- A 68-year-old male presents to your office with a 2-day history of headache, muscle aches,
and chills. His wife adds that his temperature has been up to 104.1°F and he seems confused
sometimes. His symptoms have not improved with usual care, including ibuprofen and
increased fluid intake. He and his wife returned from a cruise 10 days ago but don’t recall
anyone having a similar illness on the ship. This morning he started to cough and his wife
was concerned because she saw some blood in his sputum. He also states that he experiences
intermittent shortness of breath and feels nauseated. His blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg,
heart rate 98/min, temperature 39.4°C (102.9°F), and oxygen saturation 95% on room air.
Which one of the following would be the preferred method to confirm your suspected
diagnosis of Legionnaires’ disease?
A) Initiating azithromycin (Zithromax) to see if symptoms improve
B) A chest radiograph
C) Legionella polymerase chain reaction (PCR) testing
D) A sputum culture for Legionella
E) Urine testing for Legionella pneumophila antigen
Item 1
ANSWER: E
A urine test for Legionella pneumophila antigen is the preferred method to confirm Legionnaires’ disease.
This test is rapid and will only detect Legionella pneumophila antigen. A sputum culture is the gold
standard for the diagnosis of Legionnaires’ disease but it requires 48–72 hours. A chest radiograph does
not confirm the diagnosis but may show the extent of disease. Responding to antibiotic treatment does not
confirm a specific diagnosis.
Which one of the following factors related to pregnancy and delivery increases the risk of
developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants?
A) A large-for-gestational age infant
B) Twin birth
C) Breech presentation
D) Cesarean delivery
E) Premature birth
ANSWER: C
Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants include a breech presentation in the third
trimester, regardless of whether the delivery was cesarean or vaginal. Other indications to evaluate an
infant for this condition include a positive family history, a history of previous clinical instability, parental
concern, a history of improper swaddling, and a suspicious or inconclusive physical examination. Twin
birth, a large-for-gestational age infant, and prematurity are not considered risk factors.
A healthy 2-month-old female is brought to your office for a routine well baby examination
by both of her parents, who have no concerns. The parents refuse routine recommended
vaccines for their daughter because of their personal beliefs.
You want to incorporate patient-centeredness and are also concerned about improving the
health of the population. You decide to follow the CDC recommendations by
A) accepting their decision without further action
B) not offering vaccines at future visits to preserve a positive doctor-patient relationship
C) having the parents sign a refusal to vaccinate form
D) dismissing the family from the practice
E) pursuing a court order for vaccine administration since the child has no medical
exemptions
ANSWER: C
Experts recommend that a refusal to vaccinate form be signed by patients or parents who refuse a
recommended vaccine. This form should document that the patient/parents were provided the vaccine
information statement (SOR C). The CDC recommends against dismissing a patient or family from a
practice if they refuse vaccination. Physicians should continue to discuss the benefits of immunizations at
subsequent visits, because some patients/parents may reconsider their decision not to vaccinate.
- A 50-year-old male carpet layer presents with swelling of his right knee proximal to the
patella. He does not have any history of direct trauma, fever, chills, or changes in the
overlying skin. On examination the site is swollen but minimally tender, with no warmth or
erythema.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Rest, ice, and compression
B) Aspiration of fluid for analysis
C) Injection of a corticosteroid
D) An oral corticosteroid taper
E) Referral to an orthopedic surgeon for resection
ANSWER: A
Prepatellar bursitis is a common superficial bursitis caused by microtrauma from repeated kneeling and
crawling. Other terms for this include housemaid’s knee, coal miner’s knee, and carpet layer’s knee. It
is usually associated with minimal to no pain. This differs from inflammatory processes such as acute
gouty superficial bursitis, which presents as an acutely swollen, red, inflamed bursa and, in rare cases,
progresses to chronic tophaceous gout with minimal or no pain.
The proper management of prepatellar bursitis is conservative and includes ice, compression wraps,
padding, elevation, analgesics, and modification of activity. There is little evidence that a corticosteroid
injection is beneficial, even though it is often done. If inflammatory bursitis is suspected, a corticosteroid
injection may be helpful. Fluid aspiration is indicated if septic bursitis is suspected. Surgery can be
considered for significant enlargement of a bursa if it interferes with function.
- An 85-year-old female with a previous history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, dementia,
and peptic ulcer disease has been in a skilled nursing facility for 4 weeks for rehabilitation
after a hip fracture repair secondary to a fall during an ischemic stroke. She is transported
to the emergency department today when she develops confusion, shortness of breath, and
diaphoresis. Her blood pressure is 172/98 mm Hg, her heart rate is 122 beats/min with an
irregular rhythm, and her respiratory rate is 22/min. An EKG demonstrates atrial fibrillation
and 0.2 mV ST-segment elevation compared to previous EKGs. Her first troponin level is
elevated.
Which one of the following conditions in this patient is considered an ABSOLUTE
contraindication to fibrinolytic therapy?
A) Poorly controlled hypertension
B) Peptic ulcer disease
C) Alzheimer’s dementia
D) Hip fracture repair
E) Ischemic stroke
ANSWER: E
A history of an ischemic stroke within the past 3 months is an absolute contraindication to fibrinolytic
therapy in patients with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), unless the stroke is diagnosed
within 4½ hours. Poorly controlled hypertension, dementia, peptic ulcer disease, and major surgery less
than 3 weeks before the STEMI are relative contraindications that should be considered on an individual
basis.
- An otherwise healthy 57-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of hearing loss. She
awoke this morning unable to hear out of her left ear. There was no preceding illness and
she currently feels well otherwise. She does not have ear pain, headache, runny nose,
congestion, or fever, and she does not take any daily medications.
On examination you note normal vital signs and find a normal ear, with no obstructing
cerumen and with normal tympanic membrane motion on pneumatic otoscopy. You perform
a Weber test by placing a tuning fork over her central forehead. She finds that the sound
lateralizes to her right ear. The Rinne test shows sounds are heard better with bone
conduction on the left and with air conduction on the right.
You refer her to an otolaryngologist for further evaluation including audiometry. You should
also consider initiating which one of the following medications at this visit in order to
optimize the likelihood of recovery?
A) Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
C) Aspirin
D) Nifedipine (Procardia)
E) Prednisone
This patient has sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) of the left ear without any accompanying
features to suggest a clear underlying cause. An appropriate evaluation will fail to identify a cause in
85%–90% of cases. Idiopathic SSNHL can be diagnosed if a patient is found to have a 30-dB hearing loss
at three consecutive frequencies and an underlying condition is not identified by the history and physical
examination.
The most recent guideline from the American Academy of Otolaryngology–Head and Neck Surgery
recommends that oral corticosteroids be considered as first-line therapy for patients who do not have a
contraindication. While there is equivocal evidence of benefit, for most patients the risk of a short-term
course of corticosteroids is thought to be outweighed by the potential benefit, especially when considering
the serious consequences of long-term profound hearing loss. Because the greatest improvement in hearing
tends to occur in the first 2 weeks, corticosteroid treatment should be started immediately. The
recommended dosage is 1 mg/kg/day with a maximum dosage of 60 mg daily for 10–14 days.
Antiviral medications, antiplatelet agents, and vasodilators such as nifedipine have no evidence of benefit.
Antibiotics also have no evidence of benefit in the absence of signs of infection.
- You are the team physician for the local high school track team. During a meet one of the
athletes inadvertently steps off the edge of the track and inverts her right foot forcefully. She
is able to bear weight but with significant pain. She reports pain across her right midfoot.
An examination reveals edema over the lateral malleolus and diffuse tenderness, but she
does not have any pain with palpation of the navicular, the base of the fifth metatarsal, or
the posterior distal lateral and medial malleoli.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time?
A) Radiographs of the right ankle only
B) Radiographs of the right foot only
C) Radiographs of the right foot and ankle
D) Lace-up ankle support, ice, compression, and clinical follow-up
E) Crutches and no weight bearing for 2 weeks, followed by a slow return to weight
bearing
ANSWER: D
The Ottawa foot and ankle rules should be used to determine the need for radiographs in foot and ankle
injuries. A radiograph of the ankle is recommended if there is pain in the malleolar zone along with the
inability to bear weight for at least four steps immediately after the injury and in the physician’s office or
emergency department (ED), or tenderness at the tip of the posterior medial or lateral malleolus. A
radiograph of the foot is recommended if there is pain in the midfoot zone along with the inability to bear
weight for four steps immediately after the injury and in the physician’s office or ED, or tenderness at the
base of the fifth metatarsal or over the navicular bone. The Ottawa foot and ankle rules are up to 99%
sensitive for detecting fractures, although they are not highly specific. In this case there are no findings
that would require radiographs, so treatment for the ankle sprain would be recommended. Compression
combined with lace-up ankle support or an air cast, along with cryotherapy, is recommended and can
increase mobility. Early mobilization, including weight bearing as tolerated for daily activities, is
associated with better long-term outcomes than prolonged rest.
- A 65-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and obstructive sleep apnea
sees you for follow-up. He does not use tobacco or other drugs, and his alcohol consumption
consists of two drinks per day. His BMI is 31.0 kg/m2, and he just started a fitness program.
The patient tells you that his brother was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and he
asks you if this increases his own risk.
Which one of the following factors would increase the risk of atrial fibrillation in this
patient?
A) Alcohol use
B) Treatment with lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
C) Treatment with pioglitazone (Actos)
D) Use of a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device
E) Physical stress
ANSWER: A
Alcohol consumption greater than one drink/day has been associated with atrial fibrillation. While not
recommended to prevent atrial fibrillation, pioglitazone and lisinopril have both been associated with lower
rates of atrial fibrillation compared to alternative therapies. Treatment of obstructive sleep apnea, along
with a regular fitness regimen, has been associated with a decrease in the recurrence of atrial fibrillation.
- You have diagnosed a 32-year-old female with moderate iron deficiency anemia, presumed
to be due to chronic menstrual blood loss. She has no gastrointestinal or genitourinary
symptoms, and no bruising or bleeding other than menstrual bleeding. Her vital signs are
normal and a physical examination is unremarkable. You initiate a trial of oral iron therapy.
Which one of the following would be the best way to assess the patient’s response to oral
iron?
A) A reticulocyte count in 1–2 weeks
B) A repeat hematocrit in 2 weeks
C) A peripheral smear to look for new RBCs in 4 weeks
D) A serum total iron binding capacity and ferritin level in 6 weeks
ANSWER: A
The reticulocyte count is the first and best indicator of iron absorption and bone marrow response to oral
iron therapy in the treatment of iron deficiency anemia. An increase in reticulocytes is seen as early as 4
days, peaking at 7–10 days. The rate of production of new RBCs slows thereafter due to a compensatory
decrease in erythropoietin as more iron becomes available. It typically takes 4–6 weeks before seeing
recovery in the hematocrit, and for the RBC count and indices to normalize. However it is usually 4–6
months before iron stores are fully restored to normal levels, so treatment should continue for at least that
long.
- You see an adult patient who has chronic urticaria and no other known chronic conditions.
He continues to experience hives after a 3-month course of daily loratadine (Claritin).
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate addition to his treatment regimen
at this time?
A) A short course of oral corticosteroids
B) Cyclosporine
C) Ranitidine (Zantac)
D) Narrow-band UV light treatment
ANSWER: C
First- and second-generation H1 antihistamine receptor antagonists are generally considered first-line
treatment for chronic urticaria, and approximately 60% of patients experience a satisfactory result.
Second-generation options such as loratadine have the added benefit of a lower likelihood of side effects
such as drowsiness. For those who fail to achieve the desired result with monotherapy using an H1
antihistamine receptor antagonist, the addition of an H2 antihistamine receptor antagonist such as cimetidine
or ranitidine is often beneficial. The tricyclic antidepressant doxepin has strong H1 and H2 antihistamine
receptor antagonist effects and has been used as an off-label treatment option in some studies. A short
course of oral corticosteroids, narrow-band UV light treatment, or cyclosporine can be used in the
management of recalcitrant chronic urticaria, but these are considered second- or third-line adjunctive
options.
- A 10-year-old male has an 8-mm induration 2 days after a tuberculin skin test. He shares a
bedroom with his 18-year-old brother who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis. There
are no other historical or physical examination findings to suggest active tuberculosis
infection and a chest radiograph is normal.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Monitoring with annual tuberculin skin testing
B) Observation and repeat tuberculin skin testing in 3 weeks
C) Rifampin (Rifadin) daily for 4 months
D) Isoniazid daily for 9 months
E) Once-weekly isoniazid and rifampin for 3 months
ANSWER: D
This patient’s close contact with a person known to be infected with tuberculosis (TB) places him at risk
for infection, so screening for TB is indicated. For this patient, testing with either a tuberculin skin test
or an interferon-gamma release assay is appropriate. Based on CDC guidelines an induration 5 mm at
48–72 hours following an intradermal injection of tuberculin is a positive test in individuals who have been
in recent contact with a person with infectious TB, those with radiographic evidence of prior TB,
HIV-infected persons, and immunosuppressed patients. For other individuals at increased risk for TB, the
threshold for a positive test is an induration 10 mm at 48–72 hours. For those with no known risks for
TB infection, the induration must exceed 15 mm in size to be considered positive. Once positive, there is
no indication for additional skin tests.
A positive screening test along with a review of systems, a physical examination, and a chest radiograph
that do not show evidence of active infection confirms the diagnosis of latent TB. For children age 2–11
years, treatment with isoniazid, 10–20 mg/kg daily or 20–40 mg/kg twice weekly for 9 months, is the
preferred and most efficacious treatment regimen. The shorter 6-month treatment course is considered an
acceptable option for adults, but it is not recommended for children. The use of rifampin alone or in
combination with isoniazid is also an acceptable option for adults but not for children under the age of 12.
- A 62-year-old female with diabetes mellitus presents to your office with left lower quadrant
pain and guarding. She has a previous history of a shellfish allergy that caused hives and
swelling.
Further evaluation of this patient should include which one of the following?
A) Ultrasonography of the abdomen
B) CT of the abdomen and pelvis with oral and intravenous (IV) contrast
C) Oral corticosteroids and antihistamines, then CT of the abdomen and pelvis with oral
and IV contrast
D) Intravenous corticosteroids and antihistamines, then CT of the abdomen and pelvis
with oral and IV contrast
E) Laparotomy
ANSWER: B
Evaluation of this patient should include CT of the abdomen and pelvis with oral and intravenous (IV)
contrast. There is no reason to inquire about shellfish allergies prior to CT with IV contrast, because
premedication is not needed. There is no correlation between shellfish allergies and allergic reactions to
contrast. Patients with moderately severe to severe reactions to IV contrast in the past would need
pretreatment with corticosteroids
- A 45-year-old female who works as a house cleaner presents with left shoulder pain. On
examination she has pain and relative weakness when pushing toward the midline against
resistance while the shoulder is adducted and the elbow is bent to 90°. With the elbow still
at 90° she is unable to keep her left hand away from her body when you position her hand
behind her back.
This presentation is most consistent with an injury of which one of the following tendons?
A) Deltoid
B) Infraspinatus
C) Subscapularis
D) Supraspinatus
E) Teres minor
ANSWER: C
This patient’s pain and weakness while pushing against resistance reveals weakness on internal rotation
of the shoulder, which suggests a possible tear of the subscapularis tendon. The inability to keep her hand
away from her body when it is placed behind her back describes a positive internal lag test, also suggesting
involvement of the subscapularis tendon. The infraspinatus and teres minor are involved in external
rotation rather than internal rotation. The supraspinatus and deltoid are involved in abduction of the
shoulder.
- An 8-year-old male is brought to your office because of acute lower abdominal pain. He is
not constipated and has never had abdominal surgery. You suspect acute appendicitis.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Plain radiography
B) Ultrasonography
C) CT without contrast
D) CT with contrast
E) MRI
ANSWER: B
Ultrasonography is recommended as the first imaging modality to evaluate acute abdominal pain in
children. It avoids radiation exposure and is useful for detecting many causes of abdominal pain, including
appendicitis. After ultrasonography, CT or MRI can be used if necessary to diagnose appendicitis.
Abdominal radiography is helpful in patients with constipation, possible bowel obstruction, or a history
of previous abdominal surgery.
The American Academy of Pediatrics Choosing Wisely recommendation on the evaluation of abdominal
pain states that CT is not always necessary. The American College of Surgeons Choosing Wisely
recommendation on the evaluation of suspected appendicitis in children says that CT should be avoided
until after ultrasonography has been considered as an option.
- You see a patient with a serum sodium level of 122 mEq/L (N 135–145) and a serum
osmolality of 255 mOsm/kg H2O (N 280–295). Which one of the following would best
correlate with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis?
A) A fractional excretion of sodium below 1%
B) Elevated urine osmolality
C) Elevated serum glucose
D) Elevated BUN
E) Low plasma arginine vasopressin
ANSWER: B
The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD, formerly SIADH) is related to a variety of pulmonary
and central nervous system disorders in which hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality are paradoxically
associated with an inappropriately concentrated urine. Most cases are associated with increased levels of
the antidiuretic hormone arginine vasopressin (AVP). Making a diagnosis of SIAD requires that the patient
be euvolemic and has not taken diuretics within the past 24–48 hours, and the urine osmolality must be
high in conjunction with both low serum sodium and low osmolality. The BUN should be normal or low
and the fractional excretion of sodium >1%.
Fluid restriction (<800 cc/24 hrs) over several days will correct the hyponatremia/hypo-osmolality, but
definitive treatment requires eliminating the underlying cause, if possible. In the case of severe, acute
hyponatremia with symptoms such as confusion, obtundation, or seizures, hypertonic (3%) saline can be
slowly infused intravenously but might have dangerous neurologic side effects.
Elevated serum glucose levels may cause a factitious hyponatremia, but not SIAD.
- A 45-year-old African-American male returns to your clinic to evaluate his progress after
6 months of dedicated adherence to a diet and exercise plan you prescribed to manage his
blood pressure. His blood pressure today is 148/96 mm Hg. He is not overweight and he
does not have other known medical conditions or drug allergies.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial antihypertensive treatment
option for this patient?
A) Chlorthalidone
B) Hydralazine
C) Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
D) Losartan (Cozaar)
E) Metoprolol
ANSWER: A
Lifestyle modifications addressing diet, physical activity, and weight are important in the treatment of
hypertension, particularly for African-American and Hispanic patients. When antihypertensive drugs are
also required, the best options may vary according to the racial and ethnic background of the patient. The
presence or absence of comorbid conditions is also important to consider. For African-Americans, thiazide
diuretics and calcium channel blockers, both as monotherapy and as a component in multidrug regimens,
have been shown to be more effective in lowering blood pressure than ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II
receptor blockers, or -blockers, and should be considered as first-line options over the other classes of
antihypertensive drugs unless a comorbid condition is present that would be better addressed with a
different class of drugs. Racial or ethnic background should not be the basis for the exclusion of any drug
class when multidrug regimens are required to reach treatment goals.
- An 85-year-old female with metastatic breast cancer requests hospice care. She has type 2
diabetes mellitus, stage 3 renal failure, and heart disease.
The patient’s eligibility for hospice care will be based on her
A) age
B) cancer diagnosis
C) comorbid conditions
D) life expectancy
E) Medicare Part B plan
ANSWER: D
Eligibility for hospice care is based on a life expectancy of 6 months or less in the natural course of an
illness. A majority of hospice patients have cancer but it is not a requirement to qualify for hospice care.
Age is not relevant. Comorbid conditions may affect longevity but are not required. For those insured by
Medicare, Medicare Part A provides hospice care but Medicare Part B does not.
