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bms107 > 2016 Exam > Flashcards

2016 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the general vertebrate body plan?

a. A coelomic cavity
b. A ventral heart
c. Bilateral symmetry
d. Cephalisation
e. Four limbs

A

e. Four limbs

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2
Q

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. Calcium ions (Ca2+) are at higher concentration in the intracellular fluid
than in the plasma
b. Sodium ions (Na+) are at higher concentration in the intracellular fluid
than in the plasma
c. Intracellular fluid is defined as all fluid within the epithelium
d. All fluid outside the plasma membrane is extracellular fluid
e. All cells contain intracellular fluid except for blood cells

A

d. All fluid outside the plasma membrane is extracellular fluid

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3
Q

Which one of the following is the BEST description of mechano-gated
channels?
a. Open/close in response to specific molecules
b. Open/close due to cytoskeletal proteins
c. Open/close in response to membrane potential
d. Close in response to membrane potential
e. Open in response to membrane potential

A

b. Open/close due to cytoskeletal proteins

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4
Q 
During glucose absorption in the small intestine, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is transported
in the SAME direction as glucose?
a. calcium
b. sodium 
c. potassium
d. urea
e. sodium and potassium
A

b. sodium

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5
Q

Which of the following CORRECTLY distinguishes between osmolarity and
tonicity?
a. Osmolarity is a passive process but tonicity involves active transport
b. Osmolarity is only of concern in the presence of salt
c. Osmolarity takes into account only non-penetrating solutes
d. Tonicity is affected by the concentration of non-penetrating solutes
e. Tonicity is given in absolute values

A

d. Tonicity is affected by the concentration of non-penetrating solutes

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6
Q 
Which of the following is not one of the seven life processes exhibited by
vertebrates?
a. Autotrophy
b. Excretion
c. Growth
d. Reproduction
e. Respiration
A

a. Autotrophy

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7
Q

Which of the following BEST represents a homeostatic control?

a. Acclimation to low temperature
b. Ovulation
c. Salivation in response to the smell of food
d. The regulation of blood calcium concentration
e. Partuition

A

d. The regulation of blood calcium concentration

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8
Q 
A pathologist is using antibodies to identify a tumour (cancer) from a patient
and finds that the tumour contains a lot of myosin. What type of tissue is the
tumour derived from?
a. Bone
b. Cartilage
c. Intestinal wall
d. Liver
e. Skeletal muscle
A

e. Skeletal muscle

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9
Q

A cell is found to have cross-striations visible by light microscopy using the
high-power (x40) objective. What is the tissue origin of the cell?
a. Cardiac muscle
b. Skeletal muscle
c. Skeletal or cardiac muscle
d. Smooth muscle
e. Smooth or skeletal muscle

A

c. Skeletal or cardiac muscle

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10
Q

. A surgeon passes an endoscope down a patient’s oesophagus and through
the stomach to take a biopsy (tissue sample) from the duodenum. The
endoscope manages to sample the epithelium, basement membrane and
the next layer of tissue immediately beneath the basement membrane. What
is this layer of tissue called?
a. Circular smooth muscle layer
b. Lamina propria
c. Longitudinal smooth muscle layer
d. Muscularis mucosa
e. Serosa

A

b. Lamina propria

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11
Q

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about the amphibian
cardiovascular system?
a. It is an open circulatory system
b. The heart has three chambers
c. The heart has only compact myocardium
d. There is no separation of systemic and pulmonary circuits
e. The heart has two aortas

A

b. The heart has three chambers

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12
Q

Which ONE of the following CORRECTLY identifies the order of contraction

(systole) of mammalian hear chambers
a. Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, left ventricle
b. Left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, right ventricle
c. Both atria simultaneously, both ventricles simultaneously
d. Both ventricles simultaneously, both atria simultaneously
e. All four chambers simultaneously

A

c. Both atria simultaneously, both ventricles simultaneously

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13
Q

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT statement about fluid flow?

a. Laminar flow involves fluid moving in concentric layers
b. There is no resistance between fluid particles in laminar flow
c. Turbulent flow produces lower resistance than laminar flow
d. Turbulent flow decreases fluid viscosity
e. Turbulent flow is not normally seen in a healthy cardiovascular system

A

a. Laminar flow involves fluid moving in concentric layers

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14
Q

All muscle contraction depends on __________ .

a. Anaerobic fermentation
b. Aerobic respiration
c. Oxygen
d. ATP
e. Lactic acid

A

d. ATP

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15
Q 
Identify the best combination of terms to describe thermoregulation in
humans.
a. Homeotherm endotherm 
b. Homeotherm ectotherm
c. Poikilotherm heterotherm
d. Poikilotherm endotherm
e. Poikilotherm ectotherm
A

a. Homeotherm endotherm

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16
Q

Fever is an example where temperature homeostasis is disrupted by
_______ .
a. a change in body temperature set-point
b. a lack of body temperature feedback
c. a larger error signal
d. disruption of the effector organs
e. positive feedback

A

a. a change in body temperature set-point

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17
Q 
Urea is an example of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ solute. The effects of urea can be
counteracted by the presence of trimethyl amine oxide (TMAO), a
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ solute.
a. Comparable counteracting
b. Compatible comparable
c. Counteracting neutralising
d. Electolytic neutralising
e. Perturbing counteracting
A

e. Perturbing counteracting

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18
Q

Birds that drinks seawater rely on ___________ to expel the salt.

a. salt glands
b. rectal glands
c. ammonia excretion
d. sweat glands
e. potassium ions

A

a. salt glands

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding nitrogenous waste
excretion?
a. Water is needed for the storage and excretion of urea and therefore there
is a minimum obligatory water loss associated with this form of nitrogen
excretion.
b. Urea is less toxic than ammonia, requiring ten times less water for
storage and excretion at non-toxic concentrations.
c. Synthesis of uric acid requires more energy than urea synthesis.
d. Uric acid is very toxic and requires a quantity of H2O to dilute it to a nontoxic
concentration.
e. When amino acids are oxidised or converted to other kinds of molecules,
the amino (NH2) group must be removed.

A

d. Uric acid is very toxic and requires a quantity of H2O to dilute it to a nontoxic
concentration.

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20
Q

An increase in circulating concentration of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) will
result in ___________ by the collecting duct.
a. more sodium reabsorption
b. more potassium reabsorption
c. more water reabsorption
d. less water reabsorption
e. both (a) and (d)

A

c. more water reabsorption

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function performed by the kidney?

a. Regulation of Na+ reabsorption
b. Filtration of waste products
c. Active reabsorption of water
d. Active secretion of large circulating molecules (e.g. drugs, vitamins)
e. Erythropoietin production

A

c. Active reabsorption of water

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22
Q 
Vertebrates can obtain water through a number of sources. Which of the
following is NOT a source of water?
a. Drinking free-standing water
b. Fat metabolism
c. Metabolic water
d. Preformed water in food
e. Respiratory evaporative water
A

e. Respiratory evaporative water

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23
Q

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?

a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Glomerulus
d. Collecting duct
e. Bowman’s capsule

A

a. Proximal convoluted tubule

24
Q

Which force is the primary determinant of glomerular filtration rate?

a. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure
b. Bowman’s capsule osmotic pressure
c. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure
d. Glomerular capillary osmotic pressure
e. Gravity

A

c. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

25
Q 
Which part of the nephron creates the renal medulla interstitium osmotic
gradient?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule A
b. Proximal convoluted tubule E
c. Loop of Henle A 
d. Loop of Henle D
e. Collecting duct B
A

c. Loop of Henle A

26
Q

Which ONE of the following correctly defines a generator potential?

a. The physical pressure applied to a mechanoreceptor
b. The action potentials carried along a sensory nerve axon to the brain
c. The ion channels opened by a sensory stimulus
d. The sensory signal generating graded potentials that reach the brain
e. The graded potentials generated by a sensory stimulus

A

e. The graded potentials generated by a sensory stimulus

27
Q

Which ONE of the following correctly defines the adequate stimulus of a
sensory receptor?
a. The threshold at which generator potentials are produced
b. The speed with which generator potentials are produced
c. The size of the receptive field that is detecting the stimulus
d. The modality to which the receptor responds best
e. The number of graded potentials generated by the receptor

A

d. The modality to which the receptor responds best

28
Q

. Which ONE of the following is a response of mechanoreceptors to stimuli of
increasing intensity?
a. A greater number of receptors are activated
b. Action potentials of greater amplitude are generated in the afferent nerve
c. Action potentials generated are propagated more quickly to the sensory
cortex
d. Graded potentials generated are propagated more quickly to the sensory
cortex
e. Receptor adaptation is delayed

A

a. A greater number of receptors are activated

29
Q

In the inner ear, which of the following encodes for the frequency of sound?

a. The number of hair cells stimulated in the cochlear duct
b. The direction in which the stereocilia move
c. The amplitude of the action potentials generated in the cochlear nerve
d. The rate at which action potentials are generated in the cochlear nerve
e. The location in the cochlear duct of the hair cells stimulated

A

e. The location in the cochlear duct of the hair cells stimulated

30
Q

In the mammalian eye, increased sympathetic nervous activity is associated
with which one of the following?
a. Dilation of the pupils in response to dark
b. Dilation of the pupils in response to fear or anger
c. Accommodation of the lens for viewing close objects
d. Accommodation of the lens for viewing distant objects
e. Constriction of the pupils in response to light

A

b. Dilation of the pupils in response to fear or anger

31
Q

Which ONE of the following is a function of the material in the vitreous
chamber of the eye?
a. Provides nutrients to the retina
b. Provides nutrients to the lens
c. Provides nutrients to the ciliary body
d. Focuses light onto the retina
e. Maintains the shape of the eyeball

A

e. Maintains the shape of the eyeball

32
Q

Which ONE of the following receptors in the skin of the finger would be
activated immediately after a painful bee sting?
a. Organ of Corti
b. Nociceptor
c. Ruffini’s corpuscle
d. Meissner’s corpuscle
e. Pacinian corpuscle

A

b. Nociceptor

33
Q

In aquatic animals, neuromasts detect which ONE of the following in water:

a. Electrical signals
b. Magnetic signals
c. Water movement
d. Sound
e. Chemicals

A

c. Water movement

34
Q

Which ONE of the following is a function of Type II taste receptor cells?

a. Detect salty tastes
b. Detect sour tastes
c. Act as support cells for Type III taste receptor cells
d. Communicate with afferent nerves via ATP
e. Communicate with afferent nerves via Type I support cells

A

d. Communicate with afferent nerves via ATP

35
Q

The utricle detects movement in which ONE of the following directions?

a. Angular acceleration in the vertical plane
b. Angular acceleration in the horizontal plane
c. Linear acceleration in both the vertical and horizontal planes
d. Linear acceleration in the vertical plane
e. Linear acceleration in the horizontal plane

A

e. Linear acceleration in the horizontal plane

36
Q

The uptake of nutrients across the epithelial cells of the gastrointestinal tract
and into the bloodstream is called ________.
a. absorption
b. excretion
c. filtration
d. reabsorption
e. secretion

A

a. absorption

37
Q

Ruminants obtain glucose for brain function from __________________ .

a. Conversion of propionate to glucose
b. Glucose absorbed from the rumen
c. Glucose generated by gut microbes
d. Volatile fatty acids that are converted to glucose in the rumen
e. Volatile fatty acids that are synthesised in the liver

A

a. Conversion of propionate to glucose

38
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of minerals?

