2018

Question 1

Ptosis may be caused by:

A) Oculomotor nerve damage
B) Horner’s Syndrome
C) Both answers are correct

Answer 1

C) Both answers are correct

Question 2

The two major surgical techniques for repairing a retinal detachment are:
A) External (conventional approach), internal (vitreoretinal surgery)
B) External - iridectomy, internal (vitreoretinal surgery)
C) External - eye drops, internal (cataract surgery)

Answer 2

A) External (conventional approach), internal (vitreoretinal surgery)

Question 3

If you suspect the Sjörgen’s syndrome, which test will you perform:

A) Hirschberg’s Test
B) Schirmer’s Test
C) Amsler’s Grid

Answer 3

B) Schirmer’s Test

Question 4

What is the optical power of the human lens?
A) Around 40 D
B) Around 10 D
C) Around 20 D

Answer 4

C) Around 20 D

Question 5

Which of the following is NOT a stage of diabetic retinopathy (DR)?
A) Proliferative DR
B) Latent DR
C) Preproliferative DR

Answer 5

B) Latent DR

Question 6

Duration of the diabetes and poor control of blood sugar are the most important risk factors for development of diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following are also the risk factors for DR?
A) Pregnancy
B) Smoking
C) all of the above

Answer 6

C) all of the above

Question 7

One particular type of glaucoma can occur patients with diabetic retinopathy. Which one is it?
A) Congenital glaucoma
B) Secondary glaucoma
C) None of the above

Answer 7

B) Secondary glaucoma

Question 8

The medical term for the failure of normal visual development in children is:
A) Strabismus
B) Diplopia
C) Amblyopia

Answer 8

C) Amblyopia

Question 9

Leukocoria (white pupillary reflex) is noticeable in which of the following ophthalmic pathology?

A) Congenital glaucoma
B) Strabismus
C) Retinoblastoma

Answer 9

Retinoblastoma

Question 10

Which of the following are the risk factors associated with retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)?
A) Birthweight below 1500g, exposure to supplemental oxygen
B) Family history of ROP, duration of ventilation
C) Birth weight below 1500g, retinal detachment

Answer 10

A) Birthweight below 1500g, exposure to supplemental oxygen

Question 11

Lengthening and darkening of the lashes is the side effect of:
A) beta blockers
B) Carbonic anhydrase
C) prostaglandin analogues

Answer 11

C) prostaglandin analogues

Question 12

Between the cornea anteriorly and the lens and iris posteriorly lies:
A) vitreous
B) trasal body
C) the anterior chamber

Answer 12

C) the anterior chamber

Question 13

The optical power of the cornea in different planes is not equal. parallel rays of light passing through these different planes are brought to different points of focus. It is:
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) Astigmatismus

Answer 13

C) Astigmatismus

Question 14

The levatory of the eyelid is innervated by which nerve?
A) II
B) III
C) IV

Answer 14

B) III

Question 15

The thickness of the tear film is:
A) 5ym (eig. 1,2 bis 3 μm, wenn das Mikrometer μm heißen soll)
B) 10ym
C) 15ym

Answer 15

A) 5ym

Question 16

Between the ganglion cell layer and inner nuclear layer lays:
A) inner and outer segments of photoreceptors
B) external plexiform layer
C) inner plexiform layer

Answer 16

C) inner plexiform layer

Question 17

A surface oil layer is produced by the:
A) tarsal meibomian glands
B) lacrimal gland
C) conjunctival goblet cells

Answer 17

A) tarsal meibomian glands

Question 18

Macular edema may be associated with:
A) Uveitis
B) Retinal vascular disease (e.g.diabetic retinopathy)
C) All of the above

Answer 18

C) All of the above

Question 19

What can be confirmed by performing the cover test:
A) Cataract
B) Glaucoma
C) Strabismus

Answer 19

C) Strabismus

Question 20

This inflammation of the superficial layer of the sclera causes mild discomfort. It is rarely associated with systemic disease. In which severe disease, systemic non-steroidal anti- inflammatory treatment may be helpful:
A) Episcleritis
B) Scleritis
C) Keratitis

