2018 Flashcards

1
Q

in which of the following joints do you NOT find a fibrocartilage structure that increases the contact area?

a) metacarpophalangeal joint
b) talocrural joint
c) glenohumeral joint
d) hip joint
e) tibiofemoral joint

A

B

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2
Q

with regard to bone fractures, which statement is false?

a) most clavicular fractures occur in the middle third of the shaft
b) the scaphoid is the most commonly fractured carpal bone
c) the navicular is the most common tarsal to stress fracture
d) most tibial stress fractures occur in the anterior cortex of the shaft
e) the most common bone to stress fracture is the tibia

A

D (should be posteromedial)

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3
Q

Which of the following statements about hip muscles is CORRECT?
A) In a position of 90 degrees hip flexion, the posterior fibres of gluteus medius laterally rotate the hip
B) Adductor magnus is a hip flexor in anatomical position
C) Adductor longus is a hip flexor in anatomical position
D) Coxa valga increases the moment arm of gluteus medius
E) Adductor brevis contributes to hip extension from anatomical position

A

C

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4
Q

Regarding the patellofemoral joint,
A) the patella glides superiorly on the femur during knee flexion
B) the patella medially tilts around the vertical axis during knee flexion
C) with increasing knee flexion, the contact area between the patella and femur increases
D) the odd facet articulates with the lateral femoral condyle near full knee extension
E) with increasing knee flexion, the contact area moves from the base toward the apex of the patella

A

C ?

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5
Q

Regarding muscles of the knee region, which statement is FALSE?
A) Contraction of biceps femoris long and short head can laterally rotate the tibia
B) The ‘Q angle’ estimates the lateral pull of the quadriceps group
C) Popliteus medially rotates the femur on the fixed tibia to ‘lock’ the knee in extension
D) Sartorius medially rotates the tibia on the femur
E) Semitendinosus contraction can produce medial rotation of the tibia on the femur

A

C

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6
Q

Foot pronation
A) increases the height of the navicular
B) is linked to tibial internal rotation at the subtalar joint
C) is triplanar motion combining plantarflexion, eversion and aBduction
D) occurs immediately prior to push-off, so that the foot is rigid to transfer force
E) is produced by tibialis posterior contraction

A

B

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7
Q
Which structure does NOT support the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?
A) long plantar ligament
B) plantar fascia
C) tibialis posterior
D) abductor hallucis brevis
E) tibialis anterior
A

A (supports lateral arch)

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8
Q
Lateral flexion segmental mobility is greatest in the
A) mid thoracic region
B) mid cervical region
C) upper thoracic region
D) upper cervical region
E) lumbosacral articulation
A

B

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9
Q

The following are features of the thoracic vertebral column that restrict movement EXCEPT
A) long downward pointing spinous processes
B) the presence of the ribs
C) the small intervertebral disc height to vertebral body ratio
D) the height of the superior articular processes
E) the sagittal orientation of the zygapophyseal joints

A

E

Movement- presence of rib cage reduces overall movement; other features- intervertebral disc doesn’t facilitate movement bc it isn’t very high so superior vertebrae cannot tilt as much; superior articular processes limits F-E and spinous processes limits E

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10
Q
Which of the following structures does NOT attach to the second cervical vertebra (axis)?
A) rectus capitis posterior major
B) obliquus capitis inferior
C) transverse ligament
D) semispinalis cervicis
E) alar ligament
A

C

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11
Q

The vertebral artery
A) enters the cranium via the jugular foramen
B) turns abruptly posteriorly and medially as it emerges superiorly from the first cervical vertebra
C) provides the main blood supply to the frontal lobe
D) arises from the axillary artery
E) travels through the transverse foramen of the seventh to first cervical vertebrae

A

B

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12
Q

Which of the following statements concerning multifidus is INCORRECT?
A) Multifidus is a polysegmental back muscle
B) Multifidus is innervated by branches of the lumbar plexus
C) Multifidus is primarily a back extensor
D) Multifidus is normally active during active trunk rotation
E) The fascicles of multifidus converge superiorly to attach to a common spinous process and lamina

A

B (innervated by medial branch nerve of the posterior ramus)

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13
Q
The medial branch of the dorsal rami innervates all of the following EXCEPT
A) the zygapophyseal joint below
B) interspinous muscle
C) multifidus
D) the zygapophyseal joint above
E) the posterior outer annulus
A

