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[OS 211] E3 > 2017 > Flashcards

2017 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The most common neurodegenerative dementia worldwide is:
    a. vascular dementia
    b. Alzheimer disease
    c. normal pressure hydrocephalus
    d. Lewy body dementia
A

B

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2
Q
  1. Neuropathologic findings in Alzheimer disease include:
    a. neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques
    b. alpha synuclein protein
    c. prion proteins
    d. CAG trinucleotide repeats
A

A

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3
Q
  1. Frontotemporal dementia often occurs in those less than 60 years old and presents initially as
    a. Behavioral or personality changes
    b. Parkinsonism
    c. Ataxic gait
    d. Visual hallucination
A

A

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4
Q
  1. Lewy Body Dementia has the following core features
    a. Visual hallucination
    b. Parkinsonism
    c. Fluctuation in attention and cognition
    d. All of the above
A

D

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5
Q
  1. Tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia are hallmarks of
    a. Parkinsonism
    b. Vascular dementia
    c. Lewy Body dementia
    d. Wilson’s disease
A

A

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6
Q
  1. The triad of ataxia, incontinence and progressive dementia:
    a. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
    b. Corticobasal ganglionic degeneration
    c. Progressive supranuclear palsy
    d. Wilson’s disease
A

A

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7
Q
  1. Progressive supranuclear palsy has:
    a. Progressive midbrain atrophy producing loss of balance, slurring of speech and vertical gaze difficulties
    b. Urinary incontinence, memory loss, ataxic gait
    c. Progressing dementia
    d. Parkinsonism and fluctuation in memory and cognition
A

A

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8
Q
  1. Huntington disease is:
    a. Autosomal recessive
    b. X-linked
    c. Sporadic
    d. Autosomal dominant
A

D

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9
Q
  1. Dementia that characteristically involves autonomic dysfunction (orthostatic hypotension and incontinence)
    a. Huntington disease
    b. Multiple system atrophy
    c. Corticobasal ganglionic degeneration
    d. Parkinson’s disease
A

B

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10
Q
  1. Most common prion disease accountable for rapidly progressing dementia over a few months:
    a. Huntington disease
    b. Multiple system atrophy
    c. Corticobasal ganglionic degeneration
    d. Creutzfeldt Jakob disease
A

D

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11
Q
  1. The most common type of hallucination is
    a. Visual
    b. Auditory
    c. Tactile
    d. Olfactory
A

B

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12
Q
  1. This type of schizophrenia is characterized by preoccupation with one or more delusions or frequent auditory hallucinations
    a. Paranoid
    b. Catatonic
    c. Disorganized
    d. Undifferentiated
A

A

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13
Q
  1. This classic feature of this type of schizophrenia is a marked disturbance in motor function
    a. Paranoid
    b. Catatonic
    c. Disorganized
    d. Undifferentiated
A

B

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14
Q
  1. This type of schizophrenia is characterized by a marked regression to primitive and disinhibited behavior without a marked disturbance in motor function.
    a. Paranoid
    b. Catatonic
    c. Disorganized
    d. Undifferentiated
A

C

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15
Q
  1. The appropriate diagnosis when psychotic symptoms have lasted at least 1 day but less than 1 month and when the patient has not returned to the premorbid state of functioning within that time is
    a. Brief psychotic disorder
    b. Schizoaffective disorder
    c. Schizophreniform disorder
    d. Delusional disorder
A

A

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16
Q
  1. The lifetime risk of developing schizophrenia among dual mating of patients with schizophrenia is
    a. 30 to 35%
    b. 40 to 45%
    c. 50 to 55%
    d. 60 to 65%
A

B

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17
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter most associated with schizophrenia is
    a. serotonin
    b. norepinephrine
    c. dopamine
    d. GABA
A

C

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18
Q
  1. In families with high levels of expressed emotion, the
    a. incidence rate for schizophrenia is high
    b. prevalence rate for schizophrenia is high
    c. relapse rate for schizophrenia is high
    d. speech rate for schizophrenia is high
A