- A 15-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of intermittent abdominal pain and
headaches. She does not have any associated weight loss, fever, nausea, change in bowel
habits, or other worrisome features. An examination is unremarkable. She does report being
stressed at school and has a PHQ-2 score of 4.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Further evaluation for depression
B) Laboratory studies
C) Abdominal imaging
D) Citalopram (Celexa)
E) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
ANSWER: A
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends depression screening for all adolescents 12–18
years of age. Although this patient has abdominal pain, the history and physical examination suggest that
depression may be playing a role in her somatic complaints. She had a positive initial depression screen
on her PHQ-2. This is a brief screening tool, and a positive result merits further evaluation. The evaluation
should include a full PHQ-A or a discussion with a qualified clinician. If the patient meets the criteria for
major depressive disorder then she should receive treatment for her depression, which could include
medication. Both fluoxetine and citalopram have been approved by the FDA to treat depression in this age
group. She could also be referred for psychotherapy. Further laboratory studies and imaging may be
appropriate at some point, but the most urgent need is to evaluate her positive depression screen.
- A 69-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus, obesity, and a history of coronary artery
disease sees you for follow-up of his diabetes. His hemoglobin A1c has increased to 8.7%
despite therapy with metformin (Glucophage), 1000 mg twice daily, and insulin glargine
(Lantus).
Which one of the following additional medications would be most effective for reducing his
blood glucose level and lowering his risk of cardiovascular events?
A) Exenatide (Byetta)
B) Glipizide (Glucotrol)
C) Liraglutide (Victoza)
D) Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
E) Sitagliptin (Januvia)
ANSWER: C
Liraglutide, exenatide, and dulaglutide are all GLP-1 receptor agonists. Of these, only liraglutide has been
shown to lower the risk of recurrent cardiovascular events and has received FDA approval for this
indication. Glipizide (a sulfonylurea), rosiglitazone, and sitagliptin have not been associated with improved
cardiovascular outcomes. Empagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor, has also been associated with secondary
prevention of cardiovascular disease.
20. A 2-year-old African-American male with a history of sickle cell disease is brought to your office for a well child check. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for screening at this time? A) A chest radiograph B) A DXA scan C) Abdominal ultrasonography D) Renal Doppler ultrasonography E) Transcranial Doppler ultrasonography
ANSWER: E
Individuals with sickle cell disease are at increased risk for vascular disease, especially stroke. All sickle
cell patients 2–16 years of age should be screened with transcranial Doppler ultrasonography (SOR A).
A chest radiograph, abdominal ultrasonography, a DXA scan, and renal Doppler ultrasonography are not
recommended for screening patients with sickle cell disease.
- You perform the initial newborn examination on a male on his first day of life, following an
uncomplicated vaginal delivery at an estimated gestational age of 37 weeks and 6 days. The
prenatal course was significant for the initial presentation for prenatal care at 22 weeks
gestation. You note that the infant’s upper lip is thin and the philtrum is somewhat flat.
Which additional finding would increase your concern for fetal alcohol syndrome?
A) Curvature of the fifth digit of the hand (clinodactyly)
B) A supernumerary digit of the hand
C) Flattening of the head (plagiocephaly)
D) Metatarsus adductus in one foot
E) Syndactyly of the toes (webbed feet)
ANSWER: A
In addition to clinodactyly, fetal alcohol syndrome is associated with camptodactyly (flexion deformity of
the fingers), other flexion contractures, radioulnar synostosis, scoliosis, and spinal malformations. It is
also associated with many neurologic, behavioral, and cardiovascular abnormalities, as well as other types
of abnormalities. Plagiocephaly, supernumerary digits, syndactyly, and metatarsus adductus are common
in newborns but are not related to fetal alcohol spectrum disorders.
- An otherwise healthy 3-year-old child with no allergies is found to have otitis media with
effusion in the right ear. Which one of the following would you recommend?
A) No treatment, and follow-up in 3 months
B) Amoxicillin
C) Oral antihistamines
D) Nasal corticosteroids
E) Tympanostomy tube placement
ANSWER: A
This child has otitis media with effusion, and the recommended course of action is to follow up in 3
months. Medications, including decongestants, antihistamines, antibiotics, and corticosteroids, are not
recommended.
- A 32-year-old male presents with a 4-week history of persistent low back pain. He started
feeling tightness in his low back after helping a friend move into a new apartment. The pain
does not radiate, there is no associated paresthesia or numbness, and he has not had any
bowel or bladder incontinence. The pain is constant and worsens with prolonged sitting. He
rates the pain as 6 on a scale of 10. Ibuprofen has provided minimal relief.
Examination of the lumbar area over the paraspinous muscles reveals minimal tenderness.
A neurovascular examination and a straight leg raise are normal in both lower extremities.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Imaging studies of the lumbar spine
B) A short course of an oral corticosteroid
C) Gabapentin (Neurontin) started at a low dose and titrated to effect
D) A skeletal muscle relaxant and an NSAID
E) A short-acting opioid and an NSAID
ANSWER: D
This patient has acute to subacute nonspecific low back pain. Combination treatment with an NSAID and
a skeletal muscle relaxant is recommended as second-line therapy when an NSAID is ineffective as
monotherapy. Opioids have not been shown to have significant benefit when added to an NSAID and
would not be recommended as a second-line treatment. Systemic corticosteroids do not have evidence to
support their use in the treatment of acute nonspecific back pain. Gabapentin does not have evidence to
support its use in treating acute back pain and has been shown to produce only minimal improvement in
chronic back pain. This patient has no red-flag symptoms so imaging studies are not recommended at this
time.
- A 48-year-old female with GERD treated with a proton pump inhibitor for the past 2 years
sees you for a routine visit. She reports that she has paresthesia and numbness in both feet.
Her hemoglobin A1c is 5.8%, her hemoglobin level is 10.4 g/dL (N 12.0–16.0), and her
mean corpuscular volume is 102 m3 (N 81–99). Microfilament testing shows decreased
sensation in both feet.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her peripheral neuropathy?
A) Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
B) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
C) Hyperthyroidism
D) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
E) Vitamin B12 deficiency
ANSWER: E
This patient has polyneuropathy, macrocytic anemia, and a history of chronic proton pump inhibitor use.
The most likely cause is vitamin B12 deficiency and a serum level is indicated. Her hemoglobin A1c is
5.8%, which puts her at risk of developing diabetes mellitus but is not indicative of diabetes.
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is a rare cause of polyneuropathy and unlikely in this case. Hypothyroidism,
and not hyperthyroidism, is associated with polyneuropathy. Tarsal tunnel syndrome causes a
mononeuropathy.
- A 60-year-old male presents with a several-month history of a dry cough and progressive
shortness of breath with exertion. On examination he has tachypnea and bibasilar
end-inspiratory dry crackles, and a chest radiograph reveals interstitial opacities.
Which one of the following patient occupations would most likely support a diagnosis of
silicosis?
A) Baker
B) Firefighter
C) Stone cutter
D) Goat dairy farmer
E) High-tech electronics fabricator
ANSWER: C
Family physicians should be aware of the environmental exposures associated with pulmonary disease.
Stone cutting, sand blasting, mining, and quarrying expose patients to silica, which is an inorganic dust
that causes pulmonary fibrosis (silicosis). Occupational exposure to beryllium, which is also an inorganic
dust, occurs in the high-tech electronics manufacturing industry and results in chronic beryllium lung
disease. Exposure to organic agricultural dusts (fungal spores, vegetable products, insect fragments, animal
dander, animal feces, microorganisms, and pollens) can result in “farmer’s lung,” a hypersensitivity
pneumonitis. Other organic dust exposures, such as exposures to grain dust in bakers, can lead to asthma,
chronic bronchitis, and COPD. Firefighters are at risk of smoke inhalation and are exposed to toxic
chemicals that can cause many acute and chronic respiratory symptoms.
- A 28-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of fatigue and postural
lightheadedness. On examination she is diffusely hyperpigmented, especially her skin creases
and areolae. A CBC and basic metabolic panel are normal except for an elevated potassium
level. You order a corticotropin stimulation test.
Prior to the corticotropin injection, you should order which one of the following tests to
confirm that this patient has a primary insufficiency and not a secondary (pituitary) disorder?
A) ACTH
B) Aldosterone
C) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
D) Renin
E) TSH
ANSWER: A
A plasma ACTH level is recommended to establish primary adrenal insufficiency. The sample can be
obtained at the same time as the baseline sample in the corticotropin test. A plasma ACTH greater than
twice the upper limit of the reference range is consistent with primary adrenal insufficiency. Aldosterone
and renin levels should be obtained to establish the presence of adrenocortical insufficiency, but these do
not differentiate primary from secondary adrenal insufficiency. The hyperpigmentation of Addison’s
disease is caused by the melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)–like effect of the elevated plasma levels
of ACTH. ACTH shares some amino acids with MSH and also produces an increase in MSH in the blood.
TSH is not part of the feedback loop of adrenal insufficiency.
- You see a 3-year-old female with a 2-day history of intermittent abdominal cramps, two
episodes of emesis yesterday, and about five watery, nonbloody stools each day. She does
not have a fever, her other vital signs are normal, and she has not traveled recently. Today
she has tolerated sips of fluid but still has mild fatigue and thirst. An examination is normal
except for mildly dry lips. A friend at preschool had a similar illness recently.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial management of this
patient?
A) A sports drink and food on demand
B) Half-strength apple juice and food on demand
C) Ginger ale and no food yet
D) Water and no food yet
E) A bolus of intravenous normal saline and no food yet
ANSWER: B
Family physicians often see patients with diarrheal illnesses and most of these are viral. Patients sometimes
have misconceptions about preferred fluid and feeding recommendations during these illnesses. The World
Health Organization recommends oral rehydration with low osmolarity drinks (oral rehydration solution)
and early refeeding. Half-strength apple juice has been shown to be effective, and it approximates an oral
rehydration solution. Its use prevents patient measurement errors and the purchase of beverages with an
inappropriate osmolarity. Low osmolarity solutions contain glucose and water, which decrease stool
frequency, emesis, and the need for intravenous fluids compared to higher osmolarity solutions like soda
and most sports drinks. Water increases the risk of hyponatremia in children. This patient is not ill enough
to need intravenous fluids. Early refeeding has been shown to decrease the duration of illness.
- A 32-year-old female requests a physical examination prior to participating in an adult
soccer league. Her blood pressure is 118/70 mm Hg and her pulse rate is 68 beats/min. The
examination is otherwise normal except for a systolic murmur that intensifies with Valsalva
maneuvers. She says that she has recently been experiencing mild exertional dyspnea and
moderate chest pain. The chest pain has been atypical and is not necessarily related to
exertion. Echocardiography reveals hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
In addition to referring the patient to a cardiologist, you recommended initiating therapy with
A) amiodarone (Cordarone)
B) amlodipine (Norvasc)
C) furosemide (Lasix)
D) lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
E) metoprolol
ANSWER: E
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is the most common primary cardiomyopathy, with a prevalence of 1:500
persons. Many patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are asymptomatic and are diagnosed during
family screening, by auscultation of a heart murmur, or incidentally after an abnormal result on
electrocardiography. On examination physicians may hear a systolic murmur that increases in intensity
during Valsalva maneuvers. The main goals of therapy are to decrease exertional dyspnea and chest pain
and prevent sudden cardiac death. -Blockers are the initial therapy for patients with symptomatic
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers such as verapamil can be
used if -blockers are not well tolerated.
- An 85-year-old female with advanced Alzheimer’s disease is brought to your office for
treatment of agitation, aggressive behavior, and delusions. Behavioral and psychological
interventions have had little success and the family is willing to try medications because they
prefer to keep the patient at home.
Which one of the following would most likely help control this patient’s symptoms?
A) Alprazolam (Xanax)
B) Aripiprazole (Abilify)
C) Clozapine (Clozaril)
D) Donepezil (Aricept)
E) Haloperidol
ANSWER: B
Nonpharmacologic interventions are the first-line treatment for patients with behavioral and psychological
symptoms of dementia. Antipsychotic medications can be prescribed for refractory cases but this is an
off-label use. Both the patient and family should be aware that the use of atypical antipsychotics for
behavioral symptoms of dementia is associated with increased mortality. Patients should be monitored for
side effects and the medication should be discontinued if there is no evidence of symptom improvement
after a month.
Typical antipsychotics such as haloperidol have significant side effects and would not be a good choice.
Donepezil is initiated early in the course of Alzheimer’s disease to delay progression of the disease.
Benzodiazepines are likely to cause significant side effects including sedation, increased confusion, and
falls. Several of the antipsychotics, such as ziprasidone and clozapine, are ineffective. Results with
olanzapine, quetiapine, and risperidone are inconsistent. Aripiprazole produces small reductions in
behavioral and psychological symptoms of dementia, and it has the least adverse effects of the atypical
antipsychotics.
- A 30-year-old female with anovulatory uterine bleeding asks about treatment options. An
examination is normal and blood testing is negative. She is unmarried and is undecided about
having children.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Oral progestin during the luteal phase
B) A levonorgestrel-releasing IUD
C) Endometrial ablation
D) Hysterectomy
ANSWER: B
Few treatments for dysfunctional uterine bleeding have been studied. NSAIDs, oral contraceptive pills,
and danazol have not been shown to have sufficient evidence of effect for the treatment of dysfunctional
uterine bleeding. Progestin is effective when used on a 21-day cycle, but not if used only during the luteal
phase. Hysterectomy and ablation are very effective, but both eliminate fertility. In a young woman unsure
about having children, the levonorgestrel-releasing IUD is the most effective treatment that preserves
fertility (SOR A).
- A 73-year-old male with advanced degenerative arthritis of the knees asks what you would
recommend for relief. He does not wish to have a total knee replacement. He says that
NSAIDs have not been effective.
Which one of the following would be the best recommendation?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Intra-articular corticosteroids
C) Intra-articular hylan GF 20 (Synvisc)
D) Physical therapy for quadriceps strengthening
E) Tramadol (Ultram)
ANSWER: D
Quadriceps-strengthening exercises have been shown in good studies to stabilize the knee and reduce pain
for patients with degenerative arthritis. Acetaminophen has not been shown to produce clinically significant
improvement from baseline pain. Intra-articular corticosteroids can acutely relieve pain and effusions but
do not affect moderate-term outcomes. Hylan GF 20 products are minimally effective. Opiates and other
similar drugs are addictive and should be avoided.
- A 66-year-old male recently underwent percutaneous angioplasty for persistent angina with
exertion. He does not have any symptoms now. His LDL-cholesterol level is 90 mg/dL.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate for secondary prevention of this
patient’s coronary artery disease?
A) No drug treatment
B) Evolocumab (Repatha), 140 mg subcutaneously every 2 weeks
C) Ezetimibe (Zetia), 10 mg daily
D) Rosuvastatin (Crestor), 20 mg daily
E) Simvastatin (Zocor), 40 mg daily
ANSWER: D
Patients <75 years of age with established coronary artery disease should be on high-intensity statin
regimens if tolerated. These regimens include atorvastatin, 40–80 mg/day, and rosuvastatin, 20–40
mg/day. Moderate-intensity regimens include simvastatin, 40 mg/day. Monotherapy with non-statin
medications (bile acid sequestrants, niacin, ezetimibe, and fibrates) does not reduce cardiovascular
morbidity or mortality. The PCSK9 inhibitors evolocumab and alirocumab are second-line or add-on
therapies at this time.
- A 62-year-old female who is a new patient requests a thyroid evaluation because she has a
history of abnormal thyroid test results. You obtain a copy of her records, which include a
TSH level of 0.2 U/mL (N 0.4–4.2) and a free T4 level of 2.0 ng/dL (N 0.8–2.7) from 3
years ago. She reports feeling well and has no other health conditions. She does not take any
medications.
A physical examination reveals normal vital signs, a BMI of 23.0 kg/m2, no neck masses,
a normal thyroid size, and normal heart sounds. Laboratory studies reveal a TSH level of
0.1 U/mL, a free T4 level of 2.5 ng/dL, and a free T3 level of 3.1 pg/mL (N 2.3–4.2).
Treatment for this condition would be indicated if the patient has an abnormal
A) calcium level
B) DXA scan
C) glucose level
D) lipid level
E) thyroid ultrasonography study
ANSWER: B
This patient has subclinical hyperthyroidism as evidenced by her low TSH level with normal free T4 and
free T3 levels. Common causes of subclinical hyperthyroidism include Graves disease, autonomous
functioning thyroid adenoma, and multinodular toxic goiter. Subclinical hyperthyroidism may progress to
overt hyperthyroidism; this is more likely in patients with TSH levels <0.1 U/mL. Even in the absence
of overt hyperthyroidism these patients are at higher risk for several health conditions, including atrial
fibrillation, heart failure, and osteoporosis. For this reason it is important to assess for these conditions
and consider treating the underlying thyroid condition, as well as the complication. The American Thyroid
Association recommends treating patients with complications who are either over age 65 or have a TSH
level <0.1 U/mL.
Lipid and glucose abnormalities are not known to be related to subclinical hyperthyroidism. Calcium levels
may be abnormal in hyperparathyroidism but not hyperthyroidism. Thyroid ultrasonography may be
helpful to determine the cause of hyperthyroidism but is not used to help decide when to treat subclinical
hyperthyroidism.
- A 43-year-old male who works in a warehouse sees you because of dizziness. He first
noticed mild dizziness when he rolled over and got out of bed this morning. He had several
more severe episodes that were accompanied by nausea, and on one occasion vomiting
occurred after he tilted his head upward to look for items on the higher shelves at work. You
suspect benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, so you perform the Dix-Hallpike maneuver
as part of the examination.
Which one of the following findings during the examination would confirm the diagnosis?
A) Nystagmus when vertigo is elicited
B) Vertigo that occurs immediately following the test-related head movement
C) Persistence of vertigo for 5 minutes following the test-related head movement
D) A drop in systolic blood pressure of >10 mm Hg when supine
ANSWER: A
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) originates in the posterior semicircular canal in the majority
of patients (85%–95% range reported). The Dix-Hallpike maneuver, which involves moving the patient
from an upright to a supine position with the head turned 45° to one side and the neck extended 20° with
the affected ear down, will elicit a specific series of responses in these patients. Following a latency period
that typically lasts 5–20 seconds but sometimes as long as 60 seconds, the patient will experience the onset
of rotational vertigo. The objective finding of a torsional, upbeating nystagmus will be associated with the
vertigo. The vertigo and nystagmus typically increase in intensity and then resolve within 1 minute from
onset.
- You are initiating pharmacologic therapy for a 75-year-old patient with depression. Which
one of the following would be most appropriate for this patient?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C) Imipramine (Tofranil)
D) Paroxetine (Paxil)
ANSWER: B
Escitalopram is a preferred antidepressant for older patients (SOR C). Paroxetine should generally be
avoided in older patients due to a higher likelihood of adverse effects (SOR C). Amitriptyline, imipramine,
and paroxetine are highly anticholinergic and sedating, and according to the Beers Criteria, they can cause
orthostatic hypotension. They have an “avoid” recommendation (SOR A).
- A 58-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history comes to your office to discuss
screening for COPD. His older brother and sister have both recently been diagnosed with
COPD and he wants to be screened for this soon. He continues to smoke and does not
express a desire to quit. He does not have shortness of breath, cough, orthopnea,
paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, or dyspnea on exertion. His only medication is aspirin, 81
mg daily. He has never used inhaled medications such as albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin). His
family history is otherwise negative. You counsel him on tobacco cessation today.
Which one of the following is recommended with regard to COPD screening for this patient?
A) No screening
B) Spirometry with pre- and postbronchodilator testing
C) Posteroanterior and lateral chest radiographs
D) Noncontrast CT of the chest
E) 1-Antitrypsin deficiency gene testing
ANSWER: A
All patients with a smoking history and symptoms of COPD such as a chronic cough with sputum
production and/or chronic and progressive dyspnea should be screened for COPD with spirometry.