E

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14
Q
The main extensor of the lumbar spine is
A) longissimus thoracis pars lumborum
B) quadratus lumborum
C) multifidus
D) longissimus thoracis pars thoracis
E) iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum
A

D

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15
Q

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the activity of the diaphragm in postural control of the trunk?
A) Activity in the diaphragm is not associated with trunk control
B) The diaphragm will maintain a strong contraction to provide trunk stability even when respiratory drive increases
C) Contraction of the diaphragm increases intra-thoracic pressure and stiffens the vertebral column
D) Activity in the diaphragm, without co-contraction of the abdominal muscles, can provide postural stability for the trunk
E) The diaphragm maintains a level of baseline contraction when performing fast, repetitive upper limb movements in standing

A

possibly C but not 100% sure

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16
Q
Which of the following peripheral nerves is NOT a branch of the sacral plexus?
A) superior gluteal nerve
B) tibial nerve
C) posterior femoral cutaneous nerve
D) lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
E) pudendal nerve
A

D (part of lumbar plexus)

17
Q

Somatosensory information from the muscles, joints and skin of the same area of the body is
integrated in the
A) precentral gyrus
B) primary somatosensory cortex
C) posterior association area
D) frontal association area
E) somatosensory secondary association area

A

B (i think)

18
Q

Regarding Clarke’s nucleus, which statement is FALSE?
A) Clarke’s nucleus extends from approximately L3 to C8 spinal cord levels
B) Clarke’s nucleus integrates afferent information from proprioceptors and skin receptors
C) Fibres from Clarke’s nucleus ascend contralaterally to the cerebellum
D) Input to Clarke’s nucleus arises from the lower limbs and trunk
E) Neurons from muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs synapse with second order neurons in Clarke’s nucleus

A

C - ipsilateral

19
Q

Which statement is FALSE about the vestibulo-ocular reflex?
A) The vestibulo-ocular reflex is a very fast brainstem reflex
B) Interneurons from the abducens nucleus synapse with the contralateral oculomotor nucleus
C) The right vestibular neurons stimulate the right abducens nucleus
D) Turning the head to the right is excitatory to the right vestibular nerve / nuclei
E) Interneurons travelling in the medial longitudinal fasciculus permit coordination between the abducens and oculomotor nuclei

A

C (R rotation is excitatory to R vestibular nerve [so not D] + L abducens nerve)

(not A bc yes the photoreceptors are sensitive and slow- it is still a very fast reflex)

20
Q

Which of the following statements regarding adult neurogenesis is INCORRECT?
A) It contributes to birth of astrocytes
B) Adult neurogenesis declines with ageing
C) Physical activity / exercise increases adult neurogenesis
D) The rate of production of new neurons is decreased following injury
E) Reductions in neurogenesis correlate with reduced (impaired) learning and memory performance

A

B?

21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding behavioural testing is CORRECT?
A) The active place avoidance test can be used to specifically assess anxiety
B) The active place avoidance test can be used to specifically assess motor deficits
C) Fear responses are commonly tested in the active place avoidance task
D) Damage to the hippocampus will not result in poor performance in the active place avoidance task
E) Decreased hippocampal neurogenesis results in impaired performance on the active place avoidance task

A

i don’t have notes on this either

22
Q

Which of the following groups of structures are included in the limbic system?
A) cortex, superior colliculi
B) fornix, fimbria, corpus callosum
C) hippocampus, dentate gyrus, occipital lobe
D) amygdala, hippocampus, precentral gyrus
E) dentate gyrus, mammillary bodies, Papez circuit

A

E??

23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the entorhinal cortex?
A) processing of circadian rhythms
B) sending signals to the dentate gyrus
C) involved in learning and memory
D) receiving input from the olfactory system
E) acquisition of spatial learning

A

A (?)

24
Q

Which of the following is a role of the tectospinal tract?
A) controls flexor muscles of the lower limbs
B) controls reflex movements of the head, neck and upper limbs
C) regulates prefrontal cortical neurons
D) controls flexor muscles of the upper limbs
E) stabilises the head during rotational movement of the body

A

E

25
Q

Decorticate rigidity arises from upper motor neuron lesions above the midbrain. Which of the
following symptoms BEST describes this condition?
A) flexion of the left lower limb
B) extension of upper limbs and flexion of lower limbs
C) flexion of the upper limbs and extension of lower limbs
D) flexion of upper and lower limbs
E) extension of upper and lower limbs