C

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19
Q
  1. Anxiety is a response to
    a. a known, external, definite, or nonconflictual threat
    b. a known, internal, definite, or nonconflictual threat
    c. an unknown, external, vague or conflictual threat
    d. an unknown, internal, vague or conflictual threat
A

D

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20
Q
  1. The three major neurotransmitters associated with anxiety are:
    a. norepinephrine, serotonin, GABA
    b. norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine
    c. neuropeptide, serotonin, GABA
    d. norepinephrine, dopamine, GABA
A

A

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21
Q
  1. The activity of GABAergic neurons is
    a. decreased in general anxiety disorder
    b. increased in general anxiety disorder
    c. enhanced by SSRI’s
    d. diminished by SSRI’s
A

A

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22
Q
  1. Propranolol has been found useful for symptoms of heightened arousal in anxiety due to its effect on
    a. dopamine
    b. norepinephrine
    c. serotonin
    d. GABA
A

B

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23
Q
  1. Benzodiazepine have been found useful for symptoms of anxiety due to its effect on
    a. dopamine
    b. norepinephrine
    c. serotonin
    d. GABA
A

D

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24
Q
  1. Patients with agoraphobia rigidly avoids situations in which they will
    a. have difficulty obtaining help
    b. have difficulty obtaining water
    c. be in high places
    d. be in small places
A

A

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25
Q
  1. Anxiety disorders have a 12-month prevalence rate of
    a. 17.7%
    b. 19.2%
    c. 24.9%
    d. 30.5%
A

A

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26
Q
  1. Symptoms of acute stress disorder last for
    a. a maximum of 2 days
    b. a maximum of 4 weeks
    c. a maximum of 2 months
    d. a maximum of 6 months
A

B

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27
Q
  1. A 17-year old male jumps out of the window because he thinks he is Superman and will not be harmed. This symptom is:
    a. hallucination
    b. depersonalization
    c. delusion
    d. psychosis
    e. neurosis
A

C

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28
Q
  1. A score of 0 in Axis V means:
    a. Poorest level of functioning
    b. Most psychotic
    c. unable to work and socialize
    d. uncommunicative
    e. inadequate information
A

E

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29
Q
  1. A child has an IQ of 110, but he has poor adjustment and is unhappy. Based on the information given, he is normal based on this concept of normality:
    a. average
    b. health
    c. utopia
    d. process
A

A

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30
Q
  1. The absence of insight in the presence of intact reality testing is seen in:
    a. mental retardation
    b. psychosis
    c. personality disorder
    d. substance abuse
    e. neurosis
A

C

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31
Q
  1. When a patient says, “Doc, I need help. I think I am going crazy.” He is manifesting: (note: best choice)
    a. intact reality testing
    b. good insight
    c. good orientation
    d. good cognitive ability
    e. good doctor-patient relationship
A

B

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is included in DSM IV axis II?
    a. psychosocial problems
    b. general medical illness
    c. clinical disorder
    d. mental retardation
    e. global assessment of functioning
A

D

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33
Q
  1. Charisse was brought by her mother to a psychiatrist yesterday. Which of the following obtained from the history is most important:
    a. sleeping at 3 AM since 3 years ago
    b. angry and not talking to friends since a month ago
    c. talking to self before the mirror since she was 3 years
    d. believes in reincarnation
    e. says there is nothing wrong with her
A

A

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34
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a disturbance in thinking:
    a. looseness of association
    b. compulsion
    c. delusion
    d. blocking
    e. phobia
A

B

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35
Q
  1. Which dopamine pathway is overactive in patients with psychosis?
    a. mesocortical
    b. mesolimbic
    c. nigrostriatal
    d. tuberoinfundibular
A

B

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36
Q
  1. An example of a dopamine-serotonin antagonist:
    a. amisulpride
    b. aripirazole
    c. haloperidol
    d. risperidone
A

D

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37
Q
  1. An antidepressant which works by disinhibiting release of norepinephrine and serotonin
    a. duloxetine
    b. fluoxetine
    c. mirtazapine
    d. trimipramine
A