However, asymptomatic individuals such as this patient should not be screened with spirometry regardless
of risk factors. Neither chest radiography nor chest CT has a role in screening for COPD. Screening for
1-antitrypsin deficiency in the absence of a family history is not recommended.
- The dietary herbal supplement with the highest risk for drug interactions is
A) black cohosh
B) ginseng
C) St. John’s wort (Hypericum perforatum)
D) saw palmetto
E) valerian
ANSWER: C
St. John’s wort can reduce the effectiveness of multiple medications because it is an inducer of CYP3A4
and P-glycoprotein synthesis. Concurrent use of St. John’s wort with drugs that are metabolized with these
systems should be avoided. These include cyclosporine, warfarin, theophylline, and oral contraceptives.
St. John’s wort should be avoided in patients taking either over-the-counter or prescription medications.
- A 32-year-old female sees you for a health maintenance visit. She reports that she
experiences severe anxiety when involved in social situations. She lives with her mother and
dreads meeting unfamiliar people. At work she remains in her cubicle throughout the day
and avoids staff parties. She has a history of alcoholism in remission. She has otherwise
been in good health and a physical examination is normal.
Which one of the following would be first-line treatment for this patient?
A) Amitriptyline
B) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
C) Escitalopram (Lexapro)
D) Lorazepam (Ativan)
E) Pregabalin (Lyrica)
ANSWER: C
Social anxiety disorder can be treated with psychotherapy, pharmacotherapy, or both. Several medications
have been used for the treatment of social anxiety disorder. SSRIs are considered to be the first-line
pharmacologic treatment. Response rates reported for the SNRI venlafaxine have been similar to those
reported for SSRIs. Randomized trials have also supported the efficacy of benzodiazepines for social
anxiety disorder, but they carry a risk of physiologic dependence and withdrawal symptoms and are not
recommended for patients with coexisting depression or a history of substance abuse. Response rates to
pregabalin have been lower than with SSRIs. Tricyclic antidepressants and bupropion are not considered
to be useful in the treatment of social anxiety disorder.
- A 67-year-old female presents with a swollen wrist after falling on her outstretched hand.
A radiograph of the affected wrist is shown below.
Prior to surgical intervention, you recommend application of a
A) radial gutter splint
B) sugar tong splint
C) thumb spica splint
D) forearm circumferential cast
ANSWER: B
Fractures involving the distal end of the radius are the most common upper extremity fractures and are
most common in elderly women. The mechanism of injury is usually from falling on an outstretched hand
(FOOSH). Prompt surgical intervention is recommended in patients with neurovascular compromise, open
fractures, or evidence of compartment syndrome. In general, circumferential casts should be avoided, as
the underlying swelling can compromise distal circulation. The splint of choice in patients with these
fractures is a sugar tong splint. Radial gutter splints are indicated for uncomplicated fractures of the second
and third metacarpals. Thumb spica splints are often used in patients with suspected scaphoid fractures
(SOR B).
- A 7-year-old female with asthma is brought to your office because of her fourth episode of
wheezing in the last 3 months. She has also had to use her short-acting -agonist rescue
inhaler more frequently.
Which one of the following should be added to reduce the frequency of asthma
exacerbations?
A) A leukotriene receptor antagonist
B) A long-acting -agonist
C) An inhaled corticosteroid
D) Inhaled cromolyn via nebulizer
ANSWER: C
Pediatric asthma is the most commonly encountered chronic illness, occurring in nearly one out of seven
individuals. Short-acting -agonists in the form of metered-dose inhalers are clearly favored for acute
exacerbations, as well as for intermittent asthma. Treatment for persistent asthma requires the use of
inhaled corticosteroids, with short-acting -agonists used for exacerbations. For patients not well controlled
with those options, either a long-acting -agonist or a leukotriene receptor antagonist may be added. While
both cromolyn and nedocromil are fairly devoid of adverse effects, their use is limited because of a lack
of efficacy in the prevention of acute asthma exacerbations.
- A 55-year-old female presents with the new onset of palpitations. An underlying cardiac
cause should be suspected if the patient’s palpitations
A) affect her sleep
B) are associated with dry mouth
C) are worse in public places
D) last less than 5 minutes
ANSWER: A
Palpitations are a common symptom in ambulatory care. Cardiac causes are the most worrisome so it is
important to distinguish cardiac from noncardiac causes. Patients with a history of cardiovascular disease,
palpitations that affect their sleep, or palpitations that occur at work have an increased risk of an underlying
cardiac cause (positive likelihood ratio 2.0–2.3) (SOR C). Psychiatric illness, adverse effects of
medications, and substance abuse are other common causes.
Palpitations that are worse in public places and those of very short duration (<5 minutes), especially if
there is a history of anxiety, are often related to panic disorder. However, even a known behavioral issue
should not be presumed to be the cause of palpitations, as nonpsychiatric causes are found in up to 13%
of such cases. The use of illicit substances such as cocaine and methamphetamine can cause palpitations
that are associated with dry mouth, pupillary dilation, sweating, and aberrant behavior. Excessive caffeine
can also cause palpitations.
- A 69-year-old female presents with scaling, redness, and irritation under her breasts for the
past several months. She has tried several over-the-counter antifungal creams without any
improvement. On examination you note erythematous, well demarcated patches with some
scale under both breasts. You examine the rash with a Wood’s lamp to confirm your
suspected diagnosis.
This rash is most likely to fluoresce
A) bright yellow
B) coral pink
C) lime green
D) pale blue
E) totally white
ANSWER: B
A Wood’s lamp may assist with the diagnosis of certain skin conditions. This patient’s presentation is
consistent with erythrasma caused by a Corynebacterium minutissimum infection, and use of an ultraviolet
light would reveal a coral pink color. Pale blue fluorescence occurs with Pseudomonas infections, yellow
with tinea infections, and totally white with vitiligo. A lime green fluorescence is not characteristic of a
particular skin condition.
- A 25-year-old female who recently moved to the area comes in for a well woman visit. She
reports that she has had yearly Papanicolaou (Pap) tests and sexually transmitted infection
(STI) screening since age 21 with no abnormal results. She has had a total of six sexual
partners. She is asymptomatic and does not have any history of STIs or new partners in the
past year. Your nurse informs her that STI screening can be done, but a Pap test is not
necessary at this time.
The patient is concerned about not having a Pap test this year and asks you why it is not
recommended. You explain that the most important reason is that
A) she has no history of STIs
B) she has had several normal Pap tests in a row
C) she is in a low-risk group for HPV infection
D) Pap test abnormalities would require no further evaluation in a patient her age
E) the risk of harm from unnecessary procedures and treatment exceeds the potential
benefit at her age
ANSWER: E
Annual HPV screening in patients age 21–29 years has very little effect on cancer prevention and leads
to an increase in procedures and treatments without significant benefit. In this age group there is a high
prevalence of high-risk HPV infections but a low incidence of cervical cancer. If this patient were due for
a Papanicolaou (Pap) test and results were ASC-US with a positive high-risk HPV or a higher grade
abnormality, colposcopy would be recommended. Current recommendations are for a Pap test with
cytology every 3 years for women age 21–29 years with normal results, and the frequency does not change
with an increased number of normal screens. HPV is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)
and up to 79% of sexually active women contract HPV infection in their lifetime, so the lack of other STIs
does not preclude the possibility of an HPV infection.
- A 42-year-old male with hypertension and hyperlipidemia sees you for a routine health
maintenance examination. His blood pressure is 185/105 mm Hg. He does not have any
current symptoms, including headache, chest pain, edema, or shortness of breath. He is
adherent to his current medication regimen, which includes lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 10
mg daily, and simvastatin (Zocor), 20 mg at night. A thorough history and physical
examination are both unremarkable.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step?
A) A 30-minute rest period followed by a repeat blood pressure reading
B) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.2 mg given in the office
C) A comprehensive metabolic panel, fasting lipid profile, and TSH level
D) A stress test
E) Hospital admission for blood pressure reduction
ANSWER: A
The first step in the management of severe hypertension is determining whether a hypertensive emergency
is present. A thorough history and physical examination are crucial (SOR C). Severe hypertension (blood
pressure >180 mm Hg systolic or >110 mm Hg diastolic) with end-organ damage constitutes a
hypertensive emergency. A physical examination should center on evaluating for papilledema, neurologic
deficits, respiratory compromise, and chest pain. If end-organ damage is present the patient should be
hospitalized for monitored blood pressure reduction and further diagnostic workup. If end-organ damage
is not present and the physical examination is otherwise normal, a 30-minute rest with reevaluation is
indicated. Approximately 30% of patients will improve to an acceptable blood pressure without treatment
(SOR C). Home medications should then be adjusted with outpatient follow-up and home blood pressure
monitoring (SOR A). Short-acting antihypertensives are indicated if mild symptoms are noted such as
headache, lightheadedness, nausea, shortness of breath, palpitations, anxiety, or epistaxis. Diagnostic
testing is not immediately indicated for asymptomatic patients (SOR C). A basic metabolic panel or other
testing should be considered if mild symptoms are present. Aggressive lowering of blood pressure can be
detrimental and a gradual reduction over days to weeks is preferred (SOR C).
- You see a 53-year-old female with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, mixed hyperlipidemia,
and GERD. Recent laboratory studies include an incidental finding of thrombocytopenia.
The patient has no other significant past medical history, and she does not use tobacco or
drink alcohol. Her current medications include metformin (Glucophage), lisinopril (Prinivil,
Zestril), omeprazole (Prilosec), calcium citrate, and pravastatin (Pravachol). A physical
examination is notable for a BMI of 31.3 kg/m2. Her skin, heart, lungs, abdomen, and
extremities are normal. Results of a CBC and a comprehensive metabolic panel are normal
with the following exceptions:
Platelets 70,000 (N 150,000–379,000)
Glucose 108 mg/dL
Bilirubin 0.4 mg/dL (N 0.0–0.4)
Alkaline phosphatase 175 U/L (N 38–126)
ALT (SGPT) 52 U/L (N 10–28)
A peripheral smear is normal except for reduced platelets. Tests for hepatitis B, hepatitis C,
and HIV are negative.
The most likely etiology of this patient’s thrombocytopenia is
A) a hematologic malignancy
B) chronic liver disease
C) drug-induced thrombocytopenia
D) immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
E) primary bone marrow failure
ANSWER: B
This patient presents with a typical example of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) progressing toward
cirrhosis, with multiple risk factors including diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, obesity, and mildly
elevated hepatic transaminases. Abnormalities of other cell lines would likely occur if a hematologic
malignancy or bone marrow failure were present. While immune thrombocytopenic purpura is a diagnostic
consideration, it is much less common than NASH and requires other causes to be ruled out. This patient
is not taking any medications that have been frequently reported to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia.
- A patient has a past medical history that includes a sleeve gastrectomy for weight loss.
Which one of the following medications should be AVOIDED in this patient?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Gabapentin (Neurontin)
C) Hydrocodone
D) Ibuprofen
E) Tramadol (Ultram)
ANSWER: D
NSAIDs such as ibuprofen are thought to increase the risk of anastomotic ulcerations or perforations in
patients who have had bariatric surgery and should be completely avoided after such surgery if possible
(C Recommendation, Level of evidence 3). It is also recommended that alternative pain medications that
can be used are identified prior to the surgery (D Recommendation). Options such as acetaminophen,
gabapentin, hydrocodone, and tramadol can be considered in patients who have had bariatric surgery if
the medications are clinically appropriate otherwise.
- An 11-year-old female is referred to you after a sports physical examination because 2+
protein was found on a random dipstick urinalysis. She feels well and does not have any
health concerns. She plays soccer an average of 5 days a week.
The patient’s medical history is unremarkable and she takes no medications. Menarche has
not occurred. She does not report any urinary or back symptoms, recent illness, edema, or
weight change. A physical examination is normal. A dipstick urinalysis in your office shows
1+ protein but is otherwise normal.
Which one of the following would you recommend next?
A) Withdrawing from all physical activity for 24 hours and a 24-hour urine for protein
B) A spot protein/creatinine ratio performed on first morning urine
C) Serum BUN, creatinine, electrolyte, and albumin levels
D) Ultrasonography of the kidneys and bladder
E) Referral to a pediatric nephrologist
ANSWER: B
It is important to distinguish serious illness from benign causes of proteinuria, which are the most common
etiology in children. Confirming the presence of proteinuria is the next step in this case because functional
(exercise/stress-induced) and orthostatic proteinuria are common types of proteinuria and are transient. A
24-hour urine for protein is a possible option, but would be impractical and burdensome for a
healthy-acting 11-year-old. The pediatric nephrology panel of the National Kidney Foundation reported
that a spot protein/creatinine ratio is a reliable test for ruling out proteinuria. A specialist referral, blood
analysis, and ultrasonography are unnecessary unless persistent proteinuria is identified.
- Intensive behavioral intervention has more benefit than other treatment modalities in treating
children who have been diagnosed with
A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
B) autism
C) depression
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder
E) posttraumatic stress disorder
ANSWER: B
The only evidence-based treatment that confers significant benefits to children with autism is intensive
behavioral interventions, which should be initiated before 3 years of age. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity
disorder can be treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) but medication is often required. CBT is
as effective, if not more effective, than medication for treating anxiety, depression, and trauma-related
disorders.
- A patient asks which shingles vaccine he should receive. Which one of the following is an
advantage of the recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) compared to the live zoster vaccine
(Zostavax)?
A) Improved efficacy
B) Lower cost
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Proven safety for immunocompromised patients
E) Administration as a single dose
ANSWER: A
The recombinant zoster vaccine is preferred over the live zoster vaccine due to its increased efficacy. The
recombinant vaccine is estimated to be about 97% effective for preventing shingles, compared to 51% with
the live vaccine. It requires two intramuscular doses separated by 2–6 months, compared to only one
subcutaneous dose with the live vaccine. It is also slightly more expensive than the live vaccine. Although
the recombinant vaccine is not a live vaccine, studies are still ongoing as to whether it is safe to give to
immunocompromised patients.
- A 45-year-old female sees you because of an increase in fibromyalgia pain. On examination
she has a BMI of 35.6 kg/m2 and normal vital signs except for a blood pressure of 156/91
mm Hg. Her other medical problems include obstructive sleep apnea, type 2 diabetes
mellitus, hypertension, and generalized anxiety disorder. She smokes one pack of cigarettes
daily and does not drink alcohol. She is currently taking metformin (Glucophage), 500 mg
twice daily; lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 10 mg daily; gabapentin (Neurontin), 300 mg 3
times daily; oxycodone (OxyContin), 10 mg every 6 hours; and lorazepam (Ativan), 1 mg
3 times daily.
Which one of the following findings in this patient’s history greatly increases her risk of an
accidental overdose?
A) Tobacco use
B) Morbid obesity
C) Use of oxycodone
D) Use of oxycodone and lorazepam
E) Use of lorazepam and gabapentin
ANSWER: D
The increase in opiate-related accidental overdoses has become a significant concern in recent years,
prompting the CDC to release updated guidelines for the use of narcotic medications for chronic noncancer
pain. There are several concerning issues in this patient’s care. Her obstructive sleep apnea, psychiatric
ailments, and concurrent use of opiates and benzodiazepines all increase the risk of an accidental overdose.
The CDC also warns against using opiates in patients with heart failure, chronic pulmonary diseases, and
a personal history of drug or alcohol abuse.
These risks are so great that the CDC recommends that chronic noncancer pain be primarily treated with
nonpharmacologic and nonopiate medications. The use of opioids should be reserved for recalcitrant cases
under close supervision at the lowest effective dose for the shortest time possible. The CDC also
recommends against using opiates in fibromyalgia and neuropathy due to limited efficacy and side-effect
profiles (SOR B). The concurrent use of opiates and benzodiazepines should be avoided in nearly all
situations (SOR C). Safety should never be compromised for reduced pain and increased functionality.
- A 34-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of a minimally productive cough. She
has never smoked. She does not have any fever, weight loss, rhinorrhea, congestion, or
heartburn. She does not have a known history of allergies or asthma and has tried
over-the-counter cold remedies, cough syrups, and cough drops without significant relief.
She is otherwise healthy and takes no medications. On examination her vital signs are
normal. An ear, nose, and throat examination is remarkable for swollen nasal turbinates. A
lung examination is normal. Given the duration of the cough, you order a chest radiograph,
which is normal as well.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) A trial of an intranasal corticosteroid
B) A trial of an inhaled bronchodilator
C) A trial of a proton pump inhibitor
D) A sinus radiograph
E) Referral for allergy testing
ANSWER: A
According to the CDC, cough is the most common symptom resulting in primary care visits. Chronic
cough in adults is defined as one that lasts 8 weeks or more. The workup should include a history focusing
on potential triggers, as well as the identification of any red flags. If the physical examination is normal
and the patient’s history does not indicate the cause of the cough, a chest radiograph is appropriate.
The most common cause of chronic cough in adults is upper airway cough syndrome. Patients might have
nasal symptoms such as rhinorrhea or congestion. Physical findings can include swollen turbinates and
posterior pharyngeal cobblestoning, or they can be unremarkable. Initial treatment may include the use of
decongestants, oral or intranasal antihistamines, intranasal corticosteroids, or saline nasal rinses (SOR C).
Symptoms should resolve within a few weeks, and referral for allergy testing can be considered if they are
not resolved within 2 months. CT of the sinuses can be considered as well, but sinus radiographs are more
specific.
Other common causes of chronic cough include asthma, nonasthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis, and GERD.
If asthma is suspected, spirometry is indicated. If spirometry is positive for asthma, a trial of an inhaled
bronchodilator is indicated. If there are other indications of GERD such as heartburn, globus sensation,
or hoarseness, an antacid or a trial of a proton pump inhibitor is indicated.
- A 68-year-old female presents with a history of episodic severe lower abdominal pain
relieved by defecation. She has had a long history of constipation with normal to very firm
stools. Her history and a physical examination are otherwise normal. A colonoscopy 3 years
ago was normal. You diagnose constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome.
Which one of the following agents would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Lactulose
B) Magnesium citrate
C) Milk of magnesia
D) Polyethylene glycol
E) Sodium phosphate
ANSWER: D
Hypertonic osmotic laxatives such as milk of magnesia, magnesium citrate, and sodium phosphate draw
water into the bowel and should be used with caution in older adults and those with renal impairment
because of the risk of electrolyte abnormalities and dehydration in patients with irritable bowel syndrome
(IBS). Lactulose, also an osmotic laxative, should be avoided in patients with IBS because it is broken
down by colonic flora and produces excessive gas. Polyethylene glycol, a long-chain polymer of ethylene
oxide, is a large molecule that causes water to be retained in the colon, which softens the stool and
increases the number of bowel movements. It is approved by the FDA for short-term treatment in adults
and children with occasional constipation and is commonly prescribed for patients with IBS. It is
considered safe and effective for moderate to severe constipation when used either daily or as needed.
- A 48-year-old male presents with pain in the right antecubital fossa after lifting a trailer in
his garage. On examination you note ecchymosis and tenderness in the antecubital fossa.
You suspect a possible distal biceps tendon rupture.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) A Speed’s test
B) Plain radiographs of the elbow
C) MRI of the elbow
D) A local corticosteroid injection
E) Referral for physical therapy
ANSWER: C
Distal biceps tendon ruptures are relatively uncommon, accounting for about 3% of tendon ruptures. In
a patient with a suspected distal biceps tendon rupture, clinical signs can be unreliable and MRI imaging
is the test of choice. Bony abnormalities do not contribute to the evaluation of this tendon. A Speed’s test
is used to evaluate pain related to the long head of the biceps tendon. Surgical repair is the treatment of
choice when the tendon is ruptured. Physical therapy and local corticosteroid injections are not beneficial.