A

C

26
Q
Which of the following nuclei is found within the base of the brainstem?
A) pontine nuclei
B) amygdala
C) pedunculopontine nucleus
D) red nucleus
E) inferior olivary nucleus
A

E

27
Q
Which of these neurotransmitters is used by the globus pallidus of the basal ganglia?
A) noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
B) acetylcholine
C) γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D) glutamate
E) glycine
A

C

28
Q
Climbing fibres enter the cerebellum and synapse directly on
A) neurons of the fastigial nuclei
B) neurons of the interposed nuclei
C) Purkinje neurons
D) granule cells
E) dentate granule cells
A

C

29
Q
The bony components of the tibiofemoral joint contribute little to its stability.
Name FIVE (5) passive or active structures that do stabilise this joint. Then, for EACH structure that you have chosen, describe the stability that it provides.
A

i can only find info about resisting stuff so idk if that counts as stabilising

30
Q

Explain how the structure of a lumbar intervertebral disc aids its role in weight-bearing.

A

By seperating the 2 surfaces (vertebral discs) by having the intervertebral discs, it maintains the ideal weight bearing component and decreases stress. (i made up this next part so idk if it makes sense) As the lumbar intervertebral disc is larger, it is more capable of receiving the weight load as there is more area to transmit the load through.

31
Q

Explain how the structure of a lumbar intervertebral disc facilitates movement.

A

the intervertebral disc interposed between 2 flat articular surfaces permits rocking of the superior vertebrae allowing movement and stability. The greater amount of seperation, the greater amount of movement.
As the lumbar discs are large and create a greater amount of seperation, there will be greater movement.

32
Q

Explain what ‘contralateral homonymous hemianopia’ means.

A

caused by lesion to the optic tract
contralateral = same side
homonymous= half
hemianopia= loss of vision

33
Q

Describe the visual pathway and explain how a lesion could result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia. You may use a labelled diagram in your answer if you wish.

A

i drew a diagram
lesion in the optic tract - affects the nasal (crossed) fibres from the contralateral eye, and temporal (uncrossed) fibres from the ipsilateral eye. The lesion will effect both eyes.

34
Q

Two main ascending somatosensory pathways are the anterolateral (AL) and the dorsal column (DC) pathways. Which sensory modalities are conveyed by EACH of these pathways?

A

DC- discriminative touch, pressure, vibratory sense and conscious proprioception
AL- nociception, temperature, crude touch

35
Q

Two main ascending somatosensory pathways are the anterolateral (AL) and the dorsal column (DC) pathways. List FOUR (4) similarities between the two pathways.

A

Similarities:

  • go to dorsal root in spinal cord (not dorsal horn)
  • will go to the ventral posterolateral (VLP) to synapse
  • starts at the periphery
  • there needs to be 3 neurons to reach conscious level (1st, 2nd, 3rd order)
  • terminate in the primary somatosensory cortex
36
Q

Two main ascending somatosensory pathways are the anterolateral (AL) and the dorsal column (DC) pathways. List TWO (2) differences (other than sensory modalities) between the two pathways.

A

Differences:

  • dorsal column - larger, faster and more myelinated
  • dorsal column - info from the right will ascend through the right spinal cord
  • anterolateral - smaller, slower, less myelinated
  • anterolateral - right info will travel through left anterolateral pathway
37
Q

Compare and contrast the structure and functions of the lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts.

A

lateral corticospinal tract:
- most fibres originate from the motor cortex & terminate in the ventral horn of the spinal cord
- 90% of the corticospinal tract neurons
- primarily concerned with precise movements involving distal parts of the limbs
- terminate at the cervical/thoracis + lumbosacral levels to innervate upper and lower limbs
- lateral motor pool in lateral horn
anterior corticospinal tract:
- 10% of the corticospinal tract
- do not decussate at the pyramidal decussation
- decussate at different spinal levels
- innervates mainly axial (trunk and neck) muscles

38
Q

Describe the afferent and efferent connections of the spinocerebellum, and the role of this loop. What symptoms could arise from a lesion to the spinocerebellum?

A

All afferent fibres entering will terminate in the cerebellar cortex. Include mossy fibres and climbing fibres
All efferent fibres exiting are INHIBITORY.
role of the loop: regulates muscle tone, posture and balance
lesion of spinocerebellum could lead to: truncal ataxia and ataxic gait (lack of coordinated gait) due to loss of balance (due to lack of error correction in reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts)