Other QU. Flashcards

(195 cards)

1
Q

What is characteristic of suppositories?

A

Dissolves at body temp.

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2
Q

Vehicle in licking stones, which may have groth-promoting abilities in Ru?

A

Bentonites.

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3
Q

Which drug have to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of Vet?

A

S2 + S3.

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4
Q

1º choice of Ab in infections caused by Rickettsia:

A

Tetracycline.

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5
Q

Administration of this drug to herbivorous rodents is ø recommended because of the risk of dysbacteriosis:

A

Lincomycin.

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6
Q

This ectoparasitic is ø active against ticks:

A

Imidacloprid.

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7
Q

In the course of registration of licensed medecines, which documentation part is the clinical documentationa ccording to EUDRALEX requirements?

A

Part 4.

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8
Q

In dogs, it’s fast re-administration possibly does ø cause emesis:

A

Apomorphine.

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9
Q

Given directly after fertilization, it increases the rate of fertility:

A

Buserelin.

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10
Q

It can be given to burds + reptiles for control of sub-acute egg retention:

A

Oxytocin.

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11
Q

It is a GHS category:

A

Highly toxic.

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12
Q

This is a pro-drug. In practice it is used only against immature liver flukes. Practically inactive against adult flukes + other types of worms:

A

Diamphenethide.

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13
Q

In the majority of animal sp., this vit. is ø essential:

A

Vit C.

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14
Q

It is ø obligatory to keep records about this category of drugs when administered to food producing animals:

A

Homeopathic medecines.

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15
Q

What method was used for the measurement of the active substance in our PK investigationw ith chicken?

A

Spectrophotometric.

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16
Q

Which anticoccidial drugs would you use in a rotation program to prevent coccidiosis in broilers?

A

Monensin- Amprolium.

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17
Q

In the form of a sterile product, it can also given slowly as an IV infusion:

A

Micro-suspension.

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18
Q

What is the PK symbol of the theoretical plasma conc max. using the intra-vasal PK method?

A

C0.

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19
Q

Locally + systemically available anti-fungal drug:

A

Terbinafine.

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20
Q

Dosage of Gentamicin:

A

2- 4 mg/kg BW IM.

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21
Q

What information about any drug is included in the EU Pharmacopeia?

A

Identification methods.

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22
Q

Injected SC this drug is appropriate for the treatment of scabies infestations:

A

Doramectin.

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23
Q

This Ab can penetrate IC:

A

Oxytetracycline.

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24
Q

A general anesthetic with a narrow therapeutic margin:

A

Thiopental.