C

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38
Q
  1. Which class of antidepressant does not block monoamine reuptake?
    a. MAOI
    b. SNRI
    c. SSRI
    d. TCA
A

A

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39
Q
  1. A mood stabilizer with evidence of efficacy for both manic and depressive phases of bipolar disorder:
    a. carbamazepine
    b. lamotrigine
    c. lithium carbonate
    d. valproic acid
A

C

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following has no evidence of efficacy for bipolar disorders
    a. anticonvulsants
    b. antidepressants
    c. antipsychotics
    d. lithium
A

B

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41
Q
  1. A short-acting, non-benzodiazepine hypnotic:
    a. calcium
    b. diazepam
    c. lorazepam
    d. zolpidem
A

D

42
Q
  1. Inflow of this ion into the cell is facilitated with benzodiazepines:
    a. calcium
    b. chloride
    c. magnesium
    d. potassium
A

B

43
Q
  1. Dolores, the patient in the film clip, exhibited the following symptoms during the interview
    a. looseness of association
    b. flight of ideas
    c. depressed effect
    d. all of the above
A

A

44
Q
  1. Dolores exhibited which of the speech disturbance?
    a. verbigeration
    b. incoherence
    c. word salad
    d. accelerated speech
A

D

45
Q
  1. Based on the interview, Dolores, most likely has impairment of the which mental status apparatus?
    a. id
    b. superego
    c. synthetic ego
    d. executive ego
A

C

46
Q
  1. If Dolores is confined in ward 7 of PGH, during milieu therapy, the team should address rebuilding/recovery of which of the following?
    a. executive ego
    b. synthetic ego
    c. self-confidence
    d. superego
A

B

47
Q
  1. Dolores was interviewed by LU 4 students. The students taught her how to write with a pencil. During this activity, the students appealed to which of the following mental status apparatus?
    a. executive ego
    b. synthetic ego
    c. superego
    d. frontal lobe
A

A

48
Q
  1. Dolores has problem focusing and with her attention span. Which part of the brain most likely is impaired with this kind of problem?
    a. deep limbic system
    b. temporal lobe
    c. prefrontal cortex
    d. cingulate
A

C

49
Q
  1. It is said to be the center of motivation
    a. deep limbic system
    b. temporal lobe
    c. prefrontal cortex
    d. cingulate
A

C

50
Q
  1. A 24 year old diabetic female diagnosed to have borderline personality disorder has micropsychotic episodes. What will be your choice of medication?
    a. olanzapine
    b. sertradine
    c. risperidone
    d. quetiapine
A

C

51
Q
  1. Which of the following personality disorders occurs more often in the family histories of persons with schizophrenia?
    a. avoidant personality disorder
    b. schizotypal personality disorder
    c. paranoid personality disorder
    d. schizoid personality disorder
A

B

52
Q
  1. This disorder is commonly associated with alcohol use disorders
    a. antisocial personality disorder
    b. borderline personality disorder
    c. schizoid personality disorder
    d. dependent personality disorder
A

A

53
Q
  1. A strong association is found between disorder and somatization disorder
    a. borderline personality disorder
    b. schizoid personality disorder
    c. narcissistic personality disorder
    d. histrionic personality disorder
A

D

54
Q
  1. Smooth pursuit eye movements are abnormal in patients with this type of personality disorder?
    a. schizotypal personality disorder
    b. borderline personality disorder
    c. histrionic personality disorder
    d. narcissistic personality disorder
A

A

55
Q
  1. Which of the following disorders is closely associated with patients having borderline personality disorder?
    a. somatoform disorders
    b. anxiety disorders
    c. psychotic disorders
    d. mood disorders
A

D

56
Q
  1. A 24 year old female patient divides ambivalently regarded people both past and present into all good and all bad. This is often utilized and associated with which type of personality disorders?
    a. paranoid personality disorder
    b. borderline personality disorder
    c. antisocial personality disorder
    d. schizoid personality disorder
A

B

57
Q
  1. Patient with histrionic personality disorder develops depression. Which of the following therapies could best suit the patient’s condition?
    a. cognitive therapy
    b. supportive therapy
    c. family therapy
    d. psychoanalysis
A