Answer 20

A) Episcleritis

Question 21

The probability of a rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is NOT increased in patients who:
A) Have high hypermetropia
B) have undergone cataract surgery particularly if this was complicated by vitreous loss
C) Have experienced a detached retina in the fellow eye

Answer 21

A) Have high hypermetropia

Question 22

What is the name of the test used to monitor central visual field?
A) Amsler’s grid
B) Ishihara’s test
C) Hirschberg’s test

Answer 22

A) Amsler’s grid

Question 23

The usual cause of ectropion do not include:
A) third nerve palsy
B) involuntary orbiculares muscle laxity
C) scarring of the periorbital skin

Answer 23

A) third nerve palsy

Question 24

A state when intraocular pressure is raised without evidence of visual damage or pathological optical disc cupping is called:
A) Normal tension glaucoma
B) Ocular hypertension
C) Relative pupil block

Answer 24

B) Ocular hypertension

Question 25

Synoptophore is used for: A) measurement of intraocular pressure B) assesment of eyes refraction C) assesment of binuclear single vision

Answer 25

C) assesment of binuclear single vision

Question 26

This is used extensively in ophthalmology to provide information about the vitreous, retina and posterior coats of the eye, particularly when they cannot be clearly visualized: A) Ultrasound B) Keratometry C) MRI

Answer 26

A) Ultrasound

Question 27

The optical power is too low (usually bc the eye is too short) and parallel rays of light converge toward a point behind the retina. What is it? A) Astigmatismus B) Myopis C) Hypermetropia

Answer 27

C) Hypermetropia

Question 28

A hinged partial thickness corneal stromal flap is first created with a rapidly moving automated blade. The flap is lifted , and the laser applied onto the stroll bed. This is: A) DSAEK B) PRK C) LASIK

Answer 28

C) LASIK

Question 29

These are the common symptoms, particularly in the middle-and patients. the take the form of spots or cobwebs which move when the eye moves and obscure vision only slightly. What is it: A) Retinal determent B) Floaters C) Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

Answer 29

B) Floaters

Question 30

Central retinal vein occlusion may result in (CRVO) A) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, an abnormality of venous wall B) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, increased IOP C) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, an abnormality of venous wall, increased IOP

Answer 30

C) ther hyperviscosity syndromes and abnormalities in coagulation, an abnormality of venous wall, increased IOP

Question 31

A ________ is a diagnostic contact lens, with a built-in mirror that permits visualisation of the iridocorneal angle A) 90D B) 70D C) Gonioscopy lens

Answer 31

C) Gonioscopy lens

Question 32

What is a common cause of chorioretinitis A) autoimmune B) TB C) toxoplasmosis

Answer 32

C) toxoplasmosis

Question 33

conjunctivitis most likely to occur bilaterally the least A) allergic B) viral C) bacterial

Answer 33

C) bacterial

Question 34

Abducens nerve would be most affected by a brainstem lesion at A) pons B) midbrain C) medulla

Answer 34

A) pons

Question 35

The pupillary defect that affects the afferent arm of pupillary response is the A) marcus gunn pupil B) argyl robberson pupil C) adies pupil

Answer 35

A) marcus gunn pupil

Question 36

In which chamber the aqueous fluid is being produced A) anterior chamber B) vitreus chamber C) posterior chamber


Answer 36

C) posterior chamber


Question 37

which condition would result in an inaccurately high reading with applanation preassue A) thin cornea B) thick cornea C) edematous cornea

Answer 37

B) thick cornea

Question 38

A 32-year-old white man with history of type 1 diabetes presents to you complaining of decreased vision. He has not seen an eye doctor in years. On exam you find numerous dot- blot hemorrhages, hard exudates and areas of abnormal vasculature in the retina. Pan-retinal photocoagulation might be dine in the patient to: A) kill ischemic retina B) tamponade retinal tears C) ablate peripheral blood vessels

