2017 Flashcards
(315 cards)
1
Q
How many days can an open bottle of a drug be used?
A
28 days.
2
Q
ø allowed for food producing animals?
A
Chloramphenicol.
3
Q
Tetracyclins are very active against?
A
Borreliosis.
4
Q
Which is the method of preservation of resistance to coccidia in chicken?
( Rotation + Shuffle program).
A
Both of them.
5
Q
Mechanism of action pyrethroid insecticide?
A
Inhibition of Na channels.
6
Q
The side effects of this drug on the cardiovascular system may be…. cause transient hypertension, then bradycardia + hypotension:
A
Medetomidine.
7
Q
Procaine- benzypenicilin is ineffective against?
A
P. aeruginosa.
8
Q
This phase of drug research procedures does ø fall into the “ preclinical” examination category:
A
Pharmacovigiliance.
9
Q
It’s micro emulsion formulation is highly susceptible for bacterial contamination:
A
Propofol.
10
Q
Ectoparasitic with repellent activity:
A
Pyrethroids.
11
Q
Which of the followings is Phase II metabolism enzyme?
A
Glutathione-S-Transferase.
12
Q
Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
A
Glycerine.
13
Q
Which kind of effects can be expected when using ointments?
A
Both local + systemic effect.
14
Q
Anticoccidials alternating within 1 raising period of broilers:
A
Shuffle program.
15
Q
The most potent glucocorticoid of these 4 is:
A
Flumethason.
16
Q
Inappropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli + Salmonella:
A
Bacitracin.
17
Q
When applied as an ear dp this drug is active in otitis externa caused by P. aeruginosa:
A
Polymixin-B.
18
Q
The pain inducing source of Sigmund test?
A
1% acetic acid.
19
Q
….. laxative drug can lead to the paralysis of the mesenteric plexus:
A
Bisacodyl.
20
Q
…..treating fungal infection of the cornea, it is a non irritant of the eye:
A
Natamycin.
21
Q
Divalent Ionophor coccidiostat drug?
A
Lasalocid.
22
Q
Which drug is used for the treatment of infections caused by anaerobic bacteria (e.g foot rot):
A
Lincomycin.
23
Q
Which of the following information is ø included in the European Pharmacopeia?
A
Side effects of drug.
24
Q
Pregnant females + those with asthma should wear protective gloves during the administration of:
A
Dinoprost.
25
It can provide super ovulation in donor cows during the embryo transfer:
ECG (FMSG).
26
PO usual dosage of Cefalexin:
15mg/kg daily x2.
27
When using classic neuroleptanalgesia the following substances are applied:
Tranquilizer + Opiate.
28
Dosages of Ketamine in cats:
20mg/kg IM.
29
The lowest man-power requirement is during the int mass-treatment by an application of:
Medicated H2O.
30
Non H20 soluble vehicles?
| Polysorbate, Methylcellulose
NONE.
31
ø active against Chlamidophilia:
Amoxicillin- Clavulinic acid.
32
Which of the following is characteristics for creams?
Higher H20 content.
33
How many grps can medical substances be classified based on MRL-value ( earlier annex):
4.
34
Excellent substance for the treatment of E.coli meningitis:
Ceftriaxon.
35
Which of the following is the approved name of the drug?
Amoxicillin.
36
Even together with this drug when do you expect pharmacodynamics interaction with gentamicin:
Diazepam.
37
Which drug can be used in foals for the treatment of R.equi?
Erythromycin.
38
An osmotic laxative drug, but also used for the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy:
Lactulose.
39
It can be administered for the control of heart + voluntary m. degeneration:
Vit E.
40
When applying this anesthetic alone, m. relaxation + total unconsciousness CANNOT be achieved in the animal:
Ketamine.
41
This drug is ø preferred for treatment of cats:
Diphenoxilate.
42
Vehicle of licking stones which may have growth-promoting abilities in Ru:
Bentonite.
43
This is obligatory for obtaining S2 + S3 drugs for use by a Vet in Vets own practice:
Legislation on requisition ( Written requisition).
44
H2O soluble Vit, with pronounced neuroprotective action:
Vit B1.
45
The adhesive of granules can be:
Distilled H2O.
46
Besides Babesiosis it's other indication is anaplasmosis:
Imidocarb diproprionate.