- A 72-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus sees you for routine follow-up. He takes
metformin (Glucophage), 1000 mg twice daily. He is sedentary and does not adhere to his
diet. His BMI is 32.0 kg/m2. The examination is otherwise within normal limits. His
hemoglobin A1c is 9.5%.
Which one of the following is recommended by the American Diabetes Association to better
control his blood glucose?
A) Start an intensive diet and exercise program for weight loss
B) Start home monitoring of blood glucose with close follow-up
C) Start basal insulin at 10 units/day
D) Stop metformin and start a sulfonylurea
E) Stop metformin and start a basal and bolus insulin regimen
ANSWER: C
According to the American Diabetes Association’s 2018 guidelines for the management of diabetes, a
healthy person with a reasonable life expectancy should have a hemoglobin A1c goal of <7%. Metformin
is recommended as first-line therapy as long as there are no contraindications. If the hemoglobin A1c is not
at the goal or is 9%, then adding another agent to metformin is recommended. Basal insulin at 10
units/day is an acceptable choice for additional therapy to improve blood glucose control. Diet, exercise,
and home monitoring of blood glucose are recommended in addition to starting another agent for blood
glucose control.
- A 47-year-old male presents with bilateral lower extremity edema of undetermined etiology
extending to the proximal lower extremities, associated with fatigue. His lipid levels were
also very high on recent testing. He does not take any daily medications and his thyroid
function is normal. The only significant findings on examination are lower extremity edema
and some periorbital edema.
Which one of the following urine tests could help confirm the most likely diagnosis?
A) Crystals
B) Ketones
C) pH
D) Protein
E) Specific gravity
ANSWER: D
Nephrotic syndrome includes peripheral edema, heavy proteinuria, and hypoalbuminemia. Hyperlipidemia
also occurs frequently and can be significant. Nephrotic-range proteinuria is a spot urine showing a
protein/creatinine ratio >3.0–3.5 mg protein/mg creatinine or a 24-hour urine collection showing
>3.0–3.5 g of protein. Testing urine for ketones, pH, specific gravity, or crystals does not help to
diagnose nephrotic syndrome.
- You are notified by the nurse that a 66-year-old female who was admitted for pain control
for her bone metastases is still having breakthrough pain. You gave her 10 mg of
immediate-release oxycodone (Roxicodone) 15 minutes ago.
You are hoping to optimize pain control and minimize sedation, so you advise the nurse that
the last dose will have its peak effect
A) now
B) 1 hour after it was given
C) 2 hours after it was given
D) 4 hours after it was given
ANSWER: B
Most orally administered immediate-release opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, and hydromorphone
reach their peak effect at about 1 hour, at which time additional medication can be given if the patient is
still in pain. Intravenous opioids reach their peak effect at about 10 minutes and intramuscular and
subcutaneous opioids at about 20–30 minutes. Additional medication may therefore be given at those
intervals if additional pain relief is required.
- A 62-year-old female has a history of COPD graded as moderate on pulmonary function
testing, with an FEV1 of 65% of predicted and a PaO2 of 57 mm Hg. Because her symptoms
of dyspnea on exertion and fatigue seem out of proportion to her pulmonary function tests,
you order echocardiography, which shows a pulmonary artery systolic pressure of 50 mm
Hg, indicating pulmonary hypertension.
Which one of the following would be most effective for decreasing mortality in this
situation?
A) Supplemental oxygen
B) An endothelin receptor antagonist such as bosentan (Tracleer)
C) A calcium channel blocker such as nifedipine (Procardia)
D) A phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitor such as sildenafil (Revatio)
E) Referral for pulmonary artery endarterectomy
ANSWER: A
The only proven therapy for pulmonary hypertension related to COPD is supplemental oxygen.
Supplemental oxygen should be recommended when the PaO2 is <60 mm Hg, because it has been shown
to improve mortality by lowering pulmonary arterial pressures. Treatments effective for pulmonary artery
hypertension should not be used. Pulmonary vasodilators such as nifedipine, sildenafil, and bosentan may
cause a ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Pulmonary endarterectomy may be indicated for pulmonary
hypertension caused by chronic thromboembolic disease.
58. Which one of the following antihypertensive drugs may reduce the severity of sleep apnea? A) Amlodipine (Norvasc) B) Hydralazine C) Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) D) Metoprolol E) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
ANSWER: E
Diuretics lessen the severity of obstructive sleep apnea and reduce blood pressure. Aldosterone antagonists
offer further benefit beyond that of traditional diuretics. Resistant hypertension is common in patients with
obstructive sleep apnea. Resistant hypertension is also associated with higher levels of aldosterone, which
can lead to secondary pharyngeal edema, increasing upper airway obstruction.
- The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends screening all adults for obesity and
offering intensive, multicomponent behavioral interventions to patients with a BMI 30
kg/m2. This recommendation is based on trials that show that behavioral weight-loss
interventions for overweight and obese patients with elevated plasma glucose levels reduce
the incidence of diabetes mellitus by 30%–50% over 2–3 years and the number needed to
treat is 7.
What is the absolute risk reduction for developing diabetes, based on these trials?
A) 1/7
B) 1/5
C) 1/0.7
D) 1/0.2
E) 1/0.02
ANSWER: A
The number needed to treat (NNT) is defined as the number of people who would need to receive an
intervention in order for one person to benefit. It is the inverse of the absolute risk reduction (ARR). The
ARR is the difference in risk for a disease without and with an intervention. The correct formula for
calculating NNT is 1/ARR.
- A 25-year-old female sees you because of irregular menses, hirsutism, and moderate acne.
She is sexually active in a monogamous relationship with a male, has never been pregnant,
and prefers not to become pregnant at this time.
Which one of the following is considered first-line therapy?
A) Clomiphene (Clomid)
B) Letrozole (Femara)
C) Levonorgestrel/ethinyl estradiol
D) Metformin (Glucophage)
E) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
ANSWER: C
The Endocrine Society recommends hormonal contraception as the first-line medication for women
diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) who are experiencing irregular menses, acne, and
hirsutism and do not desire pregnancy (SOR A). Metformin may help regulate menses but has not been
shown to be as effective as oral hormone therapy. In a 2015 Cochrane review, oral contraceptives were
recommended as the most effective treatment for hirsutism. Either letrozole or clomiphene is appropriate
for women diagnosed with PCOS who want to become pregnant.
- A 68-year-old male presents with chronic right knee pain from osteoarthritis that inhibits his
activity and is associated with stiffness throughout the day. He has tried acetaminophen and
NSAIDs with limited effect. He has consulted an integrative medicine specialist who
recommended multiple modalities to reduce pain and increase function, and he asks whether
you think they would be helpful.
Which one of the following measures recommended by the other physician has the
STRONGEST evidence of benefit?
A) A low-impact aerobic exercise program
B) Lateral wedge insoles
C) Oral glucosamine and chondroitin
D) A platelet-rich plasma injection
E) Needle lavage of the knee
Despite the prevalence of osteoarthritis of the knee and a myriad of treatment modalities available for those
with symptomatic disease, there is very limited evidence to suggest that many of these treatments are
effective. There is strong evidence to suggest that self-management programs, strengthening exercises,
low-impact aerobic exercises, and neuromuscular education have some benefit. Moderate evidence
recommends against the use of needle lavage of the knee; the two main studies of this modality showed
little or no benefit. In 15 studies, 14 outcomes were not statistically significant, including three pain and
three functional outcomes. There is also moderate evidence to recommend against the use of lateral wedge
insoles. Four studies of lateral wedge insoles showed no significant change in pain or function of the knee
when compared to neutral insoles. The evidence is inconclusive for platelet-rich plasma injections. A few
studies have shown decreased pain in patients after injection, but there was no placebo control, so the
effectiveness cannot be adequately assessed. Glucosamine and chondroitin have been shown with strong
evidence to be ineffective when compared to placebo.
- A 52-year-old female nurse sees you for the first time. She was previously a patient of a
recently retired physician in your practice. Her history is significant for a Roux-en-Y gastric
bypass, degenerative joint disease of both knees and shoulders, and chronic low back pain.
She takes oxycodone (Roxicodone), 5–10 mg every 4 hours. She tells you that she has been
taking this for almost 10 years as treatment for various pains. She says that acetaminophen
just “does not touch the pain” and that physical therapy has not worked. She asks you to
continue this medication.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?
A) Add an NSAID to the current regimen
B) Initiate weekly urine drug screens
C) Taper oxycodone by 5%–10% every 1–4 weeks
D) Discontinue oxycodone
ANSWER: C
According to the Choosing Wisely recommendations from the American Society of Anesthesiologists,
opioids should not be used as first-line therapy for chronic noncancer pain. However, more than one-half
of patients who receive continuous opioids for 90 days are still receiving them after 4 years. Chronic
opioids should not be abruptly discontinued. When discontinuing chronic opioid therapy, the best practice
is to reduce the dosage by 5%–10% every 1–4 weeks, but even this may be too fast for some patients.
While controlled substance prescribing plans are considered good practice for long-term opioid use,
continuing opioids for this patient would not be good practice given the indication of chronic noncancer
pain and the need for safety in her work. Because her use of opioids should be tapered, weekly urine drug
screens would continue to be positive and therefore would not be an appropriate management strategy for
this patient. NSAIDs are not indicated for this patient due to her history of gastric bypass.
- A 13-year-old male sees you because of pain in his throwing arm. He is a very dedicated
football quarterback and has been practicing throws and playing games every day for 2
months. The pain started gradually over the season, and there is no history of acute injury.
The patient is right-hand dominant, and on examination he has pain when he raises his right
arm above his shoulder. There is also tenderness to palpation of the proximal and lateral
humerus.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Injection of 10 mL of lidocaine into the subacromial space
B) Plain radiographs of the shoulder
C) Ultrasonography of the supraspinatus muscle
D) MRI of the shoulder
E) A bone scan of the shoulder
ANSWER: B
Pain in the shoulder of a young athlete can be caused by many problems, including acromioclavicular
strain, biceps tendinitis, glenohumeral instability, and rotator cuff pathology. Although rotator cuff
pathologies are the most frequent cause of shoulder pain in adults, they are uncommon in children. Unique
to children, however, is a repetitive use injury causing disruption at the proximal growth plate of the
humerus. This condition is referred to as Little League shoulder and can be seen on plain radiographs as
widening, demineralization, or sclerosis at the growth plate. If the radiograph is normal but suspicion for
this condition is high, a bone scan or MRI can be ordered.
- A 30-year-old female presents with an episode of recurrent, painful vesicular lesions on the
labia. She noted a tingling, burning sensation a few days before the lesions appeared. A few
years ago she had a similar outbreak just before the birth of her second child.
Which one of the following is indicated for this patient?
A) Doxycycline
B) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
C) Metronidazole
D) Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A)
E) Valacyclovir (Valtrex)
ANSWER: E
This patient has a recurrent outbreak of genital herpes, and valacyclovir is the preferred treatment.
Penicillin G benzathine is a treatment for syphilis, which usually begins as a painless papule that transforms
into the classic chancre. Fluconazole and metronidazole are treatments for yeast vaginitis and bacterial
vaginitis; these conditions present with itching and a vaginal discharge but not vesicular lesions.
Doxycycline is a treatment for Chlamydia infection, which is often completely asymptomatic and detected
only with screening.
- A 62-year-old Asian female presents to your office with pain and redness in her left eye that
started last night. She does not wear contact lenses. The pain has become more severe and
she now has a headache, light sensitivity, and mild nausea. Examination of the eyes reveals
diffuse conjunctival injection on the left. Her pupils are 4 mm bilaterally but the left one
reacts poorly to light. Her visual acuity is 20/30 on the right and 20/100 on the left.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time?
A) Polymyxin B/trimethoprim ophthalmic drops (Polytrim)
B) Prednisolone ophthalmic drops (Omnipred)
C) An erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level
D) MRI of the brain with contrast
E) Emergent evaluation by an ophthalmologist
ANSWER: E
This patient has symptoms and examination findings that are concerning for acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Her risk factors include her age, sex, and Asian ancestry. The examination findings include conjunctival
redness, corneal edema, a poorly reactive mid-dilated pupil, decreased vision, severe eye pain, headache,
and nausea. This condition needs to be evaluated and treated emergently to preserve vision. The
examination is not consistent with infectious conjunctivitis, which generally does not cause severe pain,
headache, or decreased pupillary response. Conditions such as scleritis or episcleritis may present with
similar features, but the pupillary response may help differentiate them from glaucoma. Referral to an
ophthalmologist would still be most prudent. This patient’s presentation is not consistent with a vasculitis
or multiple sclerosis.
- A 24-year-old female with a history of bulimia nervosa sees you for treatment of depression.
She is currently receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy. You decide that she requires
medication to treat her depression.
Which one of the following medications has been associated with an increased risk of
seizures in patients with bulimia nervosa?
A) Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
B) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C) Nortriptyline (Pamelor)
D) Sertraline (Zoloft)
E) Venlafaxine (Effexor XR)
ANSWER: A
Antidepressants in every class (SSRIs, SNRIs, tricyclic antidepressants, and monoamine oxidase inhibitors)
have been shown to reduce bulimic symptoms and can be used safely to treat depression, with the
exception of bupropion. Bupropion use has been associated with an increased risk of seizures in patients
with bulimia and an FDA warning limits its use.
- At a routine well child visit the mother of a 3-year-old male expresses concern that his toes
turn in, causing a clumsy gait when he walks. You diagnose internal tibial torsion, because
his feet point inward when his patellae face forward. The examination is otherwise normal.
Which one of the following is recommended at this time?
A) No intervention
B) Shoe modification with wedges to externally rotate the feet while walking
C) Night splinting with the feet externally rotated
D) Serial casting to gradually externally rotate the feet
E) Surgery to correct the deformity
ANSWER: A
Internal tibial torsion usually resolves spontaneously by age 5. Surgery may be considered in patients older
than 8 years of age who have a severe residual deformity, especially if it is symptomatic or cosmetically
unacceptable. Night splints, shoe modifications, other orthotics, casting, and braces are not recommended
for this condition.
- A 24-year-old female seeks your advice regarding the recent onset of a cough when running.
She moved to the United States from Mexico last year and her symptoms first became
apparent during her first winter in the Midwest. The cough starts after she has been running
approximately 1 mile but no sputum is produced and no other symptoms occur. She has no
other health concerns.
A physical examination and office spirometry are consistent with a healthy young adult. You
ask her to run around the outside of the clinic several times and then you reexamine her. The
only change noted is an increase in her pulse rate and a 10% drop in her FEV1.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
A) An endurance conditioning program
B) An over-the-counter antihistamine as needed
C) An inhaled corticosteroid 2 hours before running
D) An inhaled short-acting 2-agonist 15 minutes before running
E) Daily use of an inhaled long-acting 2-agonist
ANSWER: D
This patient’s history and examination findings are typical for exercise-induced asthma. The most
appropriate initial treatment for this condition is an inhaled short-acting 2-agonist (SABA) 15 minutes
before exercise (SOR A). Daily use of an inhaled long-acting 2-agonist as a single agent is not
recommended even for those who continue to experience symptoms when using an inhaled SABA (SOR
B). The addition of a daily inhaled corticosteroid is an appropriate consideration for patients who require
more than a SABA to control symptoms but these should not be used on an as-needed basis before exercise
(SOR B). Use of an antihistamine in an individual with exercise-induced asthma but no known allergies
is not recommended (SOR B). Other treatment considerations with weak recommendations include a
low-sodium diet, air humidification, and supplemental dietary fish oils.
69. Which one of the following malignancies is associated with hereditary hemochromatosis? A) Biliary carcinoma B) Chronic myeloid leukemia C) Hepatocellular carcinoma D) Multiple myeloma E) Pancreatic cancer
ANSWER: C
Hereditary hemochromatosis is a genetic disorder of iron regulation and subsequent iron overload. Possible
end-organ damage includes cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis of the liver, and hepatocellular carcinoma.
Symptoms are often nonspecific early on, but manifestations of iron overload eventually occur. The
diagnosis should be suspected in patients with liver disease or abnormal iron studies indicative of iron
overload. A liver biopsy can confirm the diagnosis and the degree of fibrosis. Identification of such
patients and proper ongoing treatment with phlebotomy may prevent the development of hepatocellular
carcinoma and other complications of this disease. There is some data that suggests an association of breast
cancer with hereditary hemochromatosis but not with any of the other malignancies listed.
You admit a previously healthy 62-year-old female to the hospital for intractable nausea and
vomiting with intravascular volume depletion and hypotension. She lives in rural northern
New Mexico. Prior to the onset of her symptoms she had been gardening and cleaning out
a chicken coop, where she encountered several rodents. She is febrile and you obtain blood
and urine cultures. Two out of four blood culture bottles are positive for gram-negative rods.
Which one of the following is the most likely pathogen?
A) Brucella melitensis
B) Coxiella burnetii
C) Escherichia coli
D) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Yersinia pestis
ANSWER: E
Yersinia pestis is an aerobic fermentative gram-negative rod. It causes a zoonotic infection with humans
as the accidental host. The disease is spread by a bite from a flea vector, direct contact with infected tissue,
or inhalation of infectious aerosols from a person with pulmonary plague. Plague occurs in two regions
in the western United States. One region includes northern New Mexico, northern Arizona, and southern
Colorado, and the other region includes California, southern Oregon, and far western Nevada.
Escherichia coli is also an aerobic fermentative gram-negative rod but it generally causes symptoms of
gastroenteritis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome, urinary tract infection, intra-abdominal infection, and
meningitis. E. coli infection does not have a specific regional distribution. Listeria monocytogenes is a
gram-positive rod and causes an influenza-like illness with or without gastroenteritis in adults. Infection
occurs through ingestion of contaminated food products such as milk, cheese, processed meats, and raw
vegetables. Outbreaks can occur in any geographic distribution.
Coxiella burnetii is a gram-negative intracellular bacterium that causes Q fever. Human infections are
associated with contact with infected cattle, sheep, goats, dogs, and cats. Brucella melitensis is a
gram-negative coccobacilli that causes brucellosis. Humans are accidental hosts who can develop the
disease from contact with tissues rich in erythritol, and from shedding of organisms in milk, urine, and
birth products from goats and sheep.
A 21-year-old female is being evaluated for secondary causes of refractory hypertension.
Which one of the following would be most specific for fibromuscular dysplasia?
A) A serum creatinine level
B) An aldosterone:renin ratio
C) 24-hour urine for metanephrines
D) Renal ultrasonography
E) Magnetic resonance angiography of the renal arteries
ANSWER: E
In young adults diagnosed with secondary hypertension, evaluation for fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal
arteries with MR angiography or CT angiography is indicated (SOR C). The aldosterone/renin ratio is the
most sensitive test to diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism. Renal ultrasonography is an indirect test that
is not as sensitive or specific for fibromuscular dysplasia. Serum creatinine elevation shows renal
involvement but does not identify the cause. Testing for metanephrines is indicated only if a
pheochromocytoma is suspected.
Of the following, which one is the greatest risk factor for developing knee osteoarthritis as an older adult? A) A sedentary lifestyle B) Cigarette smoking C) Low socioeconomic status D) Male sex E) Obesity
ANSWER: E
Because debilitating knee osteoarthritis is a frequent health concern in older adults, physicians should try
to identify and possibly modify factors that increase the risk for this condition. Pooled data from many
large studies has been sufficient to clearly identify several major risk factors for the development and
progression of osteoarthritis of the knees. Overweight and obesity have consistently been found to
approximately double the risk for developing knee osteoarthritis. Other factors that have been identified
as risk factors include female sex, advancing age (50–75 years of age), and previous trauma. Smoking,
inactivity, moderate physical activity, and socioeconomic status have not been shown to affect one’s risk
for developing knee osteoarthritis. However, any of these factors in the extreme may be detrimental to joint
health in general.
