40AO-9ZZ20 requires a cooldown if cooling flow cannot be restored; it just doesn’t have to be started within 40 minutes. B Wrong The fans will start within 2 minutes. There is time delay installed in the auto start feature to allow time for damper closing. The cooldown must be started within 10 minutes. Also plausible because the first half is correct. C Wrong Incorrect because B trains fan will NOT start immediately. Also plausible because the second half is correct. D Correct The B train fans have a 2 minute time delay and 40AO-9ZZ20 directs a Reactor trip if cooling not restored within 40 minutes. 40OP-9HC01, Containment HVAC (HC), Limitations and Precautions 3.13 states: “When one set of CEDM fans is running, the other set may be spinning backwards. A time delay agastat of 120 seconds is installed so that when the set of running CEDM fans is shut down, that the other set won’t auto-start for 120 seconds (meaning the second set of fans is no longer running backwards.) There should be no need to manually start the second set of fans unless 120 seconds has passed and they still haven’t started.” 40AO-9ZZ20, Section 10.0, Step 7 states: IF at least one CEDM ACU Fan is NOT restored within 40 minutes of the initial loss, THEN perform the following: a. Trip the reactor.

Answer 16

A Wrong Incorrect because humidity will be high initially from the LOCA, so a change would not be seen. Plausible because the second part is correct. Also plausible because Containment humidity is a parameter that could be used to determine Containment conditions and diagnose a LOCA; therefore a novice operator may deduce this parameter is used to monitor CTPC-2. B Correct 40EP-9EO09, CTPC-2 step 3.1.f limits amps to ensure continued operation of the LPSI pump. Containment pressure will drop if the section is performed correctly. Containment pressure is also used in subsequent steps to monitor CTPC-2 (Steps 9 and 10). C Wrong Incorrect because, when LPSI is cross tied to CS, CS header flow is not available. (40EP-9EO09, CTPC-2, note by step 3). Also incorrect because humidity will be high initially from the LOCA, so a change would not be seen. Plausible because Containment humidity is a parameter that could be used to determine Containment conditions and diagnose a LOCA; therefore a novice operator may deduce this parameter is used to monitor CTPC-2. D Wrong Incorrect because, when LPSI is cross tied to CS, CS header flow is not available. (40EP-9EO09, CTPC-2, note by step 3). Plausible because the first part is correct.

Answer 17

A Wrong Incorrect because the valve must first be closed, then opened. Plausible because the valve must be opened to reset AFA-P01. B Correct IAW 40OP-9AF01, Section 11.3 (Steps 11.3.7-9), after AFA-P01 is manually tripped from the CR, AFA-HS-54D is placed in JOG CLOSE, then in JOG OPEN to fully reset the valve. IAW 40OP-9AF01, Section 11.3: 11.3.7 Trip AFA-HV-54, AFA-P01 Trip & Throttle valve using AFA-HS-54A, “ESS STM DRIVEN AFW PMP MANUAL TRIP” (B06). 11.3.8 Reset AFA-HV-54 by performing the following (B06): 1. Place and hold AFA-HS-54D in “JOG CLOSE”. 2. WHEN AFA-HV-54 stem closed rotation stops, OR the valve indication shows the valve full closed, THEN release AFA-HS-54D. 11.3.9 Direct the Nuclear Operator to perform the following locally: 1. Take AFA-HS-54E, AFA-P01 Trip & Throttle Valve, to “JOG OPEN” until the valve stem is observed to move in the open direction. C Wrong Incorrect because the operator does NOT have to reset the trip linkage on AFA-HV-54 for a manual trip from the CR. Plausible because the trip linkage must be reset locally if an overspeed condition occurs. See 40OP-9AF01, Step 11.3.28 for resetting AFA-P01 after an overspeed. D Wrong Incorrect because the operator does NOT have to reset the trip linkage on AFA-HV-54 for a manual trip from the CR. Plausible because the trip linkage must be reset locally if an overspeed condition occurs. See 40OP-9AF01, Step 11.3.28 for resetting AFA-P01 after an overspeed. Plausible because these are the correct steps for resetting AFA-P01 after an overspeed condition.

Answer 18

A Wrong 20.3% WR is the DAFAS setpoint which is wrong but plausible since it is a SG level setpoint. 44.3% is also wrong but it is the RPS SG level trip setpoint, also B Wrong plausible C Correct This is the control band for AFW flow to the SGs D Wrong 25.8% is the setpoint for AFAS but 44.3% is the RPS trip setpoint making this choice plausible but wrong.

Answer 19

A Wrong Level will lower because the failed signal is > the setpoint ~ 52%. There is no 8% deviation that causes an auto action in level control there 8% deviations which occur in FW temperature and reactor power. B Wrong Actual level will lower but these are the actions for a failed transmitter. C Wrong Actual level will lower but the 15% deviation will not occur in the control signal since the DFWCS uses the higher level, only the actual SG levels D Correct Level will lower because the failed signal is > the setpoint ~ 52%. These are the steps as described in the ARP for actual level < than setpoint that will be used.