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25
What is the formulation type of Burrow ointment?
H2O in oil (W/O) type emulsion.
26
The 1º choice of Ab for Sus erysipelas is:
Penicillin.
27
Most effective in the treatment of chemotherapeutics-induced vomiting, but less effective in other cases:
Ondansetron.
28
A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole:
Must ø be used in food producing animals.
29
What does a residual drug mean?
The total amt of agent + it's metabolites remaining in the meat + food produtcs of the animal treated with the given pharmaceutical agent.
30
During the late pregnancy, it's application is allowed while the soft birth canal is dilated:
Oxytocin.
31
What is the 1º purpose of a drug administration according to EU rules?
Treatment.
32
Anticoccidial, can be administered via drinking H2O:
Toltrazuril.
33
What is the PK symbol of the area under the conc- time curve from 0 up to after single administration?
AUC.
34
Anticoccidial with cidal ( killing) effect:
Semduramicin.
35
Important indication for the use of Tetracycline:
Metritis, foot rott, local treatment of wounds.
36
Which of the following drugs would you administer to a risk patient with cardiovascular disease?
Midazolam.
37
This sedative can increase the incidence of convulsions, hence ø suitable for the administration to patients with epilepsy:
Acepromazine.
38
What is the purpose of a residual drug analysis?
The determination of WP according to food-health legislation.
39
Juvenile-hormone analogue, which is combines with Fipronil in a spot-on preparation:
Methoprene.
40
Conc. of Atropine in mydriatic eye dp:
0.5- 1%.
41
In the course of registration of licensed medecine, which documentation part is the safety documentation according to Eudralex requirements?
Part 3.
42
Aminocyclitol, it's mode of action is bacteriostatic:
Spectinomycin.
43
Organisms related to macrolides:
E.coli + Salmonella spp.
44
Usuak dosage of Tylosin in poultry via drinkign H2O:
500 mg/L.
45
Which drug would you apply for the treatment of EQ botfly larval infestation?
Moxidectin orally.
46
This drug because of it's strong cycloplegic properties- can be applied in eye dp in uveitis to decrease pain:
Atropine.
47
It is intended for the control of benign prostatic hyperplasia in male dogs; but it's continuous administration can lead to bone marrow suppression:
Oestradiol.
48
Which of the following is ø a prerequisite of anaesthesia?
Pre-operative anti-inflammatory action.
49
When used alone as an anticoccidial agent, it can cause heat stress inc hicken; hence ø suitable for use in summer months:
Nicarbazin.
50
Selective COX2-inhibitor:
Firocoxib.
51
For which dosage form is sterility the most significant attribute?
Eye dp.
52
IV anaesthetic with the important side effect, of adrenocortical suppression:
Etomidate.
53
The major part of the text must be written in Vet's own handwriting:
Legislation on requisition.
54
Dosage of Ketamine in cats:
20mg/kg BW IM.
55
It has a very potent liver-protective activity:
Se.
56
It is appropriate for the prevention of tick infestation in cats:
Fipronil.
57
The most frequently applied drug in combination with Spectinomycin:
Lincomycin.
58
In the case of kerato-conjunctivitis sicca, this substance applied in an eye dp can enhance tear production:
Pilocarpine.
59
What kind of active substance was used for PK investigation during the semester?
Sulfaquinoxaline.
60
In adult female rabbits, it will provoke oestrus regardless of the oestrus cycle:
Gonadorelin.
61
This drug has severely harmful effect on the intestinal flora:
Enrofloxacin.
62
Sedative drug with pronounced anti-memetic action:
Acepromazine.
63
When anthrax is diagnosed in domestic animals, what would you administer?
Penicillin.
64
Conc. of Amitraz as sheep dip:
0.025- 0.05% solutions.
65
Partial agonist opiate, it is frequently combine with Medetomidine:
Butorphanol.
66
Anti-parasitic with narrow therapeutic margin, it's side effects are salivation, vomiting, diarrhoea, and bronchoconstriction:
Diazinon.
67
This drug has high activity against Campylobacter infections in poultry:
Erythromycin.
68
Broad therapeutic margin with pronounced m. relaxant + anti-convulsive properties:
Diazepam.
69
What is the most significant quality requirement for inj?