47
Which is characteristic to thiopental?
induces total unconsciousness for a very short time.
48
Which one cannot be an attribute of suppositories?
ø dissolve at body temp.
49
The Ab in this gp disrupt the bacterial cell membrane, and they represent very fast bactericidal action (4º NH4 disinfectant " tenside" like action):
Polimyxins.
50
Among the listed macrolides this one has cardiotoxic effect (e.g in goats):
Tilmicosin.
51
Dosage of Metamisole Na (Noraminophenasone) in SA:
20- 50mg/BW Kg IV/IM.
52
What is the CD written requisition?
An order form fom a Vet to the pharmacist when S2 + S3 are obtained.
53
In which case do you expect miosis in the eye when applying this drug in an eye?
Pilocarpine.
54
Which drug is useful as a myometrial relaxant?
Clenbuterol.
55
Frequently toxic in collies, causing paralysis in sensitive individuals:
Ivermectin.
56
Injected SC this drug is appropriate for the treatment of Scabies- infestations:
Doramectin.
57
Using an emulsion/ oil-type may lead to life- threatening effect in this route of application:
IV.
58
It's cardiovascular side effects are negligible:
Diazepam.
59
This Ab can be used for the treatment of mastitis caused by penicillinase producing Staphylococcus aureus:
Oxacillin.
60
Can be used for prevention of abortion due to toxoplasmosis in ewes:
Decoquinate.
61
Which compound forms (as by product) in the demethylation reaction of dextromethorphan?
Formaldehyde.
62
This agent inhibits the bacterial folic acid synthesis by inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase:
Sulfadimidine.
63
Among the quinolone COOH derivatives this agent does ø contain fluorine:
Nalidixic acid.
64
Correct dosage of Ionophores:
Maduramycin 5mg/kg feed.
65
IV anaesthetic with the important side effect of adrenocortical suppression:
Etomidate.
66
Which effect is characteristic to phenothiazine tranquilizers?
They have sedative effect.
67
Procarcinogen, which by metabolism in liver, is transformed into a mutagenic + carcinogenic compoun?
Benzpyrene.
68
What is the PK symbol of the theoretical plasma conc max using the intravasal PK model?
C0.
69
This anthelmintic drug is ø safe enough, when it is used concomitantly with cholinesterase inhibitor compounds:
Levamisole.
70
What is the PK symbol of the plasma conc max/steady state after multiple administrations?
Cmaxc.
71
What is the most ulcerogenic agent in dogs?
Diclofenac.
72
Calcitriol decreases the urinary excretion of:
P.
73
This ectoparasitic agent is ø active against ticks:
Imidacloprid.
74
The most important toxicological properties of Gentamicin:
Nephron- + oto-toxic.
75
At which of the below mentioned combinations do you expect the least respiratory depression?
Droperidol + Fentanyl.
76
Which matrices are examined in a residue analysis?
Edible tissues, milk, eggs + honey.
77
In this type of prescription, the proprietary name of a Vet licensed medicine is given:
Prescription of a Vet licensed medecine.
78
A drug licensed for humans + included in Annex 1 + 3 administered to dairy cattle, should have a withdrawal period for milk for:
At least 7 days WP.
79
It is the antidote ( competitive antagonist) of coumarine-type anti-coagulants:
Vit K.
80
What is the 1º choice of Ab in infections, caused by Rickettsia?
Tetracyclines.
81
This is a pro-drug: in practice it is only used against immature liver flukes, particularly inactive against adult flukes + other types of worms:
Diamphenethide.
82
This macrolide Ab can only be applied SC to cattle:
Tilmicosin.
83
IV dosage of Xylazine in EQ:
0.4- 1.1 mg/kg BW.
84
Bacterial susceptibility to certain Ab is usually determined with this method:
Disc diffusion method.
85
Dosage of Ivermectin in Eq:
0.2 mg/kg BW PO.
86
Broad- spectrum anti- fungal drug that is active against yeasts, and dermatophyte alike:
Ketoconazole.
87
It increases the liberation of prolactin hence ø suitable for administration to pseudopregnant animals:
Chlorpromazine.
88
It's important side effects are bradycardia, pronounced respiratory depression + hypotension:
Fentanyl.