Answer 20

A Wrong Incorrect because operators are not required to maintain <250 gpm if DP is less than 50 psig. Plausible because there is a L&P in 40OP-9AF01 related to 50 psid between SGs. 40OP-9AF01, Limitation and Precaution 3.12: Attempt to maintain less than 50 psig differential steam pressure between the Steam Generators while feeding with the Essential Auxiliary Feedwater System. This action helps balance the primary side cooling action of the Steam Generators. Also plausible because the 2nd part is the correct reason for L&P 3.12 in 40OP-9AF01. . B Wrong Incorrect because operators are not required to maintain <250 gpm if DP is less than 50 psig. Plausible because there is a L&P in 40OP-9AF01 related to 50 psid between SGs (see A, above). Also plausible because 250 gpm is the lower limit for AFW flow when SG levels are <27% NR and this limitation is based on voiding in the feed ring (see D, below). C Wrong Incorrect because operators are not required to maintain <250 gpm if DP is less than 50 psig. Plausible because there is a L&P in 40OP-9AF01 related to 50 psid between SGs (see A, above). Also plausible because 250 gpm is the lower limit for AFW flow when SG levels are <27% NR and this limitation is based on voiding in the feed ring (see D, below). D Correct 40OP-9AF01, Essential Auxiliary Feedwater System, Limitations and Precautions: 3.25 Minimize the use of Aux Feed to maintain Steam Generator levels at less than or equal to 27% narrow range to prevent damage to the downcomer feed ring and piping. A flowrate of less than 250 gpm, while level is less than 27% NR, may cause damage to the downcomer feed ring and piping due to voiding that occurs within the feed ring at this reduced flowrate. 3.26 If it is necessary to feed with Steam Generator level less than or equal to 27% narrow range, establish a feed flow of greater than or equal to 250 gpm until level is greater than 27% narrow range. Lesson Plan NKASYC012105, Auxiliary Feedwater System page 21 of 56, EO1.5: Design modifications to the downcomer feed rings have imposed operational restrictions to minimize voiding and water hammer in the downcomer lines. Since very little feedwater is required of the S/Gs during normal shutdown conditions, the lines become voided when S/G level dips below 27% narrow range indication. When this occurs, a minimum feed of 250 gpm is required to quickly collapse the void and minimize the effect of the waterhammer. Above this level, the voiding does not occur, and any minimum feeding rate is acceptable.

Answer 21

A Wrong Incorrect because flow will continue to SG-2. Plausible because this choice would be true if the AFAS-2 handswitches had been returned to “normal.” B Wrong Incorrect because flow to SG-1 AFW flow will stop as level rises above 40.8% WR. “Both SGs” is plausible because this part would be true if the AFAS-2 switches had been returned to “normal.” “45.8%” is plausible because it is a derivation of the two setpoints (40.8% and 25.8%) around which the AFW FCVs cycle. C Correct Since AFAS-1 was automatically initiated, SG-1 AFW FCVs will open automatically at 25.8% WR and close at 40.8% WR. Since the AFAS-2 switches were NOT returned to normal, the FCVs will open and remain open. Per Lesson Plan NKASYC012105, Auxiliary Feedwater System, Page 43: “Additionally, the AFAS channel actuation switches on B05 do not spring return to a normal position. They must be intentionally returned to the normal position by the operator. This is an important point, because if these switches are not returned to the normal position the isolation and flow control valves will not auto cycle based on S/G level, as described above. The valves will open and remain open until the operator overrides them to take manual control.” D Wrong Incorrect since the SG-2 AFW FCVs will NOT close on the High Level Override. Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because MFW valves will close on HLO at 88% NR.

Answer 22

A Correct Per the AOP. Condensate pumps are a PRA important load because, on a Loss of MFW, SGs may be depressurized to feed from the Condensate Pumps. B Wrong Condensate pumps A and B are supplied by NBN􀍲S01. Heater Drain pump B is supplied by NBN􀍲S01. C Wrong D Wrong

Answer 23

A Wrong There is a fast bus transfer between these buses but it only works to keep NAN􀍲S01 energized in case of a turbine trip. B Wrong This is an available means of energizing the bus as identified MVAC step 3 of the FRP. This will not work with the normal supply breaker still closed in. C Correct Per appendix M of 40AO􀍲9ZZ12, Degraded Electrical Power. Ensure that PBA􀍲S03L and K are OPEN. This will allow the DG breaker to auto close. D Wrong As identified in the SPTAs, No lockout present is one of the conditions for the DG breaker, PBA􀍲S03B, to close making this a plausible distracter.

Answer 24

A Wrong Incorrect because the interlock is mechanical, not electrical. Also incorrect because MSIV Logic Control Power is NOT lost since the battery will still supply the DC loads. Plausible because there are electrical interlocks in the AC electrical distribution system, such as the fast bus transfers between NBN-S01 and NBN-S02 (also NAN-S01-S03; NAN-S02-S04). Also plausible because MSIV Logic Control Power is fed from the PKA-M41 DC control center and because a loss of power to the MSIV logic cabinet will result in a 125V IE CC M41 CHGR A/AC PNL D21 TRBL alarm. B Wrong Incorrect because MSIV Logic Control Power is NOT lost since the battery will still supply the DC loads. Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because MSIV Logic Control Power is fed from the PKA-M41 DC control center and because a loss of power to the MSIV logic cabinet will result in a 125V IE CC M41 CHGR A/AC PNL D21 TRBL alarm. C Wrong Incorrect because the interlock is mechanical, not electrical. Also incorrect because MSIV Logic Control Power is NOT lost since the battery will still supply the DC loads. Plausible because there are electrical interlocks in the AC electrical distribution system, such as the fast bus transfers between NBN-S01 and NBN-S02 (also NAN-S01-S03; NAN-S02-S04). Also plausible because the second part is correct. D Correct Per Operator Information Manual, 4.16kv to 125vdc Electrical Distribution, page 72 of 88, if PKA-H11 trips, Backup Control Power to AFN-P01 will be lost since the Battery Charger supply breaker to PKA-M41 is downstream of the breaker for the AFN-P01 Control Power. Per Lesson Plan NKASYC128D02, 125 VDC Class IE Power (PK): “Each charger has four breakers associated with it. The supply breaker located at the MCC, the AC Input and DC Output breakers located on the charger, and the control center feed breaker located on the 125 Vdc control center. Since the backup chargers are capable of supplying either control center in its load group, a mechanical interlock is provided to prevent aligning this charger up to BOTH control centers at the same time.”

Answer 25

A Wrong Crossover piping allows starting air to be supplied to both banks of diesel cylinders. The diesel starts in the Emergency run mode of operation on an inadvertent SIAS. B Correct Crossover piping allows starting air to be supplied to both banks of diesel cylinders. The diesel starts in the Emergency mode of operation on an inadvertent SIAS. C Wrong Crossover piping allows starting air to be supplied to both banks of diesel cylinders. The diesel starts in the Emergency run mode of operation on an inadvertent SIAS. D Wrong Crossover piping allows starting air to be supplied to both banks of diesel cylinders. The diesel starts in the Emergency run mode of operation on an inadvertent SIAS.