Sterility.
70
Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of active substance in a bolus?
Chip- controlled diaphragms.
71
Which of the following are ø H2O soluble bases? | Wool fat, sunflower oil
Both of them.
72
It's administration is practically free from amjor side effects, rarely may cause allergy:
HcG.
73
Frequent combination partner of Nicarbazin:
Narasin.
74
This anti-helminthic drug has very small bioavailability, but is highly effective in EQ against nematodes in large bowel, because of the high conc there:
Pyrantel.
75
Imidazole anti-fungal that can be used only llocally:
Enilconazole.
76
Dose of Ionophore:
Maduramicin 5mg/kg food.
77
Uterotonic drug:
Ergot, Carbachol, Oxytocin + Carbetocin.
78
Cephalosporin against Mycoplasma:
None.
79
K-sparing diuretic:
Spironolactone.
80
Pro-vit, well doccumented to directly act on reproductive function of alrge animals:
Carotene.
81
Overdose of this Vit is hepatotoxic:
Vit A.
82
What drug did we use in the PK examinations in the lab?
Sulfachloropyrazine.
83
What bacteria are susceptible to Macrolides?
Mycoplasma, Brachyspira hydrosenteriae.
84
Which one id the least toxic Amonoglycoside?
Spectinomycin.
85
What drug would you use in a urinary tract infection?
Gentamycin.
86
What drug would you use in renal failure?
Cephalosporins--> Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone, Cefador.
87
What drug causes least pre-/post-excitation of inhalations?
Sevoflurane.
88
What anti-helminthic is used in the large colon of EQ?
Pyrantel paste--> Tetrahydropyrimidine.
89
What kind of formulation is covered by a thin polymer layer?
Tablet.
90
What can be injected IV?
Micro-emulsion.
91
What vit. is used against Coumarine toxicosis?
K.
92
What vit is good for animals under stress?
C.
93
Doxycycline is used against what disease?
Lyme disease.
94
What program is ø used in broiler chickens?
Combined.
95
Which one is used x2 in 1 raising period?
Shuttle.
96
What would you use against ticks dogs?
Permethrin.
97
Some of these drugs require safe custody?
POM.
98
What is used for neuroleptanalgesia?
Neuroleptic + opiates.
99
What binds toxins including E.coli enterotoxins?
Activated charcoal.
100
Pastes major component?
>40% powder: high solid content.
101
What 2 drugs should be used in the switch program?
Ionophore + Thiazine.
102
Which part of drug legislation contains clinical trails?
Part 3.
103
Part of the toxicology studies:
Part 2.
104
What can be measured with carcinogenicity?
Mutagenicity.
105
What drug is for inducing oestrus?
P4.
106
What can cause dysbacteriosis in rodents?
Penicillin, Lincomycin, Tetracycline, Macrolides.
107
Gentanycin is ø effective if administered:
PO.
108
MRL-fish:
500 degree days.
109
Least man power needed to make:
Medicated drinking H2O.
110
Which of these is ø H2O-soluble? | Polysorbate or methylcellulose
Neither.
111
Requirement for medicated feedstuff?
MFS prescription.
112
Which Ab is toxic to rodents?
Lincomycin.
113
What drug can only be injected SC inc attle?
Tilcomicosin.
114
What drug causes adrenocortical suppression?
Trilostane.
115
Laxative that is osmotic + treats hepatic encephalopathy:
Lactulose.
116
Diuretics:
Furosemide.
117
Which drug is used in the treatment of Sus dysentery?
Tylvalosin, Lincomycin, Tiamulin + Tylosin.
118
Which drug can be used against sus dysentery both PO + IV?
Tiamulin.
119
What spot-on application is ø used in cats?
Amitraz.
120
What drug is used in the treatment of Haemorrhagiv Synthesis in chicken?
Vit K.
121
What drug induces fertility after fertilization?
GnRH.
122
What drug causes super-ovulation?
PMSG.
123
What drug has a pronounced ionotropic effect?
Pimobendan, Digitalis glycosides.
124
What annex has ø WP?
2.
125
What is found in the EU Pharmacopoeia?
Human medecine indications.
126
What anti-helminthic is used in cows against warble flies?
Pour-on with ops or macrolides.
127
What animal did we use in the PR for PK investigations?
Chicken.
128
What is the most accurate dispensed?
Dispensed powders.
129
What ab causes yellow discoloration in puppies?
Oxytetracycline.
130
What drug is ø suitable for lower urinary tract infection?
Penicillins, Cephalosporins.
131
Micro-emulsion susceptible for bacterial contamination?
Propofol.
132