89
Usually for mixing these types of drug into the medicated feedstuff, commercial feed compounders, do ø a need a prescription for the medicated feedstuff:
Pharmacy + Merchant List medicines (PML).
90
This anti-emetic drug is an antagonist of neurokinin-1 R in CNS:
Maropitant.
91
Which drug would you use in cats for the prevention of tick-infestation?
Propoxur as a collar.
92
Which term is abbreviated by " MRL-value"?
Max residual drug conc.
93
Sedative that decreases BP, hence cannot administered to seriously dehydrated animals?
Acepromazine.
94
Which active substances can be used as a combination in cats for the treatment of flea-infestation?
Fipronil + Metropen spot- on.
95
Anti-Fungal drug, that is active in the case of dermatomycosis can be teratogenic?
Griseofulvin.
96
This anti-helminthic drug is belonging into grp of Tetrahydropyrimidine:
Morantel.
97
What does the abbreviation GLP stand for?
Good Lab Practice.
98
Dosage of Butorphanol in dogs IM/IV?
0.1- 0.4 mg/kg BW.
99
Used in the eye as an anesthetic:
Tetracaine.
100
Premix prescription:
MFS.
101
What is normally contraindicated with Tiamulin?
Ionophore Ab.
102
Which is the 4th generation Cephalosporin?
Coquinone.
103
Which penicillin administered IM has long DOA?
Penicillin Benzathine.
104
Which endocrine drug has few side effects, but allergy can be one?
HcG.
105
Which drug with long-term use causes mesenteric plexus paralysis?
Aloe.
106
Which one has the least cardiovascular side effect?
Etomidate ( Thiopental).
107
Anti-progesterone:
Aglepristone.
108
Sigmund test, What is used to stimulate pain?
Nail clippers.
109
What is used to measure drug conc in chicken PR?
Spectrophotometry.
110
Combined with Cephalosporins, the nephrotoxic effect of this drug is enhanced:
Gentamicin.
111
Polypeptide Ab, when it is applied in inj it can highly cause neuro- + nephron- toxic:
Colistin sulphate.
112
It's mode of action is coccidiostatic. It is active against 2nd generation schizonts:
Sulfachloropyrazine.
113
Appropriate for the treatment of enteritis caused by E.coli + Salmonellae:
Gentamicin.
114
Mode of action of Lincosamides:
Bacteriostatic.
115
The amoxicillin-clavulinic acid combination is ineffective against:
P. aeruginosa.
116
How did we measure the free Hg content in the in vitro tissue irritation test?
Light absorbance at specific wavelength.
117
In the case of kerato-conjunctiva sicca, this substance applied in an eye dp may enhance tear production:
Procaine.
118
Which is characteristic for polypeptide Ab?
They have bactericidal effect.
119
Which bacterium is highly sensitive to Cephalexine?
Staph. pseudintermedius.
120
This Ab has a very short lasting effect; it has to be applied IV approximately x6/day:
Benzylpenicillin Na.
121
This antiprotozoal drug should be applied in food- producing mammals + birds:
Halofuginone.
122
The lowest manpower requirement is during ext. mass-treatment by application:
Spraying.
123
Among the listed Aminoglycosides this agent is active against P. aeruginosa:
Amikacin.
124
Among the Quinolone COOH drivatives, this agent is important in Vet but is licensed for human use:
Ciprofloxacin.
125
Recommended entry routed for treatment of sick Sus with elevated body temp.:
Medicated H2O or Parenteral treatment.
126
Procaine Benzylpenicillin is ineffective against:
E.coli.
127
What is the main side of blood taking in chicken?
Vena antebrachii.
128
Among the listed Quinolone COOH derivatives, this agent acts against anaerobes:
Pradofloxacin.
129
Which of the listed materials is less sensitive to the presence of organic material remnants?
Tensides.
130
Where should the test material be applied in case of tissue irritation test?
Large m.
131
1st generation Cephalosporins, it cannot be applied orally, in Vet medecine frequently used in intra- mammary infusion:
Cefaprin.
132
Which anticoccidial drug would you use in a rotation program to prevent coccidiosis in broilers?
Monensin-amprolium.
133
Aminoglycoside that is active against Mycoplasma:
Spectinomycin.
134
This macrolide is ø intended for the treatment of young foals:
Tylosin.