A staff member at a local assisted living facility calls you about an 88-year-old female who
has chronic urinary incontinence and well controlled hypertension. A urinalysis was obtained
after the patient reported some dizziness and malaise. She does not have dysuria and has had
no change to her incontinence. The patient is afebrile and other vital signs are normal. The
urine culture reveals >100,000 colony-forming units of Escherichia coli, with sensitivities
pending.
In addition to supportive care and hydration, which one of the following would be indicated
at this time?
A) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B) Fosfomycin (Monurol)
C) Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)
D) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
E) No antibiotics
ANSWER: E
This patient has asymptomatic bacteriuria and does not require antibiotic therapy at this time. In women
age 70 and older the incidence of asymptomatic bacteriuria is 16%–18%, and in chronically incontinent
and disabled older adults rates may reach 43%. Symptoms that raise concern for a urinary tract infection
(UTI) include acute dysuria, new or worsening urinary urgency or frequency, new incontinence, gross
hematuria, and suprapubic or costovertebral angle tenderness. General malaise in the absence of these
symptoms is unlikely to represent a UTI and unlikely to improve with antibiotic therapy.
When antibiotic therapy is indicated for a UTI, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole remains the first-line agent.
Nitrofurantoin may be used for those with a creatinine clearance >40 mL/min/1.73 m2. Ciprofloxacin is
recommended as a first-line agent only in communities with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole resistance rates
above 10%–20%. Fosfomycin may be used for more highly resistant organisms. The choice of antibiotic
should be guided by bacterial pathogens if they are known.
A 61-year-old white male with type 2 diabetes mellitus sees you for a follow-up visit. His
blood pressure is 156/94 mm Hg. At a visit 1 week ago his blood pressure was 150/92 mm
Hg. Laboratory studies obtained prior to this visit show a BUN of 16 mg/dL (N 6–20), a
serum creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL (N 0.7–1.3), and microalbuminuria on a urinalysis. His
diabetes is well controlled with metformin (Glucophage) and he is taking aspirin.
Which one of the following would you recommend?
A) Observation only
B) An ACE inhibitor
C) A -blocker
D) A calcium channel blocker
E) A diuretic
ANSWER: B
The panel members of the Eighth Joint National Committee for the management of blood pressure
recommended that ACE inhibitors should be initiated for renal protection in adults with diabetes mellitus,
hypertension, and microalbuminuria. This patient appears to be in an early stage of nephropathy, and ACE
inhibitors will reduce the decline in renal function. -Blockers are no longer recommended for first-line
treatment. In white patients who do not have diabetes, therapy may be started with ACE inhibitors, thiazide
diuretics, or calcium channel blockers.
A 66-year-old female with a previous history of hypertension, stable angina, and carotid
endarterectomy presents with acute upper abdominal pain, which has developed over the past
3 hours. A physical examination reveals epigastric tenderness without guarding or rebound,
but does not reveal a cause for the level of pain reported by the patient. Initial laboratory
findings are within normal limits, including a CBC, glucose, lactic acid, amylase, lipase,
liver enzymes, and kidney function tests. You suspect acute mesenteric ischemia.
Which one of the following diagnostic imaging tests is the preferred initial evaluation for this
problem?
A) Duplex ultrasonography
B) CT angiography
C) Catheter angiography
D) Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
E) Upper and lower GI endoscopy
ANSWER: B
CT angiography (CTA) is the recommended imaging procedure for the diagnosis of acute mesenteric
vascular disease. The procedure can also identify other possible intra-abdominal causes of pain. Duplex
ultrasonography is also accurate, especially for proximal lesions, but can be difficult to perform in patients
with obesity, bowel gas, and marked calcification of the vessels, and may be problematic in patients
presenting acutely, due to the length of the study and the abdominal pressure required. It is more useful
in cases of suspected chronic mesenteric ischemia. Endoscopy is often normal in acute ischemia and may
not reach the ischemic section of bowel. MR angiography may be useful, but it takes longer to perform
than CTA and lacks the necessary resolution. Catheter angiography is required for endovascular therapies
such as thrombolysis or angioplasty with or without stenting, but is usually not performed for making the
initial diagnosis in the acute setting.
A 38-year-old patient wishes to start contraception. She currently takes lisinopril (Prinivil,
Zestril) for hypertension and also takes sumatriptan (Imitrex) occasionally for migraines at
the first sign of flashing lights or zigzagging lines in her vision. Her medical, family, and
social histories are otherwise unremarkable. An examination is notable only for a blood
pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a BMI of 36.0 kg/m2.
The patient is interested in using either the vaginal ring or the contraceptive patch. Which
one of the following would you recommend?
A) Transdermal norelgestromin/ethinyl estradiol (Ortho Evra)
B) The etonogestrel/ethinyl estradiol vaginal ring (NuvaRing)
C) Neither method due to her migraines
D) Neither method due to her age
E) Losing weight before starting either method
ANSWER: C
Family physicians are often asked to provide contraception and need to be familiar with the current
methods and contraindications. Estrogen-containing products, including the contraceptive patch and the
vaginal ring, are contraindicated in smokers >35 years of age and in patients with migraine with aura.
- A 45-year-old male sees you for follow-up of several chronic medical problems including
hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. He is a truck driver, smokes one pack of
cigarettes per day, and does not exercise. His blood pressure is 166/94 mm Hg and his
hemoglobin A1c is 9.7%. His medical conditions have been difficult to control with
medications and he has been resistant to making lifestyle changes.
Which one of the following strategies would be most effective for inducing significant
behavioral change?
A) Counsel the patient on the complications of smoking and uncontrolled diabetes
B) Utilize motivational interviewing to explore the patient’s level of desire to change
C) Treat the patient with an SSRI and refer him to a counselor
D) Transfer the patient to another family physician in your community
ANSWER: B
Patients who are resistant to change require skillful management. Motivational interviewing is a technique
that has been shown to improve the therapeutic physician-patient alliance and help to engage patients in
their own care. The other options listed are not helpful and may damage the therapeutic relationship.
A 47-year-old male who lives at sea level attempts to climb Mt. Rainier. On the first day he
ascends to 3400 m (11,000 ft). The next morning he has a headache, nausea, dizziness, and
fatigue, but as he continues the climb to the summit he becomes ataxic and confused.
Which one of the following is the treatment of choice?
A) Administration of oxygen and immediate descent
B) Dexamethasone, 8 mg intramuscularly
C) Acetazolamide, 250 mg twice a day
D) Nifedipine (Procardia), 10 mg immediately, followed by 30 mg in 12 hours
E) Helicopter delivery of a portable hyperbaric chamber
ANSWER: A
This patient initially showed signs of acute mountain sickness. These include headache in an unacclimated
person who recently arrived at an elevation >2500 m (8200 ft), plus one or more of the following:
anorexia, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, dizziness, or fatigue. The patient’s condition then deteriorated to
high-altitude cerebral edema, defined as the onset of ataxia and/or altered consciousness in someone with
acute mountain sickness. The management of choice is a combination of descent and supplemental oxygen.
Often, a descent of only 500–1000 m (1600–3300 ft) will lead to resolution of acute mountain sickness.
Simulated descent with a portable hyperbaric chamber also is effective, but descent should not be delayed
while awaiting helicopter delivery. If descent and/or administration of oxygen is not possible, medical
therapy with dexamethasone and/or acetazolamide may reduce the severity of symptoms. Nifedipine has
also been shown to be helpful in cases of high-altitude pulmonary edema where descent and/or
supplemental oxygen is unavailable.
- A 60-year-old male presents with the lesion shown below. It has grown over the last few
months. His past medical history includes well controlled hypertension. He takes lisinopril
(Prinivil, Zestril), 10 mg daily, and aspirin, 81 mg daily.
After the diagnosis is established with a biopsy, which one of the following has the highest
cure rate for this problem?
A) Standard wide excision
B) Electrodesiccation and curettage
C) Mohs surgery
D) Photodynamic therapy
E) Radiation therapy
ANSWER: C
This patient most likely has a basal cell carcinoma, which can be proven by a shave biopsy. Given its size
and location, Mohs surgery would be the preferred treatment. It also has the highest cure rate of any of
the options listed, including a standard wide excision, electrodesiccation and curettage, photodynamic
therapy, and radiation therapy. It has a 99% cure rate for primary basal cell cancers, compared with just
over 91% for other methods. Photodynamic therapy and radiation therapy should be used for lesions such
as this only if surgery is not an option due to medical comorbidities and/or patient preference.
A 55-year-old female sees you for a preoperative evaluation prior to having cataract surgery.
The patient has a previous history of type 1 diabetes mellitus. She reports that she takes a
brisk daily walk and has no angina or other cardiac symptoms. The cardiovascular and
pulmonary examinations are unremarkable.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate for the preoperative cardiac
evaluation of this patient?
A) No further evaluation
B) An EKG
C) A treadmill stress test
D) Pharmacologic stress testing
E) A chest radiograph
ANSWER: A
This 55-year-old patient is undergoing a low-risk procedure. While her diabetes mellitus is a cardiovascular
risk factor, she is asymptomatic, her age lowers her risk, and her functional status is good. She should be
allowed to undergo cataract surgery with no further evaluation. Guidelines from the American College of
Cardiology and the American Heart Association recommend that the patient be allowed to undergo surgery
with no further testing.
The novel anticoagulants (NOACs) include apixaban (Eliquis), dabigatran (Pradaxa),
edoxaban (Savaysa), and rivaroxaban (Xarelto). Which one of the following should be
considered when starting or adjusting the dosage of a NOAC?
A) Serum albumin
B) INR
C) Liver enzymes
D) Partial thromboplastin time
E) Renal function
ANSWER: E
The novel anticoagulants (NOACs) require dosage adjustments based on renal function. There are no
dosing recommendations for NOACs based on liver function or albumin level. The INR is used to adjust
warfarin dosing and the partial thromboplastin time is used to adjust heparin dosing.
A 42-year-old male with alcohol use disorder tells you that his last drink was 7 days ago and
asks if there are any medications available to help him maintain abstinence from alcohol. He
has no other medical or psychological problems.
Which one of the following pharmacologic agents could help reduce this patient’s alcohol
consumption and increase abstinence?
A) Acamprosate
B) Amitriptyline
C) Paroxetine (Paxil)
D) Promethazine
E) Venlafaxine (Effexor XR)
ANSWER: A
For this patient, acamprosate is the most effective medication to help maintain alcohol abstinence.
Antidepressants may be beneficial in patients with coexisting depression. The antiemetic ondansetron may
also help decrease alcohol consumption in patients with alcohol use disorder.
A 68-year-old male with a 40-pack-year history of smoking presents with a 2-month history
of dyspepsia and difficulty swallowing. He also reports a 20-lb unintentional weight loss.
He takes omeprazole (Prilosec), 20 mg daily.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Increasing omeprazole to 40 mg twice daily
B) Abdominal CT
C) Barium esophagography
D) Esophageal manometry
E) Upper endoscopy
ANSWER: E
This patient has risk factors and symptoms that suggest esophageal cancer. According to the Society of
Thoracic Surgeons and the National Comprehensive Cancer Network, upper endoscopy with a biopsy of
suspicious lesions is the recommended initial evaluation for symptoms of esophageal cancer (SOR C).
Esophagography would be appropriate in patients unable to undergo endoscopy but would not be the
preferred test. CT of the abdomen is not indicated in the initial evaluation for esophageal cancer but can
be integrated with a PET scan for staging. Esophageal manometry is reserved for patients with dysphagia
if upper endoscopy does not establish a diagnosis and a motility disorder is suspected. Increasing the
dosage of the proton pump inhibitor would not be an appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition and
may delay the diagnosis and treatment of suspected cancer if the patient is not referred promptly for upper
endoscopy.
A 16-year-old white male sees you for a sports preparticipation examination. His height is
193 cm (76 in), his weight is 69 kg (152 lb), and he appears to have long arms. A physical
examination reveals a high arched palate, kyphosis, myopia, and pectus excavatum.
Which one of the following valvular abnormalities is most likely in this patient?
A) Mitral stenosis
B) Pulmonic stenosis
C) Aortic stenosis
D) Aortic insufficiency
E) Bicuspid aortic valve
ANSWER: D
This adolescent has findings of Marfan syndrome. It is associated with arachnodactyly, an arm span greater
than height, a high arched palate, kyphosis, lenticular dislocation, mitral valve prolapse, myopia, and
pectus excavatum. The cardiac examination may reveal an aortic insufficiency murmur, or a murmur
associated with mitral valve prolapse. Cardiovascular defects are progressive, and aortic root dilation
occurs in 80%–100% of affected individuals. Aortic regurgitation becomes more common with increasing
age.
A 46-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history has had multiple episodes of
coughing up blood that he describes as a “quarter size” amount. This has happened over the
last couple of days. He has not had any chronic cough and has not been ill. A chest
radiograph is negative.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management at this point?
A) Observation with no further workup unless the cough persists for >1 month or the
quantity of hemoptysis increases
B) CT of the chest
C) Referral for bronchoscopy
D) Referral for nasolaryngoscopy
ANSWER: B
While a plain chest radiograph should come first in the workup for hemoptysis, patients with normal
radiographs who have a higher risk of malignancy (age 40 and a smoking history of 30 years) should
undergo CT, usually with contrast. If CT is negative, pulmonary consultation and possible bronchoscopy
should be pursued. Nasolaryngoscopy is not indicated if the initial history and examination do not indicate
an upper airway source. Observation alone is not appropriate in patients with risk factors for malignancy.
A 68-year-old female presents for evaluation of shortness of breath with activity for the past
several weeks. She used to walk 2 miles daily for exercise but can no longer do so because
of dyspnea and chest tightness. She also reports mild lower extremity edema. She has a
history of a bicuspid aortic valve and aortic stenosis. Echocardiography 1 year ago showed
moderately severe aortic stenosis with a mean valve area of 1.1 cm2.
Echocardiography today shows aortic stenosis with an aortic valve area of 0.9 cm2, a mean
pressure gradient of 42 mm Hg, and a transaortic velocity of 4.3 m/sec. The ejection
fraction is estimated to be 50%.
Which one of the following is indicated at this time?
A) Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
B) Furosemide (Lasix)
C) Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
D) Metoprolol succinate (Toprol-XL)
E) Referral for aortic valve replacement
ANSWER: E
This patient has severe symptomatic aortic stenosis. The only therapy shown to improve symptoms and
mortality in such patients is an aortic valve replacement. In patients with asymptomatic disease, watchful
waiting is usually the recommended course of action. No medications or other therapies have been shown
to prevent disease progression or alleviate symptoms. Patients with coexisting hypertension should be
managed medically according to accepted guidelines. Diuretics should be used with caution due to their
potential to reduce left ventricular filling and cardiac output, which leads to an increase in symptoms.
You suspect a 45-year-old female may have irritable bowel syndrome. She has a 6-month
history of crampy, diffuse abdominal pain associated with defecation. Her symptoms occur
several days per week.
According to the Rome IV criteria, an associated symptom that would help in making this
diagnosis is
A) a change in stool frequency
B) increased gas and bloating
C) pain brought on by eating
D) waking up at night to defecate
E) weight loss of 5 lb (2 kg)
ANSWER: A
The Rome IV criteria are widely used as guidelines to diagnose suspected irritable bowel syndrome. These
criteria specify that there should be recurrent abdominal pain associated with two or more additional
symptoms at least 1 day per week in the last 3 months. These symptoms include pain related to defecation,
a change in stool frequency, or a change in stool form. Pain brought on by eating and increased gas and
bloating are observed in irritable bowel syndrome but are not included in the Rome IV criteria. Weight loss
and waking at night to defecate are not typically seen in this disorder.
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends routine screening for gestational diabetes mellitus no sooner than A) 16 weeks gestation B) 20 weeks gestation C) 24 weeks gestation D) 32 weeks gestation
ANSWER: C
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends screening for gestational diabetes mellitus after 24
weeks gestation with a fasting blood glucose level, a 50-g oral glucose challenge, or an assessment of risk
factors (A recommendation). Screening at an earlier date receives a rating of insufficient evidence, and
screening at later dates is not recommended (SOR C).
A 20-year-old football player presents with pain in the proximal fifth metatarsal. The pain
was initially present only after practices, but now it causes push-off pain during practice.
There is tenderness to palpation. Plain films show no signs of fracture.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Start NSAIDs and allow him to continue practicing as tolerated
B) Place him at non–weight bearing for 2 weeks and repeat the plain films
C) Place him in a hard shoe for 3 weeks and then reexamine
D) Order MRI of the foot
E) Order a bone scan of the foot
ANSWER: D
A stress fracture in the proximal fifth metatarsal is particularly prone to nonunion and completion of the
fracture. Because complete non–weight bearing or surgical intervention may be necessary with this
high-risk fracture, MRI is indicated as the most sensitive test. Bone scans are sensitive but nonspecific.
Most stress fractures of the metatarsals occur distally and can be managed with a hard shoe initially, with
progressive activity as tolerated. NSAIDs are discouraged because of possible effects on fracture healing.
An 84-year-old female with severe dementia due to Alzheimer’s disease is a resident of a
long-term care facility. She has been hitting the staff while receiving personal care and
recently had an altercation with another resident. Behavioral interventions have been
unsuccessful in managing her symptoms and you suggest to the patient’s family that she be
started on low-dose risperidone (Risperdal). They ask about appropriate use of the drug and
the potential for side effects.
Which one of the following would be appropriate advice?
A) Extrapyramidal side effects are more common compared to typical antipsychotics
B) Dementia-related psychosis is an FDA-approved indication
C) No monitoring will be necessary
D) The risk of diabetes mellitus is decreased
E) The risk of mortality is increased
ANSWER: E
Both typical and atypical antipsychotics increase the risk of mortality in patients with dementia. The FDA
has a black box warning on these medications, including risperidone, about the increased risk of mortality
in patients with dementia. Risperidone is not approved by the FDA for dementia-related psychosis. The
typical antipsychotics are more commonly associated with extrapyramidal side effects. Diabetes mellitus
and agranulocytosis are associated with the atypical antipsychotics, including risperidone. Periodic
monitoring of serum glucose levels and CBCs is recommended.
Which one of the following diabetes mellitus medications is MOST likely to cause weight gain? A) Empagliflozin (Jardiance) B) Glimepiride (Amaryl) C) Liraglutide (Victoza) D) Metformin (Glucophage) E) Sitagliptin (Januvia)
ANSWER: B
Since many patients with diabetes mellitus are obese, the impact of medications on the patient’s weight is
important to consider. Treatment with sulfonylureas, including glimepiride, is associated with weight gain.
Empagliflozin, liraglutide, metformin, and sitagliptin are not associated with weight gain. In particular,
the SGLT2 inhibitors such as empagliflozin and the GLP1 agonists such as liraglutide are associated with
clinically significant weight loss.
A previously healthy 34-year-old female presents with a 1-hour history of palpitations. She
does not have a cough, shortness of breath, wheezing, or chest pain. An EKG is shown
below. (afib w/ RVR)
Which one of the following laboratory tests is most likely to demonstrate the cause of the
patient’s underlying problem?
A) BNP
B) D-dimer
C) Lactic acid
D) Troponin
E) TSH
ANSWER: E
This patient’s EKG shows atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. A TSH level should be
obtained in all patients presenting with acute atrial fibrillation, because patients with subclinical
hyperthyroidism have a threefold increased risk of developing atrial fibrillation. D-dimer has a negative
predictive value in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. Elevated troponin is a diagnostic marker of acute
myocardial infarction and a troponin level should be obtained when acute coronary syndrome is being
considered as a cause of acute atrial fibrillation. Elevated lactic acid is associated with sepsis. BNP levels
should be ordered if heart failure is suspected (SOR C).
A 14-year-old male is brought to your office with a 2-month history of a lump in his left
chest. An examination reveals a slightly tender 2-cm area of concentric firm mobile tissue
under the left areola. He has no skin changes, nipple discharge, or associated adenopathy.
The right side is unremarkable. A genital examination reveals Tanner 3 development but is
otherwise unremarkable. Growth curves are appropriate for the patient’s age, with a BMI
of 19.1 kg/m2.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Follow-up in 6–12 months
B) A prolactin level
C) Ultrasonography of the left breast
D) Tamoxifen (Soltamox), 10 mg/day for 3 months
E) A biopsy
ANSWER: A
This patient’s history and the examination support the diagnosis of adolescent physiologic gynecomastia.
The most appropriate next step is follow-up with this patient in 6–12 months. One-half of all adolescent
males will experience some form of gynecomastia. This condition is often bilateral, but it is more common
on the left side if it is unilateral. It will typically resolve 6–24 months after onset. Patients should be asked
about medications and supplements, because these may be a cause of nonphysiologic breast enlargement.
Concerning factors include persistence for longer than 2 years; hard, immobile, nontender masses; masses
>5 cm; nipple discharge; testicular masses; and systemic symptoms such as weight loss. Evaluation for
persistent gynecomastia can include laboratory studies to exclude hepatic, renal, and thyroid disorders, and
can progress to include tests to detect gonadotropin and hormone-related tumors and disorders. Imaging
and/or a biopsy would be indicated if signs of a carcinoma were noted. The additional options listed are
not indicated at this point, although they are a part of the recommended algorithm for further evaluation
and treatment considerations.
A 52-year-old male presents for evaluation of a long-standing facial rash. He reports that
the rash is itchy, with flaking and scaling around his mustache and nasolabial folds.
Which one of the following is most likely to be beneficial?
A) Topical antibacterial agents
B) Topical antifungal agents
C) Topical vitamin D analogues
D) Oral zinc supplementation
ANSWER: B
Seborrheic dermatitis is commonly seen in the office setting and affects the scalp, eyebrows, nasolabial
folds, and anterior chest. The affected skin appears as erythematous patches with white to yellow greasy
scales. The etiology is not exactly known, but it is likely that the yeast Malassezia plays a role. Topical
antifungals are effective and recommended as first-line agents. Topical low-potency corticosteroids are also
effective alone or when used in combination with topical antifungals, but they should be used sparingly
due to their adverse effects. The other agents listed have no role in the management of seborrheic
dermatitis (SOR A).
A 58-year-old male sees you for a routine health maintenance visit. He has a 20-pack-year
smoking history and proudly tells you that he quit “for good” 1 year ago. You congratulate
him on this accomplishment and encourage him to continue to abstain from tobacco. He has
not seen a physician for 20 years.
U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommendations for this patient include which one
of the following?
A) Abdominal aortic aneurysm screening
B) Fall prevention screening
C) Hepatitis C screening
D) Lung cancer screening with low-dose CT
ANSWER: C
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends one-time screening for hepatitis C virus
infection for adults born between 1945 and 1965. Abdominal aortic aneurysm screening with
ultrasonography is recommended for men 65–75 years of age who have any history of smoking. The
USPSTF recommends annual screening for lung cancer with low-dose CT in adults 55–80 years of age
who have a 30-pack-year smoking history and currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years. Fall
risk screening is recommended in community-dwelling adults 65 years of age or older.
A 30-year-old female who gave birth to a healthy infant 3 months ago has had mildly
depressed moods almost daily for the last 7 weeks. She takes very little joy in daily activities
and interacting with her baby. She is exclusively breastfeeding and has difficulty sleeping.
She says that she felt fine during the first month after the delivery, and has not experienced
any homicidal or suicidal ideations. You rule out postpartum psychosis and bipolar disorder.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Reassurance only
B) A home health visit
C) Oral contraceptives
D) Trazodone (Oleptro)
E) Referral for psychotherapy
ANSWER: E
This patient has peripartum depression. All women should be screened for depression during pregnancy
and the postpartum period (SOR B). Reassurance may be appropriate for the baby blues, which usually
start 2–3 days after birth and last less than 10 days. First-time mothers, adolescent mothers, and mothers
who have experienced a traumatic delivery may benefit from home health visits or peer support to prevent
but not treat peripartum depression. Mild to moderate peripartum depression can be treated with
psychotherapy or SSRIs, with consideration of medications with the lowest serum medication levels in
breastfed infants. Tricyclic antidepressants such as trazodone are not considered first-line treatment for
peripartum depression.
Which one of the following is the preferred first-line agent in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? A) Adalimumab (Humira) B) Etanercept (Enbrel) C) Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) D) Methotrexate (Trexall) E) Prednisone
ANSWER: D
The American College of Rheumatology recommends methotrexate, a nonbiologic disease-modifying
antirheumatic drug (DMARD), as a first-line agent in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis in the absence
of contraindications, such as underlying liver disease. Starting DMARDs within 3 months of the onset of
rheumatoid arthritis symptoms is more likely to result in sustained remissions. The addition of short-term
prednisone is indicated in select cases when disease activity is high. The use of biological agents such as
adalimumab, etanercept, and others is indicated only in refractory cases and in patients who cannot tolerate
nonbiologic DMARDs.
A 68-year-old female sees you for a routine health maintenance visit. She feels well and says
she has been eating more carefully and exercising for 45 minutes 4 days a week for the past
6 months. Her past medical history includes controlled hypertension and osteoarthritis of the
knee. Her family history is notable for a myocardial infarction in her mother at 48 years of
age. Her only medication is lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril).
The physical examination is notable only for a BMI of 36.0 kg/m2. Laboratory findings are
notable for significant hyperlipidemia and you recommend starting a statin. She reports that
she will undergo an elective total knee replacement next month and asks about the safety of
starting a new medication before this surgery.
You recommend that she
A) start a statin immediately to decrease her risk of cardiovascular disease and
perioperative mortality
B) start a statin immediately to decrease her risk of cardiovascular disease, although her
risk of perioperative mortality will not be affected
C) start a statin immediately to decrease her risk of cardiovascular disease, stop the
statin 1 week before surgery, and resume taking it after the surgery, to decrease her
risk of perioperative mortality
D) start a statin immediately after the surgery to decrease her risk of cardiovascular
disease and perioperative mortality
E) start a statin after she is released postoperatively by her surgeon to decrease her risk
of cardiovascular disease and perioperative mortality
ANSWER: A
Family physicians are often consulted for perioperative medical management. Studies have shown
decreased perioperative mortality in patients who continue statins and in patients with clinical indications
for statin therapy who start statins prior to undergoing vascular or high-risk surgeries such as joint
replacement. A meta-analysis of 223,000 patients showed a significant reduction in perioperative mortality
in patients receiving statin therapy versus placebo who underwent noncardiac surgical procedures. This
patient has a clinical indication (multiple risk factors) to start statin therapy now.
A 40-year-old male presents to your office for follow-up of an abnormal clean-catch urine
test performed at his employee health clinic during a preemployment screening examination.
He had a positive urine dipstick for hemoglobin and 5 RBCs/hpf on microscopy. The urine
was negative for protein, WBCs, and casts. A basic metabolic panel was notable for a
creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL (N 0.6–1.2) and a BUN of 15 mg/dL (N 8–23). He reports
that he has been healthy and has not sought medical care in the last 5 years. He quit smoking
6 months ago and walks the dog daily for 30 minutes. A physical examination today is
normal.
According to the guidelines of the American Urological Association, which one of the
following would be the most appropriate next step in the workup?
A) Repeat urine microscopy
B) Urine cytology
C) Cystoscopy
D) Renal ultrasonography
E) Retrograde pyelography
ANSWER: C
Asymptomatic microhematuria is defined as 3 or more RBCs/hpf on a properly collected urine specimen
in the absence of an obvious benign cause. Vigorous exercise, viral illness, trauma, and infection have
been ruled out as a cause of hematuria in this patient. His renal function is normal. The most appropriate
next step in evaluating a patient 35 years of age is to perform a urologic evaluation with cystoscopy.
Cystoscopy is also recommended for patients of any age who have risk factors for urinary tract
malignancy.
The initial examination should also include CT urography with and without contrast. When CT with
contrast is contraindicated, an alternative is retrograde pyelography in conjunction with noncontrast CT,
MR urography, or ultrasonography. Obtaining urine cytology and urine markers is not recommended as
part of the routine evaluation of asymptomatic microhematuria. A repeat urinalysis with microscopy is not
needed to confirm asymptomatic microhematuria. According to the American Urological Association, one
positive urine sample is sufficient to prompt an evaluation.
A 68-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of low back pain and fatigue. She has
unintentionally lost 15 lb. A physical examination is positive for vertebral point tenderness
over the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae. Initial laboratory testing reveals a normocytic
anemia, elevated total protein, and a mild decrease in renal function.
You order a lumbar spine radiograph and additional diagnostic testing. Which one of the
following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) A serum ferritin level and iron studies
B) TSH and vitamin B12 levels
C) Serum protein electrophoresis
D) MRI of the lumbar spine
E) A bone marrow biopsy
ANSWER: C
This patient’s presentation is concerning for hematologic malignancy, in particular multiple myeloma.
Along with radiography, the next appropriate step is serum protein electrophoresis. If laboratory work
shows a monoclonal spike or if a skeletal survey indicates lytic lesions, referral to an oncologist is
indicated for a bone marrow biopsy. MRI of the lumbar spine would be premature and obtaining iron
studies, a TSH level, or a vitamin B12 level would not adequately address the initial abnormal laboratory
studies or facilitate making the diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
A 48-year-old female with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been unable to achieve optimal
glycemic control with lifestyle modifications alone. You recommend that she start
medication.
Which one of the following medications is generally recommended as the first-line
medication for initiating treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Alogliptin (Nesina)
B) Empagliflozin (Jardiance)
C) Glipizide (Glucotrol)
D) Metformin (Glucophage)
E) Pioglitazone (Actos)
ANSWER: D
Metformin should be the first medication prescribed for diabetes mellitus when an oral agent is required
(SOR A). Metformin can efficiently lower glycemic levels and is linked to weight loss and fewer
occurrences of hypoglycemia. It is also less expensive than most other options. If more than one agent is
required, continuing metformin is recommended along with the addition of one or more of the following:
a sulfonylurea such as glipizide, a thiazolidinedione such as pioglitazone, an SGLT2 inhibitor such as
empagliflozin, or a DPP-4 inhibitor such as alogliptin.
A 22-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of nasal and sinus congestion,
frequent sneezing, and itchy red eyes. These symptoms have been present 5–7 days per
week for the past 6 months. She has had similar symptoms in the past but they have never
lasted this long. She moved into a new home 2 months ago. There are no animals in the
house. She has tried over-the-counter fexofenadine (Allegra) with only partial relief of
symptoms.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation at this time?
A) Use of a mite-proof impermeable pillow cover
B) Intranasal saline irrigation
C) Intranasal azelastine (Astepro)
D) Intranasal budesonide (Rhinocort)
E) CT of the sinuses
ANSWER: D
This patient has symptoms consistent with allergic rhinitis, and the presence of symptoms more than 4 days
per week and for more than 4 weeks places her into the persistent symptoms category. In addition to
allergen avoidance and patient education, an intranasal corticosteroid should be the first-line treatment for
allergic rhinitis with persistent symptoms (SOR A).
The Choosing Wisely recommendations from the American Academy of Otolaryngology-Head and Neck
Surgery Foundations include avoiding sinonasal imaging in patients with symptoms limited to a primary
diagnosis of allergic rhinitis. Impermeable pillow or mattress covers are often recommended but there is
no evidence of any benefit (SOR A). Intranasal saline irrigation is beneficial and can be used as
monotherapy for mild intermittent symptoms, but intranasal corticosteroids are likely to provide more
benefit for more persistent symptoms. Intranasal antihistamines such as azelastine are more expensive, less
effective, and more likely to produce adverse effects than intranasal corticosteroids, so they are not
recommended as first-line therapy (SOR B).
An elderly male presents with a shallow, irregularly shaped ulceration over the medial aspect
of his right lower leg between the lower calf and medial malleolus. There is some
surrounding edema with pigment deposition over the lower leg. He reports aching and
burning pain in the lower leg with daytime swelling. His symptoms improve with leg
elevation.
You make a diagnosis of venous stasis ulcer. Which one of the following would be the most
appropriate management?
A) The use of foam dressings rather than other standard dressings
B) The use of silver-based antiseptic products even if there is no infection
C) Compression therapy
D) A 3-week course of systemic antibiotics
ANSWER: C
This patient likely has a venous stasis ulceration. The use of compression therapy with a pressure of 30–40
mm Hg is the mainstay of treatment. There is no evidence for the use of systemic antibiotics for
lower-extremity ulcerations. Likewise, there is no evidence to support the use of either silver-based or
honey-based preparations in ulcerations with no infection. Foam dressings are no more effective than other
standard dressings.
Which one of the following is the most reliable measure to protect children from lead
toxicity in the United States?
A) Anticipatory guidance for parents and caregivers during well child visits
B) Checking the serum lead level after a known exposure
C) Eliminating the sources of lead in the community
D) Iron and calcium supplementation to reduce lead absorption
E) Providing appropriate cleaning equipment to families with known lead in the home
ANSWER: C
Although lead poisoning in children has decreased over the past few decades it is still a problem in the
pediatric population. The most reliable and cost-effective way to protect U.S. children from lead toxicity
is primary prevention, which includes reducing or eliminating the sources of lead in the community.
Checking serum lead levels after exposures, anticipatory guidance regarding hand washing or dust control,
iron and calcium supplementation, and providing cleaning equipment have been shown to have either little
or no effect, or they address high lead levels only after the lead poisoning has occurred.
A 64-year-old female with hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and chronic
kidney disease has had headaches that have been escalating over the past 6 months and are
associated with double vision and ataxia. Her medications include lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
and atorvastatin (Lipitor). She weighs 61 kg (135 lb) and her blood pressure is 144/64 mm
Hg. A basic metabolic panel is normal except for a creatinine level of 2.1 mg/dL (N
0.6–1.1) and an estimated glomerular filtration rate of 26 mL/min/1.73 m2.
You decide to order MRI of the brain. Which one of the following would be most
appropriate with regard to the use of gadolinium contrast in this patient?
A) Use of gadolinium if the patient’s blood pressure is controlled to a goal systolic
pressure of <130 mm Hg
B) Use of gadolinium if the patient is pretreated with n-acetylcysteine and intravenous
normal saline
C) Use of gadolinium if lisinopril is stopped 48 hours before the MRI
D) Avoiding the use of gadolinium contrast
ANSWER: D
The use of gadolinium contrast has been associated with acute kidney injury and also with the development
of nephrogenic systemic sclerosis in patients with stage 4 or 5 chronic kidney disease. Because of these
risks, the FDA recommends avoiding gadolinium contrast in patients with a glomerular filtration rate <30
mL/min/1.73 m2, as well as in patients with acute renal failure. The risk of nephrogenic systemic sclerosis
is not affected by blood pressure, medications, intravenous hydration, or pretreatment with
n-acetylcysteine.
A 29-year-old gravida 2 para 1 comes to the hospital for scheduled induction of labor. Her
last delivery was a spontaneous vaginal delivery without complications. Her pregnancy has
been uneventful. Oxytocin (Pitocin) is used during induction according to the hospital
protocol and her labor progresses without difficulty.
Which one of the following should be AVOIDED to minimize the risk of postpartum
hemorrhage in this patient?
A) Administration of oxytocin with delivery of the anterior shoulder
B) Controlled cord traction
C) Active management of the third stage of labor
D) Routine episiotomy
E) Manual removal of a retained placenta
ANSWER: D
Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is the cause of one-fourth of maternal deaths worldwide and 12% in the
United States. It is defined as the loss of 1000 mL of blood or the loss of blood with coinciding signs and
symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours after delivery. Twenty percent of PPH occurs in patients
without risk factors, so methods to prevent this common problem should be in place with every delivery. Active management of the third stage of labor (AMTSL) is crucial in the prevention of PPH. Administering
oxytocin with or soon after the delivery of the anterior shoulder is the most important step of this process
(SOR A). Even if oxytocin is used for induction, or as a part of AMTSL, it is still the most effective
treatment for PPH (SOR A). Controlled cord traction is part of AMTSL and is necessary for the delivery
of the placenta. If a retained placenta occurs it may be necessary to manually remove the placenta with
necessary anesthesia. Trauma such as lacerations and episiotomies increases the risk of postpartum
hemorrhage, so routine episiotomy should be avoided (SOR A).
A 64-year-old male with midsternal chest pain is brought to the emergency department by
ambulance. He is on oxygen and an intravenous line is in place. Shortly after arrival he loses
consciousness and becomes pulseless and apneic, and CPR is begun. Cardiac monitoring
shows ventricular tachycardia with a rate of 160 beats/min.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Amiodarone, intravenous infusion, followed by synchronized cardioversion
B) Adenosine (Adenocard), rapid intravenous push, repeated in 1–2 minutes if needed
C) Epinephrine, intravenous push, followed by synchronized cardioversion
D) Lidocaine (Xylocaine), intravenous push, repeated in 5 minutes if needed
E) Defibrillation
ANSWER: E
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) should be treated the same as ventricular fibrillation. The first step
is defibrillation. If that is unsuccessful, epinephrine is administered and defibrillation is reattempted.
Lidocaine, adenosine, and procainamide may be used for the initial treatment of a wide-complex
tachycardia of uncertain type, but should not be used for the initial treatment of pulseless VT.
Synchronized cardioversion alone would be indicated for the initial treatment of rapid unstable tachycardia
with a pulse.
In patients with COPD, which one of the following inhaled medications has been shown to
reduce exacerbations and exacerbation-related hospitalizations?
A) Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin)
B) Fluticasone (Flovent)
C) Ipratropium (Atrovent)
D) Salmeterol (Serevent)
E) Tiotropium (Spiriva)
ANSWER: E
A Cochrane review found that the long-acting antimuscarinic agent tiotropium improved quality of life and
reduced exacerbations and exacerbation-related hospitalizations in patients with underlying COPD.
Tiotropium was noted to be superior to long-acting -agonists such as salmeterol. Albuterol, fluticasone,
and ipratropium have not been shown to have these effects (SOR A).
A 52-year-old male sees you for a routine health maintenance examination. He does not take
any medications, does not drink alcohol, and is feeling well. A physical examination is
normal with the exception of a BMI of 33.2 kg/m2. Routine laboratory studies reveal mild
elevations of ALT (SGPT) and AST (SGOT), which remain elevated on repeat testing 2
months later. Hepatitis B and hepatitis C testing are negative.
In addition to ultrasonography of the liver, which one of the following laboratory studies
should be ordered to further evaluate this patient?
A) Serum ferritin
B) Serum phosphorus
C) -Fetoprotein
D) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
E) Serum protein electrophoresis
ANSWER: A
Mild asymptomatic elevations (<5 times the upper limit of normal) of ALT and AST are common in
primary care. It is estimated that approximately 10% of the U.S. population has elevated transaminase
levels. The most common causes of elevated transaminase levels are nonalcoholic fatty liver disease and
alcoholic liver disease. The initial evaluation should include assessment for metabolic syndrome and insulin
resistance. Waist circumference, blood pressure, a fasting lipid level, and a fasting glucose level or
hemoglobin A1c should be obtained. A CBC with platelets and measurement of serum albumin, iron, total
iron-binding capacity, and ferritin levels would also be indicated. Iron studies should be ordered to rule
out hereditary hemochromatosis, which is an autosomal recessive disease that causes increased iron
absorption in the intestines and release by tissue macrophages.
A 62-year-old white male with a 3-month history of diabetes mellitus has a hemoglobin A1c
of 7.8%. Which one of the following is the best parameter for determining if he can safely
take metformin (Glucophage)?
A) 24-hour urine for creatinine clearance
B) BUN/creatinine ratio
C) Estimated glomerular filtration rate
D) Serum creatinine
E) Urine microalbumin
ANSWER: C
Until recently metformin was contraindicated for patients with renal dysfunction suggested by a creatinine
level of 1.5 mg/dL for men and 1.4 mg/dL for women. However, available evidence now supports the use
of metformin in individuals with mild to moderate chronic renal disease, defined by the estimated
glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). Patients with an eGFR between 45 and 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 (chronic
mild kidney disease) are now permitted to take metformin. Metformin should not be used in patients with
an eGFR <45 mL/min/1.73 m2 (moderate kidney disease), as lactic acidosis is more likely to occur. The
eGFR is used instead of the serum creatinine level because the equation includes age, sex, race, and other
parameters.
A 43-year-old male presents with a 6-week history of right ankle pain. The pain worsens
with walking or running for a moderate distance and fails to improve with heat application
or reduction of activity. He has been following a moderate cardiovascular exercise program
for several years without problems and did not increase his physical activity before the onset
of the pain. He does not recall any injury to the ankle.
On examination the area of pain is localized in the right Achilles tendon proximal to its
insertion. No swelling, redness, or deformity is apparent but tenderness is elicited with
application of moderate fingertip pressure to the tendon.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment?
A) Use of a heel cup in the right shoe
B) A 1-month course of daily NSAIDs at a prescription dosage
C) An eccentric gastrocnemius-strengthening program
D) A corticosteroid injection into the right Achilles tendon sheath
E) Immobilization of the right ankle for 3 weeks with a boot
ANSWER: C
Pain located between the myotendinous junction and the insertion of the Achilles tendon that occurs during
prolonged walking or running is typical for midsubstance Achilles tendinopathy. The mechanisms resulting
in pain are complex and not fully understood but inflammation is believed to contribute little to the process.
This is evidenced in part by the ineffectiveness of treatments typically used to reduce inflammation such
as NSAIDs and corticosteroids, which are not recommended in the treatment of this condition (SOR A).
Other commonly used musculoskeletal therapeutic modalities such as immobilization, ultrasonography,
orthotics, massage, and stretching exercises have not been shown to consistently offer significant benefits
and are not considered to be first-line therapy for Achilles tendinopathy.
A gastrocnemius-strengthening eccentric exercise program performed in sets of controlled, slow, active
release from weight-bearing full extension to full flexion of the foot at the ankle has been shown to reduce
pain and improve function in the 60%–90% range, making this the logical first-line treatment for Achilles
tendinopathy (SOR A).
The less common insertional Achilles tendinopathy localized to the enthesis is typically more recalcitrant,
and immobilization in a walking boot for a period of time may be necessary before eccentric exercise can
be tolerated.
A 45-year-old male presents to your office with a 2-month history of a nonproductive cough,
mild shortness of breath, fatigue, and a 5-lb weight loss. On examination his lungs are clear.
A PPD skin test is negative. A chest radiograph shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and his
angiotensin converting enzyme level is elevated. A biopsy of the lymph node shows a
noncaseating granuloma.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment?
A) Azathioprine (Imuran)
B) Fluconazole (Diflucan)
C) Isoniazid
D) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
E) Prednisone
ANSWER: E
This patient has sarcoidosis that has been confirmed by a biopsy. He is symptomatic so treatment would
be indicated. The recommended initial treatment for sarcoidosis is oral corticosteroids. Anti-infective
agents are not appropriate treatment for sarcoidosis. Immunosuppressants are second- and third-line
therapy for sarcoidosis and would not be recommended as first-line treatment.
A 40-year-old white female sees you for the first time. When providing a history she
describes several problems, including anxiety, insomnia, fatigue, persistent depressed mood,
and low libido. These symptoms have been present for several years and are worse prior to
menses, although they also occur to some degree during menses and throughout the month.
Her menstrual periods are regular for the most part.
Based on this history, the most likely diagnosis is
A) premenstrual dysphoric disorder
B) menopause
C) dysthymia
D) anorexia nervosa
E) dementia
ANSWER: C
Psychological disorders, including anxiety, depression, and dysthymia, are frequently confused with
premenstrual dysphoric disorder, and must be ruled out before initiating therapy. Symptoms are cyclic in
true premenstrual dysphoric disorder. The most accurate way to make the diagnosis is to have the patient
carefully record daily symptoms on a menstrual calendar for at least two cycles. Dysthymia consists of a
pattern of ongoing, mild depressive symptoms that have been present for at least 2 years and are less
severe than those of major depression, which is consistent with the findings in this case.
A 33-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for prenatal care 8 weeks after her last menstrual
period. She asks if she will need any immunizations during this pregnancy.
Which one of the following vaccines is recommended for all women with each pregnancy?
A) 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13, Prevnar 13)
B) Hepatitis B
C) MMR
D) Tdap
E) Varicella
ANSWER: D
Tdap is recommended for all women with each pregnancy, preferably between 27 and 36 weeks gestation.
Live vaccines such as varicella and MMR are contraindicated during pregnancy. There is inadequate data
to recommend vaccination against pneumococcal disease during pregnancy. Hepatitis B vaccine is
recommended during pregnancy only for women at high risk for infection.
A 26-year-old male presents with a rash on his anterior neck in the area of his beard that has
been present for over a year. On examination he has dark, curly facial hair, and you find
slightly tender, red, hyperpigmented papules on the superior anterior neck.
Which one of the following would you recommend to improve this patient’s rash?
A) Shaving with a multi-blade razor
B) Shaving with electric clippers
C) Pulling the skin taut while shaving
D) Plucking hairs rather than shaving
E) Oral cephalexin (Keflex)
ANSWER: B
This patient has pseudofolliculitis barbae, which is a common condition affecting the face and neck in
people with tightly curled hair. The condition occurs when hairs are cut at an angle and curl in on
themselves, creating a foreign body reaction. The condition may progress to scarring and keloid formation.
Cessation of hair removal improves the condition. If this is not desired, less aggressive hair trimming is
recommended. Clippers generally result in a less close shave and contribute less to pseudofolliculitis
barbae. Multi-blade razors, pulling the skin taut, and plucking hairs all result in shorter hair and are likely
to exacerbate the problem. The description of the rash is not consistent with secondary infection, so oral
cephalexin would not be indicated at this time. Treatment is similar to the treatment of acne, with benzoyl
peroxide, topical retinoids, and topical antibiotics having a role, along with topical corticosteroids.
A 54-year-old male comes to your office to establish care. He has a past history of
hypertension treated with lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) and hydrochlorothiazide but has not
taken his medications for over a year. He does not have any symptoms, including chest pain,
shortness of breath, or headache. On examination his blood pressure is 200/115 mm Hg on
two separate readings taken 5 minutes apart. The remainder of the physical examination is
normal.
Which one of the following management options would be most appropriate?
A) Institute out-of-office monitoring with an ambulatory device and follow up in 2
weeks
B) Restart the patient’s previous antihypertensive medications and follow up within 1
week
C) Administer a short-acting antihypertensive medication in the office to lower his
blood pressure to <160/100 mm Hg
D) Hospitalize for hypertensive emergency
ANSWER: B
This patient has severe asymptomatic hypertension (systolic blood pressure 180 mm Hg or diastolic blood
pressure 110 mm Hg). If there were signs or symptoms of acute target organ injury, such as neurologic
deficits, altered mental status, chest pain, shortness of breath, or oliguria, hospitalization for a hypertensive
emergency would be indicated. Because this patient was asymptomatic and has a known history of
hypertension, restarting his prior antihypertensive regimen and following up in 2 weeks would be the most
appropriate management option. If he had no past history of hypertension it would be reasonable to
consider out-of-office monitoring with an ambulatory device for 2 weeks before initiating treatment. In the
absence of acute target organ injury, blood pressure should be gradually lowered to less than 160/100 mm
Hg over several days to weeks. Aggressively lowering blood pressure can lead to adverse events such as
myocardial infarction, cerebrovascular accident, or syncope, so administering a short-acting
antihypertensive medication in the office should be reserved for the management of hypertensive
emergencies.
A 17-year-old female comes to your office with an 8-month history of amenorrhea.
Menarche occurred at age 12 and her menses were regular until the past year. On
examination the patient’s vital signs are in the normal range for her age but she has a BMI
of 16.1 kg/m2, which is below the third percentile for her age. She is a high school senior
who dances with the local ballet company. She practices dance several hours a day and
works out regularly. She tells you that she follows a strict 800-calorie/day diet to keep in
shape for ballet.
You order a CBC, a comprehensive metabolic panel, a urine -hCG level, FSH and LH
levels, and a TSH level. Which one of the following is also recommended as part of the
workup?
A) An EKG
B) Pelvic ultrasonography
C) Abdominal/pelvic CT
D) A DXA scan
E) A nuclear bone scan
ANSWER: D
Relative energy deficiency in sport (RED-S), formerly known as the female athlete triad, is a relatively
common condition in female athletes, and is characterized by amenorrhea, disordered eating, and
osteoporosis. It is more common in sports that promote lean body mass. Female athletes should be
screened for the disorder during their preparticipation evaluations. Individuals who present with one or
more components of RED-S should be evaluated for the other components. This patient has a low BMI for
her age, which indicates an eating disorder, and secondary amenorrhea, and should be screened for
osteoporosis using a DXA scan. The International Society for Clinical Densitometry recommends using
the Z-score, rather than the T-score, when screening children or premenopausal women. The T-score is
based on a comparison to a young adult at peak bone density, whereas the Z-score uses a comparison to
persons of the same age as the patient. A Z-score less than –2.0 indicates osteoporosis. The American
College of Sports Medicine defines low bone density as a Z score of –1.0 to –2.0.
An EKG is not required in this patient since she has normal vital signs. Pelvic ultrasonography is not
necessary unless an abnormal finding is identified on a pelvic examination. Abdominopelvic CT would be
inappropriate given the patient’s age and lack of abdominopelvic symptoms such as pain or a mass. A
nuclear bone scan likewise is not recommended, as it is not used to diagnose osteoporosis (SOR C).
A 45-year-old electrician presents to your office with concerns about a bump on his left
elbow. He does not recall any injury. The bump is painful to touch but causes no other
symptoms. He is worried since it has been present for at least a month and never goes away.
On examination the patient is afebrile. He has a 4-cm movable fluctuant growth at the tip of
his left olecranon that is slightly tender to touch. There is no warmth or erythema and he has
full range of motion of his elbow. There is no other joint involvement.
Which one of the following would you recommend?
A) No further evaluation
B) Laboratory testing, including a CBC with differential
C) Plain radiography
D) Ultrasonography
E) Aspiration
ANSWER: A
This patient presents with chronic olecranon bursitis. The diagnosis can be made from his history and the
physical examination, and no additional workup is indicated at this time. Chronic bursitis is due to
repetitive microtrauma, and the olecranon is the most common location. Patients typically have minimal
pain, no history of injury, no systemic symptoms, and no signs of acute infection or inflammation.
Treatment initially consists of avoiding recurrent trauma by protecting the area with an elbow pad and not
leaning on it, as well as cryotherapy, compression of the affected area, and over-the-counter analgesics.
If the lesion is inflamed or appears septic then laboratory testing should be performed, including a CBC
with differential, a glucose level, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and a C-reactive protein level. Joint
aspiration and/or ultrasonography may be indicated if the diagnosis is not apparent. A plain radiograph
would be indicated to rule out a fracture in a patient with traumatic bursitis.
A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 24 weeks gestation comes to your office with right lower
extremity swelling and pain. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far and her only
medication is a prenatal vitamin. She does not have chest pain, shortness of breath, or fever.
She recently started feeling the baby move, and an anatomy scan at 20 weeks gestation was
normal.
Lower extremity Doppler ultrasonography confirms a right lower extremity deep vein
thrombosis (DVT). Laboratory studies including a CBC, coagulation studies, and renal
function are normal.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment of her DVT?
A) Oral apixaban (Eliquis)
B) Oral aspirin
C) Oral warfarin (Coumadin)
D) Subcutaneous enoxaparin (Lovenox)
E) Subcutaneous heparin
d
A 46-year-old female with a past medical history of polycystic ovary syndrome and migraine
headaches presents with bilateral, hyperpigmented patches along her mandible. The patches
are asymptomatic but bother her cosmetically and seem to be darkening.
Which one of her medications would be most likely to contribute to her melasma?
A) B-complex vitamins
B) Metformin (Glucophage)
C) Oral contraceptives
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
E) Sumatriptan (Imitrex)
c
A 73-year-old female is brought to your office by her daughter, who is concerned that there
may be some memory changes in her mother. She has noticed that her mother frequently
repeats herself and has made several medication errors lately.
The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, depression, and hypothyroidism. Her
current medications include glyburide (DiaBeta), aspirin, lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril),
hydrochlorothiazide, atorvastatin (Lipitor), and sertraline (Zoloft).
A physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 136/72 mm Hg. She scores 26/30 on a
Saint Louis University Mental Status (SLUMS) examination, which suggests mild cognitive
impairment. A cardiac examination and a foot examination are normal.
Laboratory studies reveal a hemoglobin A1c of 7.0% and a TSH level of 3.8 U/mL (N
0.4–4.2). A basic metabolic panel is normal and her glucose level is 93 mg/dL. A CBC is
normal.
Which one of the following medications should be stopped in this patient?
A) Atorvastatin
B) Glyburide
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Lisinopril
E) Sertraline
B
A 75-year-old white male presents to your office following hospitalization for an episode of
heart failure. His edema has resolved but he still becomes symptomatic with minor exertion
such as walking less than a block. A recent chest radiograph shows cardiomegaly, and
echocardiography reveals an ejection fraction of 25%. He is currently taking furosemide
(Lasix), 20 mg daily; carvedilol (Coreg), 25 mg twice daily; and lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril),
20 mg daily. His vital signs include a pulse rate of 60 beats/min, a blood pressure of 110/70
mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 18/min, and a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F). No crackles
or hepatojugular reflux are noted on auscultation.
Which one of the following would improve this patient’s symptoms and decrease his
mortality risk?
A) Digoxin
B) Hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate (BiDil)
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
D
A 67-year-old female who was recently diagnosed with colon cancer presented to the
emergency department 2 days ago with acute shortness of breath and was diagnosed with a
pulmonary embolism. She was started on enoxaparin (Lovenox) and was hemodynamically
stable during her stay in the hospital. Her shortness of breath has improved and her oxygen
saturation is currently 95% on room air.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate for this patient?
A) Continue enoxaparin upon discharge
B) Discontinue enoxaparin and start rivaroxaban (Xarelto)
C) Discontinue enoxaparin and start warfarin (Coumadin)
D) Start warfarin and continue enoxaparin until the INR is 2.0
A
A 32-year-old Yazidi female from Iraq is brought to your office to establish care. She is a
refugee who was relocated 2 weeks ago.
Which one of the following would be appropriate at this visit?
A) Having a family member who speaks English serve as an interpreter
B) Screening for posttraumatic stress disorder
C) Hepatitis B vaccine
D) Varicella vaccine
B
A 35-year-old male has a negative past medical history and a normal physical examination.
He reports that he smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day and has 3–4 beers per week. A
comprehensive metabolic panel reveals an ALT (SGPT) of 30 U/L (N 10–40) and an AST
(SGOT) of 84 U/L (N 10–30). The remaining laboratory studies are negative. There is no
family history of liver disease.
The laboratory findings suggest which one of the following?
A) Hepatitis C
B) Hemochromatosis
C) Gilbert syndrome
D) Alcoholic liver disease
E) Nonalcoholic liver disease
D
A 48-year-old female presents with dyspnea with exertion. She has never smoked. A
physical examination is normal, including vital signs and pulse oximetry. A chest radiograph
reveals mild hyperexpansion of the chest, and pulmonary function testing reveals an
FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.67, unchanged after bronchodilator use. An EKG and stress
echocardiogram are normal. You suspect COPD.
Which one of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s pulmonary
disease?
A) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
B) 1-Antitrypsin deficiency
C) Hemochromatosis
D) Primary pulmonary hypertension
E) Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
B
A 52-year-old pianist is concerned that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome. Which one
of the following would be consistent with this problem?
A) Weakness of thumb adduction
B) Decreased sensation over the thenar eminence
C) Decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of the fourth finger
D) Decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of the fifth finger
E) Decreased sensation over the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, and middle finger
E
A 67-year-old female with hypertension and atrial fibrillation has been taking warfarin
(Coumadin) for the past 10 years. She has been hemodynamically stable for many years with
no complications from her atrial fibrillation. She is scheduled to undergo elective bladder
sling surgery for urinary incontinence. She does not have any other significant past medical
history.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate perioperative management of her
warfarin?
A) Continue warfarin without interruption
B) Discontinue warfarin the day prior to surgery and provide bridge therapy with low
molecular weight heparin
C) Discontinue warfarin 2 days prior to surgery and restart it 2 days postoperatively
unless there is a bleeding complication
D) Discontinue warfarin 2 days prior to surgery and restart it 5 days postoperatively
unless there is a bleeding complication
E) Discontinue warfarin 5 days prior to surgery and restart it 12–24 hours
postoperatively unless there is a bleeding complication
E
A 48-year-old female smoker presents with solid, but not liquid, dysphagia that causes her
to feel as if food is “getting stuck.” She sometimes regurgitates this food. When you ask her
where it feels like the food is sticking she points to a location below the suprasternal notch.
The most appropriate next step is
A) a fluoroscopic swallowing study
B) barium radiography
C) CT of the chest
D) endoscopy
E) esophageal manometry
D
A 7-year-old female is brought to your office by her mother for follow-up of an urgent care
visit. The child has a 5-day history of abdominal pain and low-grade fevers to 100.1°F. Her
mother took her to an urgent care clinic last night when the patient developed the rash shown
below. The rash is not pruritic or painful. She does not have any sick contacts, urinary
symptoms, or changes in bowel habits.
A physical examination is normal except for the rash and minimal diffuse abdominal
tenderness. A CBC and basic metabolic panel are normal and a urinalysis is notable only for
microhematuria (30–40 RBCs/hpf) and mild proteinuria (30 mg/dL).
The following laboratory studies were obtained at the urgent care clinic.
Basic metabolic panel normal
Urinalysis
Color yellow/clear
Leukocyte esterase negative
Nitrite negative
Protein 30 mg/dL (normal negative)
Glucose negative (normal)
Bilirubin negative (normal)
RBCs 34/hpf (N <4)
WBCs 4/hpf (N <5)
Bacteria none
Squamous epithelial cells <1 (normal)
Ketones negative (normal)
Blood large (normal negative)
Urine Gram stain no bacteria, no PMNs
Urine culture negative × 24 hours
In addition to close follow-up, which one of the following is the next appropriate step in the
management of this child?