If ø Vet-licensed drug is available, what do we use?
Human licensed.
133
Sus stress syndrom drug?
Vit C.
134
Slowest acting NSAID?
Methazone, Flunoiin, Megumin.
135
Which part of drug development is ø preclinical?
Field trails, pharmacovigilance.
136
What can you use as treatment of Candida infection?
Myostatin.
137
What is the measurement unit for PK distrinution?
Vd.
138
Program ø used in coccidian treatment in chicken?
Combined.
139
What is the distribution co-efficient in " 2-compartment" model?
Alpha.
140
What can you use as treatment of tuberculosis in humans?
Streptomycin.
141
Annex 1 definition:
Fixed MRL.
142
Sus septicaemia treatment:
Enrofloxacin.
143
Prevent abortion in ewe, which has toxoplasmosis:
Quinon/ate.
144
Which is tetracycline sensitive?
Rodents, EQ, puppies + kittens--> pregnancy, last trimester.
145
Fel asthma:
Zafirlukast + Terbutaline.
146
Information about medecine in prescription for pharmacist:
Inscription.
147
Which od these drugs has ø analgesic properties?
Chlorpromazine.
148
In which part of drug legislation is the clinical documentation?
Part 4.
149
Which drug has similar but better properties than Xylazine?
Medetomidine.
150
Which product can be used in food?
Premix.
151
Name some active drug against both larvae + adult worms?
Levamisole or Tetrahydropyrimidine/
152
What is the dosage form free of particles?
Solution.
153
Which one is insoluble in H2O?
Hydrous W/O.
154
Treatment of Cushing Syndrome:
Trilostane.
155
Pseudo-pregnancy:
Ergolines.
156
Is polysorbate 20 H2O-soluble?
No.
157
What is the most common intra-ruminal drug?
Pulsatile release bolus.
158
What tranquilizer is less sedative due to penetration of BBB?
Promethazine.
159
NSAID + Anti-spasmolytic:
Metamizole + Butylscopolamine.
160
Which of these tests together with cardiovascular effect?
Teratogenic.
161
Treatment of Candidiasis:
Chitin inhibitors/
162
Treatment of mosquitoes, ants, beetles:
JHA.
163
Ectoparasitic toxic to fish:
Pyrethions, Synthetic pyrethrins.
164
Preclinical phase consists of:
Pharmacological investigation, toxicity studies, user safety, target animal studies + toxicity test.
165
Slow developing NSAID:
Flunixin meglumine.
166
Best drug for long term epilepsy:
Phenobarbital.
167
Which Macrolide is ø given to a cardiovascular-risk patient?
Tilmicosin/
168
Which organ is usually... sustemic antifungal are administered for a prolonged period?
Liver.
169
In which case would you use antibacterial metaphylaxis?
Sus dydentery.
170
Systemic anti-fungal drug that can be applied safely also in cats:
Itraconazole.
171
Which NSAID has good spasmolytic effect?
Flunixin meglumiine.
172
It can be used to treat wells:
Both chlorinated lime + Na hypochloride.
173
Quinolone that does ø contain Fluorine:
Nalidixic acid.
174
Used to prevent nidation in F dog:
Oestradiol.
175
Which of the following is ø effective against E.coli?
Narrow spectrum penicillins.
176
Short-lasting effect, applied IV, x6 a day:
Benzylpenicillin Na.
177
ø usually dipped:
Sus.
178
Testing for drinking H2O:
0-24. room temp.
179
Propofol effect:
5- 8 mind.
180
ß-lactam for P. aeruginosa:
Piperacillin-tazobactam.
181
Where is the inj site, and how much should be injected in a mouse?
Caud. vein 2mg/kg.
182
Mass medication is ø recommended in:
Cat.
183
Ab active against fungi, which can be applied orally:
Griseofulvin.
184
Which application methos is suitable for the treatment of a large number of poultry sick with fowl cholera?
Oral powder dissolved in drinking H2O.
185
Part of toxicology studies:
Part 2.
186
Can be combines with Carcinogenicity studies:
Repeated-dose toxicity studies.
187
Which can be used with ø restriction?
General sales list.
188
This is the name given to a drug by the international pharmacopeia commission + mainly uniform worldwide:
Approved name.
189
Best way to give de-wormer to EQ?
Orally: paste/ drench nasogastric tube.
190
From the fastest to the lowest drug application methods:
IV- IM - SC- ID.
191
Oily Zn suspension is a ?
Oily suspension.
192
In which animal sp might intra-osseus administration a high significance?
Sus.
193
Which of the following are H2O-soluble bases?
Gelatine.
194
Which one is a narrow spectrum anti-helminthic?
Triclabendazol.
195
What causes haemorrhagic syndrome in chicken?
Sulfaquinoxaline.