135
Frequently occuring active substances in eardrops, eye dp:
Neomycin, Gentamycin.
136
This gp has a very low Therapeutic index. Mammals; above all Eq + dogs are extremely sensitive:
Ionophore Ab.
137
Which of these is a parenteral application route?
| oral, buccal or intra ruminal
None.
138
ß-lactam Ab, which is suitable for the treatment of P. aeruginosa UTI:
Piperacillin tazobactam.
139
ø appropriate for the treatment of mastitis, caused by Penicillinase- producing Staph aureus:
Penethamate.
140
This ionophore Ab is less subject to development of cross-resistance:
Lasalocid.
141
In which animal sp might intra- osseous administration be of high significance?
Chinchilla.
142
Which of the following is the least toxic Aminoglycoside?
Spectinomycin.
143
Imidazole anti-fungal that can be used only locally:
Enilconazole.
144
The Ab in this gp belong to the 30S sub-unit of the bacterial ribosome they interact with protein synthesis:
Aminoglycosides.
145
Anticoccidial with- cidal ( killing) effect:
Monensin.
146
This Ab inhibits the cell wall synthesis of bacteria, due to it's high nephrotoxicity it is used only topically or orally:
Bacitracin Zn.
147
Antifungal drug that is active against Malassezia pachydermatis:
Clotrimazole.
148
Usually which is experimental animal in case of ' hot plate' test:
Mouse.
149
This Ab can penetrate well IC:
Doxycycline.
150
Which Tetracycline would you recommend in an animal with renal failure?
Doxycycline.
151
When used alone as an anticoccidial agent, it can cause heat stress in chickens, hence ø suitable for use in summer months:
Nicarbazin.
152
This anti-mycoplasma agent can be concomitantly used with Monensin:
Tiamulin.
153
This antiseptic is ø used for mammary gl disinfection:
Na hypochloride.
154
In which animal sp might intra- osseous administration a high significance?
Sus.
155
Because of it's PK profile . it is ø recommended for treatment of urinary infections:
Enrofloxacin.
156
What is the right order of listing the parts of the prescription?
Heading, superscription, inscription, subscription.
157
What is the main goal in laying + breeding hens to prevent Coccidiosis?
Development of immunity.
158
Among the listed Ab, which would you choose for the treatment of bite wounds?
Amoxicillin-Clavulanic acid.
159
In which case would you ø use ß2 agonist bronchodilator?
Congestive heart failure.
160
Mass medication is ø recommended in:
Cat.
161
The new solid dosage forms can be prescribed using the following type of prescription:
Licensed.
162
This medecine is used for treating prostatitis:
Potentiated sulphonamide.
163
Which factor has to be eliminated from a poultry farm to decrease the problems caused by Coccidiosis?
Overflow troughs, leaking H2O pipes.
164
What solution was used for the reaction in our PK investigation with chicken?
Naftyl- ethylene diamine ethanol solution.
165
This ACE inhibitor is safe also for patients with hepatic failure:
Lisinopril.
166
This AA has liver-protective activity as well:
Carnitine.
167
Which substance can be used intra-mammary against Penicillinase producing A.aureus?
Cloxacillin.
168
Gels are dosage forms that:
Vehicle is gel of animal/ or other O.
169
Which of the following substances can be used as a vehicle in premixes?
Lucerne meal.
170
It's an AA. In it's absence, the heart m. of cats will be hypertrophic:
Taurine.
171
Dosage of Ramipril in cats + dogs:
0.125mg/kg BW PO.
172
Generally, how often should intra-mammary infusion be administered in case of non-lactation cows?
once.
173
This drug has a narrow therapeutic margin. It's side effects are salivation, vomiting + bronchoconstriction:
Diazinon.
174
What solution was used for diazotization in our PK investigation with chicken?
NaNO3 H20 solution.
175
How long is the tested substance applied to the experimental animals in chronic toxicity studies?
2 yrs.
176
Which has significant anti- Giardia effect as well?
Fenbendazole.
177
H20-soluble Vit, with pronounced skin- protection action:
Vit C.
178
What is the PK symbol of the distribution phase co-efficient in 2 compartment model?
Alpha.
179
Most appropriate method for the extraction of H20-soluble, heat- sensitive substances from medicinal herbs:
Infusion.