A

58
Q
  1. Psychological reactions to disease:
    a. is pathological
    b. increased cortisol
    c. decreased immune response
    d. vague apprehension
A

D

59
Q
  1. Psychological ways in which individuals react to the stress of illness
    a. carry on as if everything is normal
    b. mastering knowledge about the illness
    c. A and B
    d. None of the above
A

C

60
Q
  1. A person’s psychological reactions to medical illness are determined by
    a. Patient’s fashion style
    b. Nature and severity of patient’s illness
    c. Doctor’s and nurse’s response
    d. Caregiver’s reactions to illness
A

B

61
Q
  1. Denial of the severity of the illness:
    a. most helpful
    b. the opposite of anger
    c. initial psychological reaction
    d. means consciously not listening to the doctor’s explanation
A

C

62
Q
  1. Hospitalization precipitates fear of separation from loved ones
    a. So a good doctor should appreciate the need to establish rapport with patients
    b. So only doctors that are personally known to the patient are effective.
    c. So separate pediatric patients from adult patients
    d. So visitors are a nuisance
A

A

63
Q
  1. Developmental fears stimulated by hospitalization:
    a. Of losing money
    b. Fear of mortality
    c. Of being independent
    d. Of losing your job
A

B

64
Q
  1. All doctors need to appreciate psychological reactions to medical illness because
    a. doctors should not be psychologically minded
    b. psychological reactions are a nuisance
    c. psychological reactions can increase morbidity
    d. medical illness evoke purely physiological reactions
A

C

65
Q
  1. Denial of illness
    a. is not normal
    b. is adaptive
    c. is not healthy
    d. facilitates early treatment
A

B

66
Q
  1. Delirium
    a. rarely has associated neurological symptoms
    b. generally causes a diffuse slowing of brain activity in an electroencephalogram
    c. generally has an underlying cause residing on the central nervous system
    d. may be successfully treated with lithium
A

B

67
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the clinical differentiation of delirium and dementia is not true?
    a. The onset of delirium is sudden.
    b. The duration of delirium is usually less than one month.
    c. Symptoms worsen at night in delirium.
    d. Visual hallucination and treatment delusions are more common in dementia.
A

D

68
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the differentiation of delirium from other conditions or disorders is not true?
    a. laboratory studies are important.
    b. Preexisting dementia increases the risk for delirium.
    c. Psychotic symptoms of delirium are not distinguishable from those of other psychotic disorders.
    d. The inability to focus and shift attention is important in the differentiation of diagnosis process.
A

C

69
Q

For questions 69-71, consider the following case.
You are asked to evaluate a patient in the intensive care unit. The patient is a 28-year old man who developed malignant hypertension, and he was rushed to the hospital after having been found comatose by his family. Now he is in full restraints, is unresponsive to verbal stimuli, is highly agitated, and tugs at his intravenous line. He does not have a nasogastric tube and he is not intubated. His attending physician is concerned that his agitation and inability to cooperate will compromise his care. He is suspected of having cerebral edema. The attending physician is also concerned that the patient may have suffered renal damage and may require dialysis. Prior to the patient’s illness, he was a promising lawyer at a prestigious law firm. He is married to a physician and they have a 4-year old son.

  1. Which of the following disorders may most likely explain the patient’s behavioral symptoms?
    a. schizophrenia
    b. delirium
    c. depression
    d. dementia
A

B

70
Q

For questions 69-71, consider the following case.
You are asked to evaluate a patient in the intensive care unit. The patient is a 28-year old man who developed malignant hypertension, and he was rushed to the hospital after having been found comatose by his family. Now he is in full restraints, is unresponsive to verbal stimuli, is highly agitated, and tugs at his intravenous line. He does not have a nasogastric tube and he is not intubated. His attending physician is concerned that his agitation and inability to cooperate will compromise his care. He is suspected of having cerebral edema. The attending physician is also concerned that the patient may have suffered renal damage and may require dialysis. Prior to the patient’s illness, he was a promising lawyer at a prestigious law firm. He is married to a physician and they have a 4-year old son.