Answer 26

A Wrong Incorrect because ONLY the internal voltage setting WILL change as the switch is placed in LOWER. Plausible because, in the Test Start mode, amps will increase as voltage is lowered if the DG is supplying a leading pF. B Wrong Incorrect because indicated voltage will NOT change until the DG is in override. Plausible because the internal voltage setting WILL change as the switch is placed in LOWER. Per Lesson Plan NKASYC012711, Emergency Diesel Generator, Page 60: “When the DG is started in Emergency Mode, the following conditions will exist: • Diesel generator voltage and frequency are preset • It is important to note that while in emergency run, the controls will not affect diesel generator speed or voltage, however the potentiometers for these circuits are still being adjusted. When the diesel generator is taken to override, the speed and/or voltage will immediately go to the value determined by the position of these potentiometers. This may result in unacceptable speed or voltage transients when the DG is taken to override.” C Correct Per Lesson Plan NKASYC012711, Emergency Diesel Generator, Page 60: “When the DG is started in Emergency Mode, the following conditions will exist: • Diesel generator voltage and frequency are preset • It is important to note that while in emergency run, the controls will not affect diesel generator speed or voltage; however, the potentiometers for these circuits are still being adjusted. When the diesel generator is taken to override, the speed and/or voltage will immediately go to the value determined by the position of these potentiometers. This may result in unacceptable speed or voltage transients when the DG is taken to override.” Per Lesson Plan NKASYC012711, Emergency Diesel Generator, Page 42: “In the emergency run mode, the governor controls on the local or remote panels have no effect on the setting of the governor, but in the test mode or in override they will.” Per Lesson Plan NKASYC012711, Emergency Diesel Generator, Page 44: “It is important to note that while in emergency run, the controls will not affect diesel generator speed or voltage, however the potentiometers for these circuits are still being adjusted. When the diesel generator is taken to override, the speed and/or voltage will immediately go to the value determined by the position of these potentiometers. This may result in unacceptable speed or voltage transients when the DG is taken to override.” Per 40ST-9DG01, Diesel Generator A Test, Section 3.2.6: “Emergency Mode Conditions: When the engine is started in the emergency run mode, speed and voltage are maintained automatically. Raise and lower switches will have no effect on running engine speed or voltage; they will, however, continue to change the settings of the rheostats.” D Wrong Incorrect because indicated VARs will NOT change until the DG is in override. Plausible because the internal voltage setting (and subsequently VARs) WILL change as the switch is placed in LOWER.

Answer 27

A Wrong Incorrect because RU-2 will alarm, not RU-6. Plausible because the alarm response for RU-2 directs the Operator to perform the RU-6 alarm response, in addition to the RU-2 alarm response, if EW is cross-connected to NC. Also plausible because RU-6 is the normal monitor for the NC System. Per 74RM-9EF41, Page 13 of 83, Appendix A, Monitor No. RU-2/RU-3: “If EW is cross-tied to the NC system, concurrently perform RU-6 alarm response.” Per Lesson Plan NKASYC010403, Nuclear Cooling Water System, Page 24: “NOTE: If the NCW system is being supplied by the Essential Cooling Water System, RU-6 is NOT in the flowpath, the monitor is still on line and would alarm if contaminated water were to migrate to the detector but it is not expected to alarm due to no flow through the detector to transport the contamination to the detector. Under these conditions, either RU-2 (ECWS “A”) or RU-3 (ECWS “B”) is used to monitor for activity in the NC system depending on what train is cross-connected to the NCW system.” B Correct Per Lesson Plan NKASYC010403, Nuclear Cooling Water System, Page 24: “NOTE: If the NCW system is being supplied by the Essential Cooling Water System, RU-6 is NOT in the flowpath, the monitor is still on line and would alarm if contaminated water were to migrate to the detector but it is not expected to alarm due to no flow through the detector to transport the contamination to the detector. Under these conditions, either RU-2 (ECWS “A”) or RU-3 (ECWS “B”) is used to monitor for activity in the NC system depending on what train is cross-connected to the NCW system.” C Wrong Incorrect because RU-2 will alarm, not RU-6. Plausible because the alarm response for RU-2 directs the Operator to perform the RU-6 alarm response, in addition to the RU-2 alarm response, if EW is cross-connected to NC. Also plausible because RU-6 is the normal monitor for the NC System. Plausible because the first part is correct. D Wrong Incorrect because the EW-NC cross-tie valves will not close on a high radiation alarm. Plausible because the 1st part is correct and because other systems have automatic actions when a radiation monitor goes into alarm. For example, RU-7 will swap discharge from the Auxiliary Steam Condenser Receiving Tanks from the Main Condenser to the Low TDS Holdup Tank.

Answer 28

A Correct An RCS pressure of 1800 psia is less than the SIAS setpoint of 1837 psia. Per Lesson Plan NKASYC010703, Essential Cooling Water System, Page 18: “The EW to NC cross-tie valves will automatically close on either of the following signals: • SIAS • LO Level in the Surge Tank” B Wrong Incorrect and plausible because a LOW level, NOT a HIGH level will isolate the cross-connect valves. Per 41AL-1RK2A, Panel B02A Alarm Responses, Window No. 2A09A: Lo Alarm 1. If Train A EW is cross connected to nuclear cooling water, and the EW surge tank level drops to 17 inches, the EW to NC cross-tie valves (EWA-UV-65/145) will auto close. PT. ID POSSIBLE CAUSE SETPOINT GROUP A EWLS97 Ess Cooling Water Surge Tank A level Hi-Lo Hi 50 inches Lo 20 inches EWLS98 Ess Cooling Water Surge Tank B level Hi-Lo Hi 50 inches Lo 20 inches C Wrong Incorrect because 2.6 psig is below the SIAS setpoint of 3.0. Plausible because, if Containment pressure was greater than 3.0, this would be true and the cross-connect valves would close. D Wrong Incorrect because the EW-NC cross-connect valves do NOT close on LOW pressure in the surge tank. Plausible because the cross-connect valves will close on LOW level. Also plausible because the ESS CLG WTR SYS TRBL (Window No. 2A09A) alarm response draws a clear correlation between surge tank pressure and surge tank level in the NOTE preceding Second Priority Action 1 as follows: Per 41AL-1RK2A, Panel B02A Alarm Responses, Window No. 2A09A: “Normal EW surge tank pressure is 0.5 to 2.0 psig. A rising pressure in the EW Surge Tank may be the result of rising level in the surge tank.” Conversely, a lowering surge tank pressure may be indicative of a lowering tank level.