180
Long acting Cephalosporin for the treatment of dogs + cats:
Cefovecin.
181
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the accelerated stability of the drug product; what are the appropriate cond?
40ºC, 75% RH, 0-6 months.
182
The most frequently combined drug in combination with Spectinomycin:
Lincomycin.
183
This is obligatory when drugs are supplied to owners by vets:
Label.
184
Expectorant drug: can be applied in combination with anti-tussives:
Guaifenesine.
185
In the case of E.coli septicaemia in Sus, which drug would you apply in medicated H20?
Enroflaxacin.
186
Systemic anti-fungal drug that can be applied safely also in cats:
Itraconazole.
187
Among the listed agents this one is ø intended against infections, caused by anaerobic bacteria:
Trimethoprim.
188
The teratogenicity studies have to be performed at least on:
2 animal sp.
189
Butyrophenone tranquilizer used mainly in lab rodents:
Fluanisone.
190
IV dosage of Butorphanol in EQ:
0.1 mg/kg BW.
191
In the case of fowl cholera (septicaemia) in chickens, which of the following Ab would you apply in medicated H20?
Amoxicillin.
192
Frequent combined partners of Dihydrostreptomycin:
Procaine and Benzathine penicillin.
193
A drug with potent visceral analgesic properties:
Butorphanol.
194
It's membrane- protective effect can partially replace that of Vit E:
Se.
195
Bronchodilator with relatively specific ß2-R agonist effect can be applied 1º by inhalation:
Salbutamol.
196
Which vehicle is useful for prepration of eye ointment?
White vaseline.
197
Alpha 2 agonists molecule, it's side effects are less frequent than those of Xylazine:
Medetomidine.
198
This active substance can be used for the treatment of varroosis in honeybees:
Amitraz.
199
Dosage of Atropine Sulphate as an anti-dote in poisoning:
0.25-1.0 mg/kg BW SC/1/3 of the dose slowly IV.
200
Over dosage of this substance has a hepatotoxic effect:
Vit D.
201
1º mechanism of action of macrolide endectocides:
Stimulation of glutamine mediated Cl-channels.
202
Which controlled drugs are ø used normally in Vet practice?
S1.
203
IM usage dosage of Tiamulin in Sus:
2- 10 mg/kg BW.
204
This macrolide reaches high conc. in bronchial fluid, and persists for a long time:
Tulathromycin.
205
In this type of prescription, the name + amt of ingredients ( individual components) has to be given in the prescription part:
Prescription of a prepared ( magistral) medecine.
206
Usually in this application method, the onset of drug action is very fast:
IV.
207
The micronucleus test:
is a light microscope method for determining mutagenicity.
208
Strongly inhibits the satiety centre in CNS:
Diazepam.
209
The classical ingredients of electuaries are:
Both syrup + powder.
210
The presence of Ca-ions in intestinal lumen does ø influence it's oral bioavailability:
Doxycycline.
211
Inhalational anaesthetic, it's potentially hepatotoxic, teratogenic + immunotoxic effects led to it's being banned in the EU:
Halothane.
212
This is the name given to a drug by manufacturers that produce the drug:
Proprietary name.
213
The major part of the text be written in Vet's own handwriting:
Legislation on requisition.
214
Because of it's PK profile it is ø recommended for treatment of urinary tract infections:
Doxycycline.
215
Long-acting Glucocorticoid:
Dexamethasone.
216
Systemic endectocides, which is active against fleas + also roundworms:
Selamectin.
217
Tranquilizer substance with mild analgesic properties:
Butyrophenone.
218
dosage of Xylazine in dogs:
1- 2 mg/kg BW, IM/IV.
219
What kind of active substance was used for PK investigation during the semester?
Sulfachloropyrazine Na.
220
Which method would you use to detect sulphonamide derivatives for analytical purposes?
Bratton- Marshall method.
221
Drugs that can be used as non-divided powders:
Drugs with broad therapeutic margin.
222
It is appropriate for the prevention of tick infestation in cats:
Fipronil.
223
Less typical, only a possible 2º action of certain NSAIDs:
Inhibition of platelet aggregation.
224
Which drug is useful for treatment of pseudo pregnancy in dogs?
Cabergoline + Bromococriptine.