  1. Which of the following is not a potential long-term ??? (medyo malabo yung picture) for this patient?
    a. anger and resentment about the need for dialysis
    b. regression due to his medical condition
    c. sexual dysfunction due to antihypertensive medication
    d. serious psychiatric illness such as schizophrenia
A

D

71
Q

For questions 69-71, consider the following case.
You are asked to evaluate a patient in the intensive care unit. The patient is a 28-year old man who developed malignant hypertension, and he was rushed to the hospital after having been found comatose by his family. Now he is in full restraints, is unresponsive to verbal stimuli, is highly agitated, and tugs at his intravenous line. He does not have a nasogastric tube and he is not intubated. His attending physician is concerned that his agitation and inability to cooperate will compromise his care. He is suspected of having cerebral edema. The attending physician is also concerned that the patient may have suffered renal damage and may require dialysis. Prior to the patient’s illness, he was a promising lawyer at a prestigious law firm. He is married to a physician and they have a 4-year old son.

  1. The most likely cause this patient’s condition is
    a. decreased dopaminergic activity in the brain
    b. increased oxygen radicals
    c. increased GABAergic activity in the brain
    d. decreased cholinergic activity in the brain
A

D

72
Q

For questions 72-73, consider the following case.
You are asked to see a patient who is being treated by a thoracic surgery colleague. The patient is a 59-year old man who has been hospitalized for the past 10 days for evaluation and irradiation of his esophageal carcinoma. Yesterday, his behavior changed from that of his usual affable character. Your exam reveals that he is hyper-alert, he picks purposelessly at the bed sheets and seems to be experiencing visual hallucinations. A review of his chart reveals that he has received 2-3 doses of hydromorphine, a narcotic analgesic, on his first day in the hospital.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. brain metastases
    b. dementia due to vitamin B12 deficiency
    c. alcohol withdrawal
    d. delirium
A

D

73
Q

For questions 72-73, consider the following case.
You are asked to see a patient who is being treated by a thoracic surgery colleague. The patient is a 59-year old man who has been hospitalized for the past 10 days for evaluation and irradiation of his esophageal carcinoma. Yesterday, his behavior changed from that of his usual affable character. Your exam reveals that he is hyper-alert, he picks purposelessly at the bed sheets and seems to be experiencing visual hallucinations. A review of his chart reveals that he has received 2-3 doses of hydromorphine, a narcotic analgesic, on his first day in the hospital.

  1. The drug of choice to treat this patient is:
    a. chlorpromazine
    b. diazepam
    c. fluphemazine
    d. risperidone
A

D

74
Q
  1. During rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
    a. electroencephalographic (EEG) ??? allow high-amplitude delta waves
    b. EEG patterns show K-complexes and sleep ???
    c. short-term memory is converted to long-term memory
    d. blood pressure and heart rate reach their lowest ???
A

C

75
Q
  1. Sleep spindles and K-complexes are EEG-patterns that occur during
    a. REM sleep
    b. Stage 1 sleep
    c. Stage 2 sleep
    d. Stages 3 & 4 sleep
A

C

76
Q
  1. Majority of the time spent sleeping is in
    a. REM sleep
    b. Stage 1 sleep
    c. Stage 2 sleep
    d. Stage 3 & 4 sleep
A

C

77
Q
  1. Melatonin initiates the process of sleep. It is released by the
    a. hypothalamus
    b. suprachiasmatic nucleus
    c. retina
    d. pineal gland
A

D

78
Q
  1. The master clock of the brain that regulates the sleep-wake cycle resides in the
    a. hypothalamus
    b. suprachiasmatic nucleus
    c. retina
    d. pineal gland
A

B

79
Q

For questions 79-81, consider the following case.
A 25-year old call center agent complains of drowsiness during the day and interrupted sleep for 4 weeks now. In the past 2 months he has been experiencing various body aches, poor appetite, abdominal discomfort & diminished interest in his usual activities such as playing basketball and surfing the Internet. He is facing impending termination from his job because of frequent absences & poor work performance. 3 months ago, his girlfriend of 5 years broke up with him unceremoniously. He felt a deep sense of betrayal so that, in the days that followed, he wrestled with overwhelming gloominess and saw his life as meaningless and devoid of hope. Oftentimes, he thought of using his father’s gun to end his life.