Answer 29

A Wrong Incorrect because the valve cannot be locally operated. Also incorrect because the makeup source will be LP Nitrogen, not Service Air. Plausible because a novice operator may believe that the isolation valve is an AOV or MOV, which may have a local operator, not a solenoid. Also plausible because the second part may be correct if the valve could be locally opened. Also plausible because Step 5 of 40AO-9ZZ06, directs the operator to (manually) open IAA-UV-2, although from B07, not locally. B Wrong Incorrect because the valve cannot be locally operated. Also incorrect because the makeup source will be LP Nitrogen, not Instrument Air. Plausible because a novice operator may believe that the isolation valve is an AOV or MOV, which may have a local operator, not a solenoid. Also plausible because the second part may be correct if the valve could be locally opened. Also plausible because Step 5 of 40AO-9ZZ06, directs the operator to (manually) open IAA-UV-2, although from B07, not locally. C Wrong Incorrect because the makeup source will be LP Nitrogen, not Instrument Air. Plausible because the first part is correct. Also plausible because a novice operator may believe that the purpose of the temporary modification is to jumper around IAA-UV-2 and supply the Containment header from its normal source. Per NOTE prior to Step 2 in 40AO-9ZZ06, Loss of Instrument Air, Appendix J, Aligning N2 to the CTMT Instrument Air Header: “This appendix will install a T-Mod to place Low Pressure N2 in service on the CTMT IA Header when IAA-UV-2 has failed closed and will not reopen. This appendix routes a rubber hose between GAN-V062 and IAN-V1036 inside Containment.” Per Contingency Action 5.2 of 40AO-9ZZ06, Loss of Instrument Air: “IF any Instrument Air/Service Air Cross-Tie filter indicate the need for replacing, THEN consider aligning nitrogen to the Containment Instrument Air header, REFER TO Appendix J, Aligning N2 to the CTMT Instrument Air Header.” Plant Event - Unit 3 Loss of IA: While a Loss of Instrument Air to the Containment can be caused by other failures, the loss of IA in Unit 3 on 12/3/09 resulted from a failure of the solenoid on IAA-UV-2, Instrument Air to the Containment Isolation Valve. This failure brought in an alarm associated with PKA-M41. The alarm, Bus Undv/Ground/Breaker, cleared when the AO investigated. When instrument air is lost to containment, it initially results in RCP seal bleed-off flow being redirected to the RDT via a relief valve as CHA-UV-506 fails closed. Also, RCP Seal Injection valves fail open and the Charging Line Back Pressure Control Valve (CHNPDV-240) fails closed. IIR3-2-90-047: Switching of Air Dryers causes a Loss of Instrument Air, TCS 91-0425, Dec. 18, 1990 D Correct

Answer 30

A Wrong Incorrect since A01B and A01C will be running, not A01B and A01D. Plausible because the CEDM Normal ACU fans operate in pairs (B/D and A/C) and a novice operator may confuse operation of the Containment Building Normal ACU Fans with the CEDM fans. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. Also plausible because the two minute time provided in the stem is the time delay for auto-start of the standby CEDM fans. B Wrong Incorrect since A01B and A01C will be running, not A01B and A01D. Plausible because the CEDM Normal ACU fans operate in pairs (B/D and A/C) and a novice operator may confuse operation of the Containment Building Normal ACU Fans with the CEDM fans. Also incorrect because the TS limit is 117°F, not 170°F. Also plausible because 170°F is the Containment Temperature value for harsh conditions in EOPs. Also plausible because the two minute time provided in the stem is the time delay for auto-start of the standby CEDM fans. Per 40EP-9EO03, Loss of Coolant Accident, NOTE prior to Step 1: “Harsh conditions are containment temperature greater than 170°F or containment radiation level greater than 108 mR/hr. Harsh containment values are placed in brackets next to the normal setpoint or band.” C Correct Per T.S. 3.6.5 LCO: “3.6.5 Containment Air Temperature LCO 3.6.5 Containment average air temperature shall be ≤ 117°F.” Per Lesson Plan NKASYC130B02, Containment Building HVAC, Page 15: “The fans are all of vane-axial type and are paired together, with each pair discharging to a common duct. The pair arrangement is the “A” and “B” along with the “C” and “D”. Under normal conditions, one fan in each pair is operating. Power is supplied by Class 1E 480 Vac Load Centers.” Per Lesson Plan NKASYC130B02, Containment Building HVAC, Page 18: “Upon a trip of an operating fan (sensed by a low D/P across the fan), the other fan will automatically start after a 60 second time delay as long as its control switch is in the “Normal After Stop” position.” D Wrong Incorrect since A01B and A01C will be running, not A01B and A01D. Plausible because the CEDM Normal ACU fans operate in pairs (B/D and A/C) and a novice operator may confuse operation of the Containment Building Normal ACU Fans with the CEDM fans. Also incorrect because the TS limit is 117°F, not 170°F. Also plausible because 170°F is the Containment Temperature value for harsh conditions in EOPs. Per 40EP-9EO03, Loss of Coolant Accident, NOTE prior to Step 1: “Harsh conditions are containment temperature greater than 170°F or containment radiation level greater than 108 mR/hr. Harsh containment values are placed in brackets next to the normal setpoint or band.”