225
This drug: because of it's strong cycloplegic properties, can be applied as an eye dp in uveitis to decrease pain:
Atropine.
226
Locally + systemically available antifungal drug:
Terbinafine.
227
Which juvenile hormone analogue can be applied in salt lick blocks?
Methoprene.
228
Pro-vit, but it has well-documented direct action or reproduction function in large herbivores:
Carotene.
229
It's analgesic activity is negligible:
Thiopental.
230
When must a drug label contain the warning : Unsuitable for cats"?
It contains paracetamol.
231
This Vit has liver-protective effect + anti- ulcer action as well:
Vit U.
232
Which examinations are carried out according to the GCP rules?
Human + vet clinical drug examination.
233
Which is characteristic to Ketamine?
Produces catalepsy.
234
Strep mastitis can be treated with this Ab after intra-muscular administration:
Penethamate.
235
When anthrax is diagnosed in domestic animals, which drug would you administer?
Penicillin.
236
Anti-bacterial drug with bactericidal mode of action:
Gentamicin.
237
Necessary amt of chlorinated lime for disinfection of drilled wells:
100g.
238
Hypocalcaemia can occur with IV administration of this aB:
Oxytetracycline.
239
Aminoglycoside with the best oral bioavailability:
Apramycin.
240
Usual dosage of Dexamethasone:
0.1 mg/kg BW; IV/IM.
241
What is the characteristics of suppositories?
Dissolves at body Temp.
242
Usual dosage of Diazepam IM/IV:
0.1 - 0.5 mg/kg BW.
243
In dogs it's fast re-administration does ø cause emesis:
Apomorphine.
244
Is a Butyrophenone mainly use in Sus for stress reduction:
Azaperone.
245
It can be given to birds + reptile for control of sub acute egg retention:
Oxytocin.
246
If the aim of these investigations is to determine the stability of the drug product after opening the package, what are the appropriate cond.?
Room temp, 0-4 weeks.
247
It is ø obligatory to keep records about this category of drugs when administered to food-producing:
Homeopathic animals.
248
Usual dosage of Gentamicin:
1- 4 mg/kg BW IM..
249
This anti-helminthic drug is safe also when used concomitantly with Cholinesterase inhibitor compounds:
Flubendazole.
250
Which bacterium is used in the AMES test?
Salmonella typhimurium.
251
This drug has a very low TI, it's IV administration is forbidden:
Imidocarb dipropionate.
252
A general anaesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin:
Thiopental.
253
It has poor penetration into CNS, therefore it is less sedative than the other 3:
Cetirizine.
254
Mode of action of Lincosamides:
Bacteriostatic.
255
Most effective in the treatment of chemotherapeutics-induced vomiting, but less effective in other cases:
Ondansetron.
256
What does a residual drug mean?
The total amt of the agent + it's metabolites remaining in the meat + food products of the animal treated with given pharmaceutical product.
257
Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking H2O:
Toltrazuril.
258
Usual dosage of Tylosin in poultry via drinking H2O:
500 mg/L.
259
A general anaesthetic with broad therapeutic margin, although it's administration might induce cardiovascular side effects or apnoea:
Propofol.
260
Which drug can be used as a pre-medication to reverse the cardiovascular actions of xylazine?
Glycopyrrolate.
261
Dosage of medetomidine in cats:
50- 150 mg/kg; IV/IM.
262
Sedative drug with ø analgesic properties, but it potentiates the effect of analgesics?
Acepromazine.
263
The Aminoglycosides are accumulated in this organ thus their WP is long:
Kidney.
264
Which of the following statements is true about cytochrome P450 enzymes?
They are part of the microsomal é transport chain.
265
This Ab in this grp inhibit the cell wall synthesis of bacteria + they are active against E.coli:
Aminopenicillins.
266
It is quite effective against pseudopregnancy in bitches, it may cause emesis:
Cabergoline.
267
Dosage of Xylazine in cattle:
0.05- 0.2 mg/kg BW, IM.
268
Frequently applied substances in the form of oral gel or oral paste in EQ:
Anti-helminthic.
269
In which animal sp. are the local tolerance studies performed most frequently?
Rabbits.
270
Which of the below mentioned organisms are susceptible to Tetracyclines?
Mycoplasma, Borrelia, Rickettsia.