  1. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
    a. primary insomnia
    b. major depressive disorder
    c. panic disorder without agoraphobia
    d. pain disorder
A

B

80
Q

For questions 79-81, consider the following case.
A 25-year old call center agent complains of drowsiness during the day and interrupted sleep for 4 weeks now. In the past 2 months he has been experiencing various body aches, poor appetite, abdominal discomfort & diminished interest in his usual activities such as playing basketball and surfing the Internet. He is facing impending termination from his job because of frequent absences & poor work performance. 3 months ago, his girlfriend of 5 years broke up with him unceremoniously. He felt a deep sense of betrayal so that, in the days that followed, he wrestled with overwhelming gloominess and saw his life as meaningless and devoid of hope. Oftentimes, he thought of using his father’s gun to end his life.

  1. What factor most likely contributed to this patient’s condition?
    a. his uninterrupted sleep
    b. his uncontrollable use of the Internet
    c. his feeling of betrayal by his girlfriend
    d. his work schedule
A

C

81
Q

For questions 79-81, consider the following case.
A 25-year old call center agent complains of drowsiness during the day and interrupted sleep for 4 weeks now. In the past 2 months he has been experiencing various body aches, poor appetite, abdominal discomfort & diminished interest in his usual activities such as playing basketball and surfing the Internet. He is facing impending termination from his job because of frequent absences & poor work performance. 3 months ago, his girlfriend of 5 years broke up with him unceremoniously. He felt a deep sense of betrayal so that, in the days that followed, he wrestled with overwhelming gloominess and saw his life as meaningless and devoid of hope. Oftentimes, he thought of using his father’s gun to end his life.

  1. What pharmacological intervention would you recommend for this patient?
    a. prescribe a benzodiazepine
    b. prescribe an antihistamine
    c. prescribe an antidepressant
    d. prescribe a novel benzodiazepine
A

C

82
Q
  1. The most common dissociative disorder is:
    a. dissociative dementia
    b. dissociative fugue
    c. dissociative identity
    d. dissociative amnesia
A

D

83
Q
  1. What is the sick role?
    a. Being stoical or dramatic
    b. Role that society ascribes to people when they are ill
    c. How symptoms are perceived, evaluated and acted upon
    d. Behavior of the individual who is sick
A

B

84
Q
  1. Powerful inactivity in coping with the sick role signifies what type of personality?
    a. passive-aggressive
    b. dependent
    c. masochist
    d. obsessive-compulsive
A

A

85
Q
  1. Patients who are masochists would show this illness behavior
    a. sensitive to fluctuations in the availability of gratification from others
    b. power is exerted not by what the patient does but by what they refuse, forget, omit to do
    c. grow up to become compulsive carers
    d. feel that the suffering and pain resulting from illness and treatment provide relief from feelings of guilt
A

D

86
Q
  1. The DSM-IV-TR criteria for somatization disorder include the following except:
    a. 4 pain symptoms
    b. 1 sexual symptom
    c. 1 neurologic symptom
    d. 2 GIT symptoms
A

C

87
Q
  1. A 57-year-old woman presented dramatically to her general practitioner in a state of agitation, complaining of headache and dizziness, and convinced that she had a brain tumor. She settled temporarily after PE, reassurance and the help of anxiolytic medication. Her mother had recently died of cancer. Two brothers and one niece had also died of cancer, and her daughter had survived cancer. In the preceding month, her 2 unmarried daughter had told her that they were planning to leave home. What could she have?
    a. somatization disorder
    b. pain disorder
    c. hypochondriasis
    d. conversion disorder
A

C

88
Q
  1. A 45-year-old woman with a history of intermittent asthma since her teenage years developed more severe and more frequent attacks. History revealed separation and increasing hostility between herself and her husband. What seems to be her diagnosis?
    a. pscyhological factors affecting a medical condition
    b. factitious disorder
    c. conversion disorder
    d. malingering
A