Answer 38

A) kill ischemic retina

Question 39

Find false statement about post synechiae A) form between lens and iris B) form between lens and cornea C) they cause the pupil deformation

Answer 39

B) form between lens and cornea

Question 40

Color of fluorescin staining in corneal ulcer is A) yellow B) blue C) green

Answer 40

C) green

Question 41

What is the main treat of anterior uveitis A) steroids and mydriatics-cycloplegics B) antibiotics C) anti VEGF

Answer 41

A) steroids and mydriatics-cycloplegics

Question 42

What are drusen A) yellow fat and protein in the macula B) abnormal vessels C) charackteristic central scotomas

Answer 42

A) yellow fat and protein in the macula

Question 43

What is the possible treatment for wet AMD A) laser therapy B) anti VEGF injections C) there is no therapy

Answer 43

B) anti VEGF injections

Question 44

Most common type of retinal detatchment A) exudative B) rhegmatogenous C) tractional

Answer 44

B) rhegmatogenous

Question 45

A field defect often described as a “shadow” or “curtain” is characteristic for: A) chronic open angle glaucoma B) AMD C) acute closed angle glaucome D) retinal detatchment

Answer 45

D) retinal detatchment

Question 46

what are the benefits of vitamin and mineral supplementation for patients with AMD A) they stop neovascularisation B) they slow progression of the disease in people who have intermediate AMD C) they restore lost vision D) they particularly help people with early AMD

Answer 46

B) they slow progression of the disease in people who have intermediate AMD

Question 47

which statement about anterior uveitis is false A) cells and flare in anterior chamber are typical findings B) purulent discharge is often present C) symptoms include eye pain photophobia and decreased vision

Answer 47

B) purulent discharge is often present

Question 48

HSV causes all the conditions except A) dendridic corneal ulcer B) acute retinal necrosis in immunodeficient patients C) purulent conjunctivitis

Answer 48

C) purulent conjunctivitis

Question 49

most common cause of excessive tearing and purulent conjunctivitis in toddlers A) viral infection B) nasolacrimal duct stenosis C) allergy

Answer 49

B) nasolacrimal duct stenosis

Question 50

During a typical cataract surgery : A) Lens nucleus is vaporized with Laser B) Corneal suture are laid C) Intraocular lens is implanted

Answer 50

C) Intraocular lens is implanted

Question 51

Retinal detachment can be diagnoses with A) Ultrasound examination B) Gonioscopy C) Applanation tonometry

Answer 51

A) Ultrasound examination

Question 52

A positive Seidel test occurs in A) Dry eye syndrome B) Wet macular degeneration C) Corneal perforation and leakage

Answer 52

C) Corneal perforation and leakage

Question 53

The areas of the uvea are : A) Iris, cornea, choroid B) ciliary body, retina, optic disc C) Iris, ciliary body, choroid

Answer 53

C) Iris, ciliary body, choroid

Question 54

Blow out orbital fracture is a traumatic deformity of which wall A) superior B) inferior C) lateral

Answer 54

B) inferior

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT used in the strabismus treatment ? A) patching of the eye with poorer vision B) patching of the eye with better vision C) surgery on extraocular muscles

Answer 55

A) patching of the eye with poorer vision

Question 56

A patient accidentally splashes a large amount of bleached based cleaner in the eye. What should he do ? A) wash it out immediately B) Add acids to the eye C) Administer oral antibiotics

Answer 56

A) wash it out immediately

Question 57

What is the medical term for white pupillary reflex ? A) leukocoria B) leukoplakia C) leukodystrophy

Answer 57

A) leukocoria

Question 58

Myopia is not associated with A) Keratoconus B) Cataract C) Shortened eyeball

Answer 58

C) Shortened eyeball

Question 59

Which refractive error can be associated with nuclear cataract ? A) Far-Sightedness B) Astigmatism C) Near sightedness

Answer 59

C) Near sightedness

Question 60

In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctivitis characteristically there is usually A) Copious purulent discharge B) Copious muco-purulent discharge C) Excessive watery lacrimation

Answer 60

C) Excessive watery lacrimation