271
This substance is ø used on it's own because of the low achieved plasma conc.:
Benzathine-penicillin.
272
Cough suppressant, well tolerated by cats:
Dextromethorphan.
273
What kind of treatment was used in our PK investigation during this semester?
IV.
274
Mechanism of action of Carbamate insecticidal:
Inhibition of cholinesterase enzyme.
275
This coccidiostatic is a pyrimidine derivative, acts as competitive agent of Vit B1:
Amprolium.
276
Some of them require safe custody:
Prescription Only Medecines (POM).
277
What is the conc of..?
0.01.
278
Are the alcohol based disinfectants allowed to be rinsed?
NO.
279
What information about any drug is ø included in EU Pharmacopoeia?
Indications in Vet.
280
What is the indication of GnRH in cattle?
| Control of time of ovulation + Ovarian follicular cyst/
Both.
281
This Aminoglycoside is ø used on it's own because of widespread resistance:
Streptomycin.
282
Well absorded from the nasal mucosa of sows, can be applied in MMA syndrome ( Mastitis, Metritis, Agalactia):
Oxytocin.
283
Which ß-Lactam acts against Chlamydophila?
| Cefquinom, Amoxicilin-clavulanic acid or Piperacillin-tazobactam
NONE.
284
This drug is contraindicated in animals with DM because it can cause hyper-glycaemia:
Xylazine.
285
In the case of Fentanyl overdose, which of the following substances can be used?
Naloxone.
286
Frequently used vehicle in dusting powder:
ZnO.
287
This Benzimidazole anti-helminthic can be used in porcine + Chicken industry as well:
Flunenzole.
288
Among the listed agents, this one is the most effective against Brachyspira hyodysenterine:
Tiamulin.
289
Appropriate as antidote for Xylazine + Medetomidine:
Atipamezole.
290
Which of the following cannot be an attribute of ointments?
Dissolves at body temp.
291
The most effective macrolide for the treatment of Sus dysentery:
Tylvalosin.
292
Which disinfectant should be used before milking?
Diluted Ionophore ( ø forming film layer)
293
Mechanism of action of Imidazothiazoles:
Nicotinergic stimulation.
294
The use of this drug is contraindicated in glaucoma:
Atropine eye dp.
295
Which one of the following drugs makes a complex with both monovalent + divalent ions?
Lasalocid.
296
Mode of action of Phenicols:
Bacteriostatic.
297
Locally + Systematically applied anti-fungal that is available as a cream, shampoo + tablet:
Ketoconazole.
298
Which substance would you choose for the treatment of E.coli enteritis?
Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid.
299
Systemic endectocide, which is accumulated in the fat tissue + SC tissues:
Moxidectin.
300
Which material is appropriate for gas-disinfection purposes?
Formaldehyde.
301
This anticoccidial had a low therapeutic index, causes skin tear in chicken:
Halofuginone.
302
This drug is only exclusively licensed for treatment of GI-infections of non-food producing pigeons:
Furazolidone.
303
ø appropriate method for prevention + treatment of scabies in sheep:
Pyrethroids SC.
304
The antidote for this anti-helminthic drug, following a serious overdosing is ø Atropine:
Albendazole.
305
This Ab agent is prohibited for use in food-producing animals:
Metronidazole.
306
What is the " 1st pass effect"?
The immediate metabolism in liver, directly after absorption of the drug from the GI tract.
307
Can be given PO to an adult Ru:
Fenbendazole.
308
Among the Aminoglycosides this agent is frequently combined in inj products with penicillins:
(Dihydro)Streptomycin.
309
Anti-bacterial + Anticoccidial drug, it's long term use can cause " haemorrhagic syndrome" in chickens:
Sulfaquinoxaline.
310
Can the in-vivo ( animal experiment) tissue irritation test substituted with any other of experiment during the licensing proc of a medecine?
NO.
311
Most frequently applied oral dosage form in EQ:
Oral gel + oral paste.
312
Mode of action of Tetracyclines:
Bacteriostatic.
313
What is the advantage of combination of Xylazine + Ketamine?
Together they induce more analgesic effect than the substance alone.
314
The oral bioavailability of Aminoglycosides is ( except Apramycin):
0- 10 %.
315
This drug is an inhibitor of ß-lactamases:
Clavulinic acid.