Answer 31

A Wrong Pzr level lowering at .5% minute = 33 gallons a minute, which is well within either the capacity of starting a charging pump or reduction of letdown flow. Two charging pumps makeup at 88 gpm. Three charging pumps makeup at approximately 130 gpm. COMMENT ON OVERLAP: This question was reviewed against the 2013 Operating exam and that there was enough difference to keep this question on the written exam. B Wrong C Wrong Start a charging pump then isolate letdown is the procedural direction D Correct Per 40AO􀍲9ZZ02

Answer 32

A Wrong L31 and L32 are correct but the power supply to CHE􀍲P01 is incorrect, but are credible since they are class Load Centers B Correct As found in the CH01 operating procedure C/D Wrong The PH designator indicates the 480 vac motor control centers and is wrong since these pumps come off of the 480 vac LCs. Credible since they are also 480vac class power and located in the Control Building. PH powers other motors such as EC circ pump, DG oil transfer pump, DG Jacket Water pump and Condensate transfer pumps

Answer 33

A Correct 4 x .75 = 3 inches of movement. As the remaining CEAs withdrawl a CWP will be generated at 5.5 inch deviation within a subgroup. B Wrong CEAs move ¾ inch with each step not 1 inch. 2nd part is correct 􀍲 CWP C Wrong 4 x .75 = 3 inches of movement. As the remaining CEAs withdrawl a CWP will be generated at 5.5 inch deviation within a subgroup. AWP is generated to stop CEA motion due to temp or SBCS demands D Wrong CEAs move ¾ inch with each step not 1 inch. AWP is generated to stop CEA motion due to temp or SBCS demands

Answer 34

A Correct Low temperature causes the PLCS to lower its program setpoint causing the letdown control valves to come open. B Wrong This would be generated on a hi temp failure. See Appendix B, Page 1 of 3, of 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions. C Wrong This would be generated on a hi temp failure. See Appendix B, Page 1 of 3, of 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions. D Wrong This would be generated on a hi temp failure. See Appendix B, Page 1 of 3, of 40AO-9ZZ16, RRS Malfunctions.

Answer 35

A Wrong Recombiners are placed in service as directed by the LOCA procedure and at the discretion of the CRS/SM. Placed in service if H2 concentration is > 0.7% per step 67 of LOCA. Also placed in service when CSAS is actuated (Step 17). B Correct Recombiners are placed in service as directed by the LOCA procedure and at the discretion of the CRS/SM. Placed in service if H2 concentration is > 0.7% per step 67 of LOCA. C Wrong Use of the H2 Purge Exhaust System is normally limited to when the Hydrogen D Wrong Recombiners are ineffective.

Answer 36

A Wrong The check valves installed on the discharge of the pump are not excessive flow check valves as used in other locations in the plant. B Wrong PC Cooling Pumps are not provided with a high discharge flow trip. Some pumps at PVNGS do have a high discharge pressure trip. C Wrong PC Cooling Pumps are not provided with a low suction pressure trip. Some pumps installed at PVNGS do have a low suction trip. D Correct Fuel pool cooling suction piping is in the upper level of the SFP

Answer 37

A Wrong Fill only one SG as stated in the Std App associated with restoring FW flow to dry SGs. B Correct Per the procedures 1000 gpm or less and only 1 SG. C Wrong The max fill rate is 1000 gpm as stated in all of the SA associated with restoring FW flow to dry SGs. The 1600 gpm is the upper FW flow rate with a dual event; an ESD on a SG with a tube leak that is releasing to atmosphere.

Answer 38

A Wrong SBCS in auto means it is controlling temperature not power. Examines may confuse 100% power response with what happens when SBCS is maintaining the plant. CEA withdrawal at power raises temperature since the turbine is maintaining power. This is an old PVNGS event, in an attempt: following a turbine trip the crew was attempting to raise temperature by withdrawing CEAs. The operator pulled CEAs until a VOPT trip occurred. B Wrong C Wrong D Correct Tcold will increase as CEAs are withdrawn then return to program as the SBCS controls temperature. Power increases due to the positive reactivity

Answer 39

A Wrong Per 40OP-9MT02, Personnel Indoctrination 7: All plant control systems should remain in the "automatic" mode of control when possible, with the exception of the CEDMCS system, which shall be placed in one of the "manual" modes as directed prior to testing, due to the Tave and Tref difference which may occur, causing undesired CEA movement. Incorrect because, under the Given Conditions, the procedure does NOT direct the crew to place, or consider placing, the DFWCS in Single Element control. Plausible because Personnel Indoctrination 8 states that testing may cause the DFWCS to go into Single element control, but does not direct use of Single element control. Personnel Indoctrination 6 admonishes the crew to minimize time in Single Element control. Per 40OP-9MT02, Personnel Indoctrination 8: Main Turbine testing may place the DFWCS in Single Element control or switch transmitters out of average due to steam flow oscillations. Also plausible because Personnel Indoctrination 4 states: Main Turbine Stop Valve testing with a steam flow transmitter out of service and in maintenance, will be performed with the DFWCS in Single Element control due to the lower magnitude of S/G level oscillations, which are predicted to be up to 7% NR. B Wrong Incorrect because the procedure does NOT direct the crew to place, or consider placing, the DFWCS in Single Element control. Plausible because Personnel Indoctrination 8 states that testing may cause the DFWCS to go into Single element control, but does not direct use of Single Element control. Personnel Indoctrination 6 admonishes the crew to minimize time in Single Element control. Plausible because the 1st part is correct. C Wrong Incorrect because the procedure does NOT direct the crew to place, or consider placing, the DFWCS in Single Element control. Plausible because Personnel Indoctrination 8 states that testing may cause the DFWCS to go into Single element control, but does not direct use of Single Element control. Personnel Indoctrination 6 admonishes the crew to minimize time in Single Element control. Also plausible because Personnel Indoctrination 4 states: Main Turbine Stop Valve testing with a steam flow transmitter out of service and in maintenance, will be performed with the DFWCS in Single Element control due to the lower magnitude of S/G level oscillations, which are predicted to be up to 7% NR. Also plausible because the 2nd part is correct. D Correct Per 40OP-9MT02, Personnel Indoctrination 7: All plant control systems should remain in the "automatic" mode of control when possible, with the exception of the CEDMCS system, which shall be placed in one of the "manual" modes as directed prior to testing, due to the Tave and Tref difference which may occur, causing undesired CEA movement. A NOTE prior to Step 4.6.3.5 states: NOTE RCS pressure oscillations may be experienced during Control Valve testing. Consideration should be given to going to Boron Equalization in the Pressurizer while performing this test.