A) Supportive care only
B) Amoxicillin for 10 days
C) Prednisone tapered over 10 days
D) A biopsy of a skin lesion
E) Referral to a nephrologist for consideration of a renal biopsy
A
An 18-month-old female is brought to your office in January for evaluation of a cough and
fever. She has no chronic medical conditions. She abruptly developed a barking cough and
hoarseness with a low-grade fever 2 days ago. The cough is worse at night. She has been
drinking normally but is not interested in eating. On examination she is alert and resists the
examination. Her respiratory rate and effort are normal. She has no stridor or wheezing.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) A nasal swab for influenza testing
B) A chest radiograph
C) A single dose of oral dexamethasone
D) Azithromycin (Zithromax)
E) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
C
You are reviewing the home health care progress report of a 68-year-old female who was
hospitalized with pneumonia 2 months ago. The patient moved to the area to live with her
daughter following treatment for breast cancer 5 years earlier. Before the hospitalization her
only medical needs had been for preventive services, treatment for hypertension, and
surveillance for problems related to her chemotherapy and for return of her cancer. During
the recent hospitalization oxygen supplementation was required to maintain healthy oxygen
saturation levels, and after failing several attempts at weaning, home oxygen service was
arranged.
You ask the home health nurse to test the patient’s oxygen saturation after 1 hour on room
air and the nurse reports that the patient’s oxygen saturation is now consistently above 90%
on room air. The care plan provided by the home health service includes a recommendation
for the continuation of supplemental oxygen.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate for this patient?
A) Order arterial blood gas studies to confirm her oxygenation status
B) Discontinue oxygen supplementation
C) Discontinue daytime use of oxygen and continue nighttime oxygen
D) Continue oxygen use, but only as needed when short of breath
E) Continue oxygen use to obtain a saturation >92% on room air
B
A 27-year-old female with a past medical history of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
would like to become pregnant. Which one of the following treatments for PCOS is
associated with greater live-birth and ovulation rates?
A) Finasteride (Proscar)
B) Letrozole (Femara)
C) Metformin (Glucophage)
D) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
B
A 58-year-old male with a history of tobacco and alcohol abuse presents with the sudden
onset of many well circumscribed brown, oval, rough papules with a “stuck-on” appearance
on his trunk and proximal extremities. On examination you also note an unintentional 6-kg
(13-lb) weight loss over the last 3 months and conjunctival pallor. A review of systems is
positive for more frequent stomachaches, decreased appetite, and mild fatigue.
You order a laboratory workup. Which one of the following would be most appropriate at
this point?
A) Reassurance that the skin lesions are benign
B) A skin biopsy
C) Referral to a dermatologist
D) CT of the abdomen and pelvis
E) Upper and lower endoscopy
E
A previously healthy 6-year-old male is brought to your office because he has a fever. After
a complete history and physical examination you are concerned that the child has Rocky
Mountain spotted fever.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?
A) Supportive care only
B) Amoxicillin
C) Doxycycline
D) Rifampin (Rifadin)
C
A 38-year-old female presents for ongoing management of type 2 diabetes mellitus, obesity,
and chronic abdominal pain related to her history of recurrent pancreatitis. She says that her
self-monitored blood glucose has been running in the range of 200–300 mg/dL on most
occasions. She is not currently taking any medications but has tried metformin (Glucophage)
and extended-release metformin (Glucophage XR) unsuccessfully in the past. On both
occasions she experienced worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea. She does not feel she can
manage insulin and requests an oral medication. Her hemoglobin A1c in your office today
is 9.0%.
In addition to lifestyle and nutrition counseling, which one of the following would be the best
treatment at this time?
A) Restart metformin
B) Start empagliflozin (Jardiance)
C) Start liraglutide (Victoza)
D) Start sitagliptin (Januvia)
B
According to the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines, when school personnel
suspect that a child has head lice, which one of the following is the most appropriate
management strategy?
A) The child should be sent home until treated, and a notice should be sent to the
parents of the child’s classmates that a case of lice has occurred at the school
B) The child should be sent home and may return to school after an over-the-counter
treatment has been started
C) The child should be sent home and may return to school after treatment prescribed
by a licensed clinician has been started
D) The child should be sent home and may return to school once treatment has been
completed and the child is free of all nits and lice
E) The child should remain in class and should not be treated unless there is a clear
diagnosis and live lice are seen
E
Which one of the following comorbidities would falsely lower the hemoglobin A1c level in a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus? A) Vitamin B12 deficiency B) Iron deficiency anemia C) Hemolytic anemia D) Chronic kidney disease E) A history of splenectomy
C
A 52-year-old male with a long-standing history of hypertension, COPD, type 2 diabetes
mellitus, and bipolar disorder is brought to your office by his daughter because of a new
onset of tremors. He is currently taking aspirin, hydrochlorothiazide, atenolol (Tenormin),
glyburide (DiaBeta), lithium, inhaled albuterol, and inhaled tiotropium (Spiriva). Except for
a recent episode of dehydration, his medication has worked well and no medication changes
have been made within the past 2 years. On examination his heart rate is 52 beats/min and
a neurologic examination reveals mild ataxia and coarse tremors. The remainder of the
physical examination is normal.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his clinical findings?
A) Albuterol
B) Atenolol
C) Lithium
D) Tiotropium
C
A previously healthy 57-year-old patient who smokes is hospitalized and treated with a
fluoroquinolone for community-acquired pneumonia. Which one of the following could be
expected with a 5-day course of antibiotics compared to a longer course in patients such as
this?
A) Slower clinical improvement
B) Higher hospital readmission rates
C) Higher mortality rates
D) Slower resumption of normal activity
E) No difference in clinical outcome
E
A 45-year-old female has a history of intermittent asthma and her only medication is an
albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) inhaler. Over the past 2 months her asthma has limited her
activities. She is using her inhaler daily and waking up at night once or twice a week with
a cough.
Which one of the following would be the preferred medication to control her asthma?
A) Fluticasone (Flovent)
B) Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus)
C) Fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair)
D) Montelukast (Singulair)
C
In addition to group B Streptococcus (GBS), which one of the following is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis? A) Escherichia coli B) Group A Streptococcus C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Staphylococcus aureus E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
A
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends which one of the following screening
options for major depressive disorder (MDD) in adolescents 12–18 years of age?
A) Do not screen because the harms outweigh the benefits
B) Do not screen because valid screening tools are not available for this population
C) Do not screen because reliable treatment options are not effective unless MDD is
clinically apparent
D) Screen if systems are in place for diagnosis, treatment, and follow-up
E) The evidence is currently insufficient to recommend for or against screening
D
An otherwise healthy 64-year-old male comes to your office accompanied by his wife
because of tinnitus that has affected both ears for the last 3 years. It has been most
troublesome at bedtime. His wife says that he is becoming irritable and depressed because
he is bothered by the buzzing in his ears many times during the day. His only medication
is allopurinol (Zyloprim) for the prevention of gout.
The most likely identifiable cause of this patient’s tinnitus is
A) medication
B) Meniere’s disease
C) temporomandibular joint dysfunction
D) sensorineural hearing loss
E) impacted cerumen
D
A 49-year-old male is concerned about lesions on his penis that he has noticed over the past
6 months. He was circumcised as a child and has had the same female sexual partner for 5
years. He does not have any pain, itching, or dysuria. On examination you note multiple
reddish-blue papules on the scrotum and a few similar lesions on the shaft of the penis.
The most likely diagnosis is
A) pearly penile papules
B) lichen nitidus
C) lichen sclerosus
D) angiokeratomas
E) squamous cell carcinoma in situ (Bowen’s disease)
D
A 36-year-old female presents with a 10-year history of daily headaches. The headaches are
bilateral, have a pressure and tightening quality, and are not aggravated by activity. They
tend to worsen as the day progresses. There is no associated prodrome, nausea, or
sensitivity to light or noise. A neurologic examination is normal.
Which one of the following has been shown to reduce the severity and duration of this type
of headache?
A) Amitriptyline
B) OnabotulinumtoxinA (Botox)
C) Propranolol
D) Sertraline (Zoloft)
E) Topiramate (Topamax)
A
A 38-year-old female with a 5-year history of diabetes mellitus has developed a “pins and needles” sensation in her feet. Which one of the following is considered first-line therapy for her condition? A) Acupuncture B) Lidocaine 5% spray C) Oxycodone (Roxicodone) D) Pregabalin (Lyrica) E) Venlafaxine (Effexor XR)
D
A 32-year-old female sees you for evaluation of hair loss. On examination she has a smooth,
circular area of complete hair loss on her scalp with no other skin changes.
Which one of the following would you recommend?
A) An oral antifungal agent
B) Topical minoxidil (Rogaine)
C) Topical immunotherapy
D) Topical corticosteroids
E) Intralesional corticosteroids
E
You are evaluating a 64-year-old female in the emergency department for pyelonephritis.
Her past medical history is negative and she has previously been in good health. The patient
appears acutely ill but is oriented. On examination her weight is 100 kg (220 lb), her
temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), her pulse rate is 110 beats/min, her respiratory rate is
24/min, her blood pressure is 136/72 mm Hg, and her oxygen saturation is 94% on room
air. Initial laboratory findings include a venous lactate level of 4.0 mmol/L (N 0.6–1.7).
You decide to start normal saline intravenously. Which one of the following would be the
most appropriate initial rate?
A) 100 mL/hr
B) 150 mL/hr
C) 200 mL/hr
D) 3000 mL over 30 minutes
E) 3000 mL over 3 hours
E
A 54-year-old female sees you for a wellness examination. Her last screening mammography
10 years ago revealed dense breasts but was otherwise normal.
A past history of which one of the following would indicate the need for MRI of the breasts?
A) Very dense breasts
B) Morbid obesity
C) Combination estrogen/progesterone therapy for the last 3 years
D) Chest radiation for Hodgkin’s disease
E) Radioiodine treatment for Graves disease
D
You prescribe amoxicillin suspension, 480 mg twice daily for 10 days, for a child who
weighs 12 kg (26 lb). To decrease the risk of a dosing error with this prescription, you ask
your nurse to provide the parents with appropriate education and
A) a written copy of the prescription
B) a disposable teaspoon
C) a medication cup
D) an oral syringe
D
A 26-year-old female presents with a skin rash and chronic diarrhea. She reports being
previously diagnosed with eczema, and while the rash has responded well to topical
corticosteroids it flares when they are stopped. The skin rash is very itchy and appears as
mildly erythematous papules and vesicles clustered on the elbows and knees, as well as the
posterior neck and scalp. A comprehensive metabolic panel is normal, and a CBC reveals
a mild microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Antinuclear antibodies are negative, a TSH level
is normal, and a tissue transglutaminase antibody test is positive.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Cutaneous lupus erythematosus
B) Dermatitis herpetiformis
C) Eczema
D) Eczema herpeticum
E) Lichen simplex chronicus
B
You see a 26-year-old male for the first time. He has a history of major depression over the
past 4–5 years. He currently does not take any medications. His psychiatric history reveals
at least two episodes of mania, most recently 1 year ago when he was hospitalized during
the episode.
Which one of the following is CONTRAINDICATED as monotherapy in treating this
patient’s depression at this time?
A) Divalproex (Depakote)
B) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
C) Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
D) Lithium
E) Quetiapine (Seroquel)
B
A 35-year-old white female presents with recurrent wheezing and coughing over the past few
weeks, and recent production of brown sputum plugs. She is a regular patient of yours and
has a long history of asthma and multiple allergies. She has been treated four times in the
last 3 months for asthma exacerbations and generally feels better the first day she takes her
corticosteroid, but any attempt at tapering leads to a recurrence of symptoms. She previously
had good control of her asthma, although she has required regular use of a high-dose inhaled
corticosteroid and a long-acting -agonist. In spite of just completing a course of
levofloxacin (Levaquin) for suspected pneumonia she returns today with a recurrence of the
same symptoms.
A physical examination is unremarkable with the exception of diffuse expiratory wheezing.
She has no fever or other abnormal vital signs. A chest radiograph shows opacities in the
upper and middle lobes and a CBC is concerning for eosinophilia.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
B) Community-acquired pneumonia
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Medication nonadherence
A
An 89-year-old female with a history of hypertension and glaucoma is brought to the
emergency department by her family with shortness of breath. She has been trying to get her
home ready for sale prior to moving into an assisted living facility. She says that she has not
been sleeping well for weeks because she is worried about the move.
On admission the patient has a blood pressure of 140/92 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 86
beats/min, a respiratory rate of 26/min, a temperature of 36.6°C (97.9°F), and an oxygen
saturation of 95% on room air. A physical examination is normal other than faint basilar
crackles. A chest radiograph shows a slightly prominent cardiac silhouette, peribronchial
cuffing, and coarse perihilar lung markings. An EKG reveals a normal sinus rhythm with
global T-wave inversion of the precordial and limb leads. Her troponin I peaks at 0.953
ng/mL (N 0.000–0.780). Echocardiography reveals a normal size right ventricle with
moderate right ventricular hypokinesis, left ventricular apical ballooning, a left ventricular
ejection fraction estimated at 30%, and a moderately increased pulmonary artery pressure
estimated at 43 mm Hg. A radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging study is normal.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute coronary syndrome
B) Acute pericarditis
C) Cardiac amyloidosis
D) Takotsubo cardiomyopathy
E) Viral myocarditis
D
Which one of the following is the leading cause of cancer death in men in the United States? A) Colorectal cancer B) Liver cancer C) Lung cancer D) Non-melanoma skin cancer E) Prostate cancer
C
You see a patient who is being treated for opioid use disorder with buprenorphine. Which one of the following can be used as adjuvant treatment to reduce stress-related opioid cravings and increase abstinence? A) Clonidine (Catapres) B) Methadone C) Naloxone D) Naltrexone (Vivitrol) E) Nifedipine (Procardia)
A
A 5-month-old female is brought to your office for evaluation of a fever to 103.1°F over the
past 2 days. Her immunizations are up to date. On examination she does not appear ill. Her
vital signs include a rectal temperature of 39.0°C (102.2°F), a heart rate of 90 beats/min,
a respiratory rate of 40/min, and an oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The child is alert
and responsive, appears well hydrated, and has no rash or petechiae. The HEENT
examination, including fontanelles, is normal, the chest is clear, there are no murmurs, and
the abdomen is soft.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time?
A) No further testing or treatment at this visit, with close outpatient follow-up
B) A urinalysis and culture, with close outpatient follow-up
C) A CBC with differential, a urinalysis and culture, and close outpatient follow-up
D) A CBC, a urinalysis and culture, a chest radiograph, a lumbar puncture, and
consideration of inpatient monitoring
E) A CBC with differential, blood cultures, a urinalysis and culture, a chest
radiograph, a lumbar puncture, and empiric inpatient antibiotic treatment
B
As the newly appointed medical director in your primary care community health center, you
identify antibiotic stewardship as a priority. You communicate with all clinical and
administrative staff members to express a consistent message to patients about appropriate
indications for antibiotic use.
Which one of the following is an example of an action aimed at improving antibiotic
prescribing practices?
A) Avoiding the use of in-house rapid strep testing for pediatric patients
B) Considering patient expectations and satisfaction when prescribing antibiotic therapy
C) Ensuring that patients with common cold symptoms are seen for evaluation
D) Reducing the use of clinical decision support tools in the electronic health record
E) Writing a delayed antibiotic prescription when appropriate
E
The presence of RBC casts on microscopic examination of a spun urine sediment is
pathognomonic for which one of the following conditions?
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Acute papillary necrosis
C) Acute pyelonephritis
D) Acute tubular necrosis
E) Nephrotic syndrome
A
A 15-year-old male sees you after injuring his right index finger while playing volleyball.
He has pain and a flexion deformity at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint.
Which one of the following would be an indication for further evaluation before splinting?
A) The patient wants to continue athletic activities
B) The patient first presented for treatment 3 weeks after the injury
C) The patient is unable to passively fully extend the joint
D) The patient is unable to actively fully extend the joint
E) A radiograph shows a bony avulsion of 10% of the joint space
C
A 42-year-old male presents with a fever, cough, and chest pain. A rapid influenza test is positive. Which one of the following would be most appropriate for the management of this patient’s pleuritic chest pain? A) Colchicine (Colcrys) B) Hydrocodone C) Ibuprofen D) Prednisone E) Tramadol (Ultram)
C
A 55-year-old male sees you for an annual health maintenance visit. He is a former smoker
and has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. He had a
normal colonoscopy at age 50, and had an ST-elevation myocardial infarction 2 years ago
treated with a drug-eluting stent. He is currently asymptomatic and does not have any chest
pain, hypoglycemia, dyspepsia, melena, or rectal bleeding. His medications include
metformin (Glucophage), 2000 mg daily; glimepiride (Amaryl), 2 mg daily; bisoprolol
(Zebeta), 5 mg daily; losartan/hydrochlorothiazide (Hyzaar), 50 mg/12.5 mg daily;
rosuvastatin (Crestor), 20 mg daily; clopidogrel (Plavix), 75 mg daily; and aspirin, 81 mg
daily. His blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg and his heart rate is 63 beats/min. A physical
examination is unremarkable. His hemoglobin A1c is 6.4%.
You recommend that the patient stop taking
A) aspirin
B) clopidogrel
C) aspirin and clopidogrel
D) metformin
B
In a 60-year-old patient who has not previously received pneumococcal vaccine, which one
of the following would be an indication for both 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
(PCV13, Prevnar 13) and 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23,
Pneumovax 23)?
A) Alcoholism
B) Chronic renal failure
C) Cigarette smoking
D) COPD
E) Diabetes mellitus
B
A 36-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of painless right-sided facial droop. There
are no associated symptoms and his medical history is otherwise unremarkable. An
examination is remarkable for an unfurrowed right brow, mouth droop, a sagging right
lower eyelid, and a complete inability to move the muscles of the right face and forehead.
No other weakness is elicited and no rash is seen.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management at this point?
A) Reassurance only
B) Valacyclovir (Valtrex) alone
C) A tapering dose of prednisone alone
D) Valacyclovir and a tapering dose of prednisone
E) Immediate transfer to the emergency department
D
A 35-year-old female presents with fatigue. She has been falling asleep at work for the past
6 weeks. She is married with two children and works as a nurse at the community hospital.
Since she returned to work 12 weeks ago after maternity leave, her infant has had multiple
respiratory infections and has not slept well through the night. Her menstrual cycle has been
irregular and heavy for the past several months. A CBC and TSH level are normal.
Which one of the following laboratory tests would be appropriate at this visit?
A) 25-Hydroxyvitamin D
B) -hCG
C) D-dimer
D) A serum antibody test for Lyme disease
B
In a patient presenting with truncal obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus,
hirsutism, osteopenia, and skin fragility, which one of the following tests is needed to
confirm the diagnosis of Cushing syndrome?
A) A dexamethasone suppression test
B) Inferior petrosal sinus sampling
C) Plasma corticotropin
D) Plasma free cortisol
E) Urinary free cortisol
E
A 42-year-old female presents with shortness of breath that has slowly worsened over the
past 6 months. She can now walk only 10 feet without becoming short of breath. She does
not have a cough or chest pain. Her history is significant only for obesity. She smoked one
pack of cigarettes per day for 20 years and quit smoking 6 years ago. Her blood pressure
is 138/88 mm Hg, pulse rate 92 beats/min, respiratory rate 18/min, and oxygen saturation
92% on room air. Her BMI is 42.4 kg/m2.
Her heart has a regular rate and rhythm with no murmurs and her lungs are clear to
auscultation. Her lower extremities have bilateral 1+ edema. A chest radiograph is normal.
Spirometry reveals a decreased FVC with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio. A CBC, a TSH level,
and a basic metabolic panel are all normal except for a serum bicarbonate level of 35 mEq/L
(N 22–29).
These findings are most consistent with
A) asthma
B) COPD
C) obstructive sleep apnea
D) obesity hypoventilation syndrome
E) pulmonary fibrosis
D
You see a 58-year-old female who received a drug-eluting stent 10 days ago during a
hospitalization for acute coronary syndrome and coronary artery disease. She asks for
recommendations about anticoagulation. You determine that she is not at high risk for
bleeding.
Which one of the following would you recommend?
A) Long-term aspirin use
B) Clopidogrel (Plavix) and aspirin