a. Energy source
b. Nerve conduction
c. Muscle contraction
d. Co-factors in enzyme-catalysed reactions
e. Regulation of acid-base balance

A

a. Energy source

39
Q 
Several hours into the post-absorptive period, the liver maintains blood
glucose concentration via \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
a. Glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis
b. Ketogenesis
c. Glycolysis
d. Lipolysis
e. All of the above
A

a. Glycogenolysis/gluconeogenesis

40
Q 
The largest metabolic reserves for the average adult are stored as
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ .
a. Carbohydrates.
b. Proteins.
c. Glycogen.
d. Triglycerides.
e. Fatty acids.
A

d. Triglycerides.

41
Q

The enzymes known as ___________ break down proteins into shorter
polypeptides, while ____________ break down polysaccharides.
a. Lipases Proteases
b. Disaccharidases Lipases
c. Proteases Amylases
d. Nucleases Amylases
e. Proteases Disaccharidases

A

c. Proteases Amylases

42
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the basal metabolic
rate (BMR)?
a. BMR is a measure of the baseline or maintenance rate of energy
expenditure of an animal under certain controlled conditions
b. BMR represents the energy required by the body to perform the basic
physiological processes that maintain life such as pumping blood and
transporting ions
c. BMR is measured in a post-absorptive state
d. BMR is a measure of the total energy expenditure of an animal over a
24-hour period, including the costs of locomotion and thermoregulation
e. BMR is measured while the animal is resting but awake

A

d. BMR is a measure of the total energy expenditure of an animal over a
24-hour period, including the costs of locomotion and thermoregulation

43
Q

Which of the following options CORRECTLY identifies the circulating and
storage form of each of these fuels for metabolism?
Metabolic fuel Circulating form
a. Carbohydrate Glucose
b. Carbohydrate Glucagon
c. Protein Carbohydrate
d. Protein Fatty acids
e. Fat Amino acids

A

a. Carbohydrate Glucose

44
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Bulk flow increases when the pressure gradient and resistance are
increased
b. For the lower respiratory tract, resistance at the level of the trachea is the
lowest due to the large radius of the airway
c. Oxygen is 20 times more soluble in water than carbon dioxide
d. During inspiration, the lung volume increases and as a consequence
pressure in the alveoli will increase
e. At high altitudes, there are less gas molecules in a given volume so air
pressure decreases

A

e. At high altitudes, there are less gas molecules in a given volume so air
pressure decreases

45
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT?
a. Reptiles do not use their intercostal muscles to breath which is why when
they are running that respiration is not affected.
b. Gas exchange in birds is similar to mammals and occurs in the alveoli.
c. Surfactant lowers the surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their
collapse.
d. The lungs of the frog have a very large surface area to facilitate transfer
of oxygen.
e. The avian respiratory system is very efficient as gas exchange can occur
in the air sacs and lungs.

A

c. Surfactant lowers the surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their
collapse.

46
Q

The smallest airways in the conducting zone are _________ .

a. Terminal bronchioles
b. Respiratory bronchioles
c. Alveolar ducts
d. Alveolar sacs
e. Bronchi

A

a. Terminal bronchioles

47
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT about respiration.
a. During inspiration the alveolar pressure is the same as the atmospheric
pressure.
b. During inspiration the alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric
pressure.
c. During expiration the alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric
pressure.
d. During quiet expiration the intrapleural pressure is greater than
atmospheric pressure.
e. During forced expiration the intrapleural pressure is less than
atmospheric pressure.

A

c. During expiration the alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric
pressure.

48
Q

A person is running fast to catch a bus. Which muscles are contracting
during expiration?
a. None. Expiration occurs passively.
b. The internal and external intercostal muscles.
c. The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles.
d. The diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
e. The internal intercostal and abdominal muscles.

A

e. The internal intercostal and abdominal muscles.