Answer 40

A Correct According to 40OP-9SA01, BOP/ESFAS Module Operation, Appendix F, FBEVAS Actuated Equipment Train A and B, page 1 of 1: Fuel Bldg. Ess Exh Damper M05/Fuel Bldg. Ess AFU A, the Actuated Condition is Open/Started. According to 40OP-9SA01, BOP/ESFAS Module Operation, Appendix G, CREFAS, Actuated Equipment Train A: Contl Rm Ess AHU A (B) OSA Intake Damper M01 (M03) Actuated Condition is Open. B Wrong Incorrect because the OSA damper opens, not closes. Plausible because the 1st part is correct. Also plausible because a novice operator may deduce that, in a high radiation condition, it would be logical to isolate all paths to the environment. C Wrong Incorrect because the FB AFU starts, not stops. Plausible because the 2nd part is correct. D Wrong Incorrect because the OSA damper opens, not closes. Also incorrect because the FB AFU starts, not stops. Plausible because a novice operator may deduce that, in a high radiation condition, it would be logical to isolate all paths to the environment.

Answer 41

A Correct Per ODP􀍲1 and Conduct of Shift Operations B Wrong All B01 manipulations and Turbine Load adjustments require a Peer check. But the operator who is supervising the examinee cannot perform the peer check because they are considered the “performer”. Plausible because the 1st half is correct and ROs on shift are required to perform peer checks. C Wrong Not ALL manipulations on B03 require a peer check but the boration/dilution and CEA manipulations do, making this plausible. Plausible because the ROs on shift are required to perform peer checks.

Answer 42

A Wrong Incorrect since throttled valves must be concurrently verified. Plausible because this is similar to a second check described in Step 4.2.4.2 of 40AC-0ZZ06: “The person performing the second check shall verify that the valve, breaker, or component is in the required position using local and remote indication where possible per 02DP-0ZZ01 and verify that the locking device is locked.” B Wrong Incorrect since throttled valves must be concurrently verified. Plausible because this is similar to a second check described in Step 4.2.4.3: “If the second checker can not determine the position of the locked valve, breaker, or component, the CRS may authorize removal of the lock and the use of concurrent verification to place the valve, breaker, or component in the locked position per 02DP-0ZZ01.” C Correct Per 40AC-0ZZ06, Locked Valve, Breaker, and Component Control: “4.2.4.4 For valves placed in a throttled position, the person performing the second check shall perform the verification concurrently with the initial manipulation of the valve. The person performing the second check shall then verify that the locking device is installed and locked.” D Wrong Incorrect since the independent verification by alternate methods is not required. Plausible because this is similar to a second check described in Appendix B, Step 1.7.2 of 02DP-0ZZ01, Verification of Plant Activities: “1.7 Alternative Verification Methods 1.7.1 Performance of Alternative Verification Methods 1.7.2, 1.7.3 and 1.7.4 in lieu of those verification methods listed in step 1.6 shall be authorized by the Shift Manager and documented in a retrievable document. 1.7.2 Process parameters (i.e., flow, pressure, current, voltage, etc.) If using process parameters as a second verification ensure the check is valid by considering alternate flow paths or other conditions that could result in false indications.”

Answer 43

A Wrong It would be reasonable for the examinee to believe that a “temporary “ change would be cancelled upon completion of the specific task B Wrong It would be reasonable for the examinee to believe that once all the required reviews for the TAPA have been completed and the procedure change has been used then no further reviews would be required to make the change permanent. C Wrong Incorrect because 14 days is allowed, not 4. Plausible because 4 days is the review time for a “minor” revision D Correct Per 4.12.5.2 of Procedure Process: 4.12.5 Post-Approval Process 4.12.5.1 The Procedure Preparer notifies the Procedure Owner that the TAPA has been approved for use. 4.12.5.2 Completion of an IQR review and Owner approval of the TAPA must occur within 14 days of the TAPA change.

Answer 44

A Correct Per the procedure B Wrong Examinee may believe that closing the vents and drains is required to prevent any release of energy if a leak develops in the first isolation valve C Wrong 500 relates to the high energy pressure limit of 500 psig. D Wrong

Answer 45

A Wrong Incorrect since an IV is not required by 40DP-9OP02. Plausible because this could be one method of tracking the valve’s status. B Wrong Incorrect since racking the breaker out is not required by 40DP-9OP02. Plausible because this could be one method of tracking the valve’s status. C Wrong Incorrect since hanging tags on the valve is not required by 40DP-9OP02. Plausible because this could be one method of tracking the valve’s status. D Correct There is no alarm to alert operations that the ECCS system is out of its normal alignment/status so the manual SESS alarm is inserted. Per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations: 6.2.1 A manual SESS alarm input shall be initiated when any ES annunciator panel monitored component or system is either: • Disabled and unable to perform its function by any method that is not alarmed • Rendered incapable of performing its design function by any method that is not alarmed The impairment may be the result of a Permit, T-mod., procedural alignment, or component failure. 6.2.2 The manual SESS alarm is required if the impairment or failure is anticipated to last longer than the current shift.

Answer 46

A Wrong 1.5 is the first PVNGS hold point B Wrong 1.5 is the first PVNGS hold point and 50 is the extremities limit C Correct 5 whole body and 15 eyes are both correct D Wrong 5 is correct but 50 is the extremities limit not eyes.

Answer 47

A Wrong BOTH CREFAS and CPIAS will be actuated, RU-37/38 actuate a CPIAS which B Wrong will cause a cross trip of CREFAS. C Correct RU-37/38 actuate a CPIAS, CREFAS actuates off the cross trip. D Wrong CREFAS is actuated off RU-29/30 high alarms not RU-34.

Answer 48

A Wrong OPs are used for switching pumps under normal conditions; GOP is plausible if the examinee does not realize that a reactor trip is required for a loss of PCW. B Wrong GOP is plausible if the examinee does not realize that a reactor trip is required for a loss of PCW. C Wrong OPs are used for switching pumps under normal conditions; EOP – SPTAs and Reactor Trip will be implemented D Correct AOP for the abnormal condition followed by the EOP after the reactor is tripped

Answer 49

A Correct Per the EOP users guide B Wrong This is normal procedure progression to stay in the column you are in C Wrong If conditions cannot be met such as safety functions then exit to the FRP is reasonable D Wrong This would be true for an OP

Answer 50

A Wrong Safety Injection flow is adequate. B Correct VOID is forming in the RVUH, LOCA directs the use of SA􀍲15 C Wrong Safety Injection flow is adequate. D Wrong Not directed by LOCA for Void control

Answer 51

A Wrong CD rate limits have been exceeded. The examinee must evaluate conditions to determine this. Not permitted to continue a soak is required. Plausible because this part of the answer is correct but further evaluation will detrermine that the more restrictive limit has also been exceeded. B Wrong Examinee may pick this if they use the “Normal” containment curves or REP CET temperature. Making this a plausible choice/evaluation. C Correct The examinee must properly evaluate Thot and “HARSH” curve to determine that the 200° limit has been exceeded. Then they must determine that the CD rate has been exceeded and therefore a “soak” is required. D Wrong Examinee must correctly interrupt contingency action 37.2 to determine that a soak is required. Since the candidate must evaluate graphs and curves this choice is one of choices that could be made.

Answer 52

A Wrong Nat’l Circ conditions have been established (refer to Blackout procedurereferences). Std App 45, Condensate Pumps would be legitimate for a single unit LOOP event or other LOAF scenarios but will not work for a loss of 525kV grid event. This is plausible because part 1 is correct B Correct Nat’l Circ conditions have been established (refer to Blackout procedurereferences). Blackout procedure directs the use of SA 42 if CST level is below 9 feet and cannot be recovered or filled. C Wrong Nat’l Circ conditions have been established (refer to Blackout procedurereferences). Plausible because using ther other units Condensate pumps is a procedurally directed step although it will not work for a LOOP. D Wrong Nat’l Circ conditions have been established (refer to Blackout procedurereferences). Part two is correct making this plausible.

Answer 53

A Wrong The combination of LOOP and loss of M41 (prevents DG A from starting) means that the only energized bus is PBB􀍲S04 so the crew must transition to LOAF to restore AFW flow. B Wrong C Correct LOAF will allow the crew to use manual operation of AFA􀍲P01 (SA􀍲40) to recover AFW flow. The SFSCs is met for LOAF so entry to the FRP is not mandatory. D Wrong ZZ13 does transfer control power to the A battery charger but PBA􀍲S03 is de􀍲energized with no DG A running

Answer 54

A Wrong Operability is not restored for EW when cross tied to NC even if a flow balance is completed. EW is not sized to supply both NC priority loads and the SDC heat exchanger. EW is sized to carry the SFP heat exchanger, Essential chiller and the SDC heat exchanger. Operability is restored if a flow balance is completed after cross ting to Fuel Pool Cooling. Distracters A and D are plausible because one part of the answer is correct. Distracter C is plausible because the answers are true for the opposite condition

Answer 55

A Wrong Examinee may choose this if they don’t know the switchyard distribution scheme and realize that the A DG and X01 secondary winding are on the same class bus or that X01 is the backup supply to U1 and the normal supply to U3􀍲S06. B Wrong C Wrong Examinee may choose this if they do not understand that the alternate supply to the class buses would not require entry into the LCO D Correct These are correct for the switchyard scheme and application of the LCO 3.8.1

Answer 56

A Wrong Various monitors in alert or RU-145 reading > 1.13E-01 uCI/cc would be an alert but readings are higher B Correct Meets alert criteria C Wrong RU-146 readings must be considered but levels have not reached these criteria D Wrong

Answer 57

A Wrong Pzr level is stable so not required to isolate letdown B Wrong Do not meet LMFRP entry conditions C Correct Per section 5 perform app C to minimize release to atmosphere D Wrong Do not meet LMFRP entry conditions

Answer 58

A Wrong Mode 4 LCO does apply B Wrong Action for two CI valves INOP C Correct Per condition A of LCO 3.6.3 D Wrong Purge valve leakage not within limits

Answer 59

A Wrong Examinee may not realize that the bus will not energize with an 86 LO on PBA􀍲S03L B Correct SA 44 would be directed by HR􀍲1 to restore FW flow C Wrong Could believe that the B MFP could be available to restore FW flow but loss of vacuum trips the MFPs D Wrong This is an available success path in the LOAF procedure and therefore credible but the candidate must determine that AFN􀍲P01 has no power source available at this time.

Answer 60

A Wrong These actions are performed in LOCA there is no need to go to FRP still have one good CS pump B Wrong Both pumps are stopped in the contingency actions and stopping the pumps would seem reasonable to prevent pump damage. C Wrong Both pumps are stopped in the contingency actions and stopping the pumps would seem reasonable to prevent pump damage. D Correct As directed by the LOCA procedure

Answer 61

A Wrong Any time an ESFAS function alarms the first choice would be a transmitter failure affecting LCO 3.3.5. The examinee has to determine with no other alarms in that no transmitter failed. B Wrong If the examinee does not understand the relationships between matrix, initiation and actuation functions this would be a viable choice due to multiple windows in alarm. C Correct This is an initiation failure, good transmitters and the initiation light extinguished. D Wrong If the examinee does not understand the relationships between matrix, initiation and actuation functions this would be a viable choice but no actuations have actually occurred.