A

89
Q
  1. A 35-year-old lawyer had been having strange “attacks” about once a month for several years. An “attack” was usually heralded by a sudden feeling of nervousness that his heart was pounding. This was followed by the experience that all objects in his visual field had diminished to about half their normal size and by the perception that people’s actions took on a mechanical, jerky character, “as in silent movies”. These symptoms would be accompanied by the experience that he had become someone else. (“I don’t know who, but not myself”). Recently, while driving his car, an “attack” occurred and he perceived that his arms had become detached from his body and continued to steer the car “on their own”. What could he be suffering from?
    a. depersonalization disorder
    b. dissociative fugue
    c. dissociative identity
    d. dissociative amnesia
A

A

90
Q
  1. Dissociative identity disorder was previously called
    a. trance disorder
    b. multiple personality disorder
    c. possession disorder
    d. dementia precox
A

B

91
Q
  1. According to DSM-IV-TR, what is the essential feature of the dissociative disorders?
    a. A disruption in the usually integrated functions of consciousness, memory, identity or perception of the environment.
    b. Inability to recall important personal information
    c. Persistent feeling of detachment or estrangement from one’s self
    d. Presence of two or more personality states that recurrently take control of a person’s behavior
A

A

92
Q
  1. Ganser Syndrome involves which of the following symptoms?
    a. Complete or partial loss of the ability to perform movements that are normally under voluntary control
    b. Temporary alteration of the state of consciousness by the loss of usual sense of personal identity
    c. Paralogia with a clouding of consciousness
    d. An individual feels taken over by a spirit or power
A

C

93
Q
  1. A patient presents with symptoms consistent with a Major Depressive Disorder Episode. Which of the following conditions can be considered a differential?
    a. Major Depressive Disorder
    b. Bipolar I Disorder
    c. Bipolar II Disorder
    d. All of the above
A

D

94
Q
  1. Which of the following presentations meet the criteria of a major depressive episode?
    a. Anhedonia, hypersomnia, lethargy, feeling of hopelessness and weight gain
    b. Weight loss, insomnia, feeling of excessive guilt, indecisiveness, suicidal ideations
    c. Psychomotor agitation, insomnia, weight loss, diminished ability to concentrate, fatigue
    d. Depressed mood, insomnia, and weight loss
A

A

95
Q
  1. Which of the following is a possible psychodynamic understanding of depression?
    a. repressed anger
    b. reexperiencing of a traumatic event when patient felt helpless
    c. loss of self-esteem because specific needs of the child for validation and role modeling were not met by parents
    d. signal for conflicts between id and superego
A

C

96
Q
  1. Which of the following form the cognitive triad?
    a. belief about oneself, the world and others
    b. belief about oneself, the future and the world
    c. belief about the world, other people and their opinions
    d. belief about onself, expectations of others and his ability to achieve the expectations
A

B

97
Q
  1. Which of the following statements are true about mood disorders?
    a. Mood disorders are the most common group of psychiatric disorders
    b. Males and females have the same chances of developing depression
    c. Antidepressants can cause a switch to mania in bipolar patients
    d. Mood disorders are caused by hypoactive functioning of specific brain circuits
A

C

98
Q
  1. Which of the following is an acute goal in the psychiatric management of a manic episode?
    a. Enhancement of treatment adherence
    b. Prevent relapses
    c. Management of functional impairments
    d. Ensure safety of patient and other people around them
A

D

99
Q
  1. Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of action of anticonvulsants as mood stabilizers?
    a. Increase activity of glutamate
    b. Increase activity of GABA
    c. Decrease activity of GABA
    d. Modulate the effects of GABA and glutamate
A

B

100
Q
  1. Which of the following statements can be an effective psychotherapeutic maneuver for depression?
    a. Increasing a patient’s sense of mastery and control over his environment
    b. Identification and correction of autonomic thoughts and underlying schemas
    c. Decreasing the gap between expectations and achievement
    d. All of the above
A

D

[OS 211] E3 (2 decks)

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