49
Q 
The surface tension of the alveolus is reduced by the surfactants produced
by the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ cells?
a. Ciliated
b. Goblet
c. Type I alveolar
d. Type II alveolar
e. Type III alveolar
A

d. Type II alveolar

50
Q

Which ONE of the following statements regarding the respiratory system is
CORRECT?
a. The least amount of resistance in the respiratory tract is located in the
trachea
b. The bronchioles contain large amounts of smooth muscle which can
dilate when an animal is stressed to improve airflow
c. The respiratory zone consists of the alveoli, bronchioles and bronchi
d. Cilia, which help to remove small particulate matter, are located in the
alveoli, bronchioles, and bronchi
e. Surfactant is produced by goblet cells in the alveoli to make the lungs
more compliant

A

b. The bronchioles contain large amounts of smooth muscle which can
dilate when an animal is stressed to improve airflow

51
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT of hypoventilation.

a. Arterial PO2 is increased above normal levels.
b. Arterial PCO2 is increased above normal levels.
c. Hypoventilation causes the pH of blood to increase.
d. Alveolar ventilation exceeds tissue demands.
e. Commonly occurs in conditions of anxiety and fever.

A

b. Arterial PCO2 is increased above normal levels.

52
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT of gas transportation in blood.
a. Oxygen is well dissolved in blood.
b. Carbon monoxide binds to a separate location on haemoglobin to oxygen
and therefore does not interfere with oxygen transportation in blood.
c. Carbon dioxide is predominantly transported in blood bound to
haemoglobin
d. Carbon dioxide is predominantly directly dissolved in the blood for
transportation.
e. Carbon dioxide is predominantly transported in blood as bicarbonate.

A

e. Carbon dioxide is predominantly transported in blood as bicarbonate.

53
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT of acid base status in response to
changes in the respiratory system.
a. Hypoventilation decreases CO2 concentration in the blood and leads to
increased H+ and acidosis.
b. Hypoventilation increases CO2 concentration in the blood and leads to
increased H+ and acidosis.
c. Hypoventilation increases O2 concentration in the blood and leads to
increased H+ and acidosis.
d. Hyperventilation decreases CO2 concentration in the blood and leads to
increased H+ and acidosis.
e. Hyperventilation increases CO2 concentration in the blood and leads to
decreased H+ and alakalosis.

A

b. Hypoventilation increases CO2 concentration in the blood and leads to
increased H+ and acidosis.

54
Q

Which of the following is NOT evidence for evolution?

a. Existing species show genetic variation (for selection to work on)
b. Fossil remains show different assemblages of species over time
c. Imperfection (the ‘scars’ of evolution)
d. New species can be ‘transitional forms’
e. Taxonomy and nomenclature

A

e. Taxonomy and nomenclature

55
Q

. Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution?

a. Similar morphology in three lineages of nectar-feeding birds
b. Large tusks in African elephants
c. Reduction in the size of homs in male bighorn sheep
d. Galapagos finches
e. Longer legs in cane toads at an invasion front

A

d. Galapagos finches

56
Q

Allen’s rule states that __________ .
a. Homoeothermic animals from higher altitudes and latitudes, or bred at
lower temperatures, tend to be larger,
b. Surface-to-volume ratio decreases for larger objects; smaller objects
lose heat faster as a consequence.
c. The size of extremities (limbs, tail, ear, etc.) increases from colder to
warmer climates in the same species or in closely related species.
d. Bone remodelling occurs in response to intermittent stress.
e. Dwarfing occurs over time when animal populations experience a
restriction in territorial size.

A

c. The size of extremities (limbs, tail, ear, etc.) increases from colder to
warmer climates in the same species or in closely related species.

57
Q

Which of the following is the BEST explanation for island dwarfism?

a. Adaptive radiation
b. Freedom from predation
c. Lack of competition for resources
d. Lack of food resources
e. Selection on higher basal metabolic rate

A

d. Lack of food resources

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