Answer 62

A Wrong Cntmt pressure < 55# and 4350 gpm would meet criteria. B Wrong CTPC-1 could be used if Cntmt level is not indicated. C Correct CTPC-2 directs x-tying LPSI to the CS hdr D Wrong The CS pump could be in this condition during an inadvertent CS when the crew is directed to “anti-pump” the breaker to stop CS flow. In that case resetting the 86 would start the pump. SF would be met if a fail to auto start is the only fault.

Answer 63

A Wrong This would be the correct response for Seal 2 outlet pressure > 1700 psig. If controlled BO flow is > 9.5 gpm then Seal/Controlled BO must be isolated. B Wrong Going to the AOP is correct due to the high SBO flowrate but the AOP directs isolating Seal Bleedoff but whereas the OP has SBO remaining in service. If controlled BO flow is > 9.5 gpm then Seal/Controlled BO must be isolated. C Wrong Both the first and second parts are wrong for the conditions given but part 1 would be correct for the outlet pressure of the Seal 2. D Correct >9.5 gpm requires entry into ZZ04 and isolation of Seal Bleedoff.

Answer 64

A Correct Per 3.4.16 action D 􀍲 with both the atmosphere and sump monitors inoperable enter LCO 3.0.3 immediately. When an “A” train CIAS is actuated RU􀍲1 is isolated and therefore Inoperable due 2 of 4 CI valves going closed, HCA􀍲UV􀍲45/46. On the “A” train CIAS the containment sump isolation valve RDA􀍲HV􀍲23 will go closed making the containment sump monitoring system Inoperable.. B Wrong Both are inoperable. Plausible because this is an action in the LCO. Refer to A. C Wrong Both are inoperable. Plausible because this is an action in the LCO. Refer to A. D Wrong Both are inoperable but this action is required in the conditions of actions A or B or not met. This would be applicable if the mode change time requirements had not been met. Condition D overrides this requirement. Plausible because this is an action in the LCO

Answer 65

A Wrong Guidance for a dropped CEA in Mode 3 from 40AO􀍲9ZZ11. B Correct 2 ACPs within the minus 500 position means that a withdraw to the less of ½ distance to critical position or HP 4 is permitted. HP 4 is 550 pcm away, ACP is > 1300 pcm away C Wrong This would be correct with 3 or fewer doublings and the ACPs had been outside the minus 500 pcm position D Wrong 2 ACP < (􀍲) 500 pcm position and 4 doublings then a reactor trip is required.

Answer 66

A Wrong CET temperatures greater than 700°F represents the “potential “ loss on the fuel clad barrier. The question B Wrong asks for the “onset” of clad damage. C Correct 1200°F is the onset on clad damage and no HPSI flow requires entry into the FRP D Wrong No HPSI flow is a loss safety function and the FRP must be entered.

Answer 67

A Wrong 2150 is the Spent Fuel Pool Boron concentration requirement B Wrong Keff .99 can be found in the U1R18 COLR figure 3.1.1􀍲1 SDM vs. Cold Leg Temperature and 2150 is the SFP TS limit C Correct Per COLR and TS 3.9.1 bases D Wrong 3000 ppm is correct but .99 can be found in the U1R18 COLR figure 3.1.1􀍲1 SDM vs. Cold Leg Temperature

Answer 68

A Wrong The 4th AO is allowed outside the unit provided they are in contact and can return within 10 minutes. B Wrong The Tech Spec requirements are met but the FTA position is designated by U2 manning C Wrong There can be a “SITE” FTA D Correct Staffing requirements would be met if either of the other units have a third RO who is designated as the Site FTA

Answer 69

A Wrong > 0.1 􀈝Ci/gm is the limit for secondary specific activity (LCO 3.7.16) B Wrong 1st part is correct but the second is based on LCO 3.0.3 if the examinee is not aware of the applicable condition they may think that entry into LCO 3.0.3 is required C Wrong > 0.1 􀈝Ci/gm is the limit for secondary specific activity (LCO 3.7.16) D Correct Proper RCS limit and application of Condition B: be in Mode 3 with Tcold < 500° w/I 6 hours

Answer 70

A Wrong 72 hours from EW INOP, if 3.0.6 is not used then this would be correct B Wrong SR 3.0.3 has provisions for a 24 delay if a surveillance is missed C Correct 72 hours from CS inoperability, with LCO 3.0.6 invoked. D Wrong 72 hours after EW is restored to service.

Answer 71

A Correct This is considered a core alteration by TS, 40OP􀍲9ZZ23 and the Core Reloading procedure. TS requires Core Alts to be suspended immediately. B Wrong One hour relates to the condition time required to place a train of CREFS in operation in Modes 1􀍲4. C Wrong This is considered a core alteration by TS, 40OP􀍲9ZZ23 and the Core Reloading procedure. Part (2) CREFS would allow Core Alts to continue. D Wrong This is considered a core alteration by TS, 40OP􀍲9ZZ23 and the Core Reloading procedure. TS would allow Core Alts to continue with only one of the monitors OPERABLE but examinee may think that both trains are required.

Answer 72

A Correct step 32 of SGTR directs either one of these actions B Wrong Due to the loss of offsite power CD rate is limited to 30°F per SGTR. But increasing the CD rate would get to SDC quicker limiting secondary contamination C Wrong Steaming to condenser is correct but not thru the MSIVs. MSIV bypasses should be used to limit secondary water hammer D Wrong both of these are wrong as stated above

Answer 73

A Wrong With LTOPs in service LOCA entry conditions are not met even though the B Wrong event in progress is a Loss of Coolant accident C Correct with LTOPs open the LMFRP is the correct procedure to enter and the other train of SDC should be placed in service because the to isolate the LTOP the SDC suction valves are closed so CS A is not available. D Wrong Isolating the LTOP require that the SDC suction valves are closed so CS A is not available.

Answer 74

A Wrong Note in EP 0901 directs the EC to use ZZ24 to make announcements and the associated appendix directs ALL personnel to seek shelter.* B Correct B􀍲Safe building is outside the PA therefore this event is an Alert and ZZ24 directs ALL personnel to seek shelter.* C Wrong Would be SAE in the intruders were within the PA D Wrong Would be SAE in the intruders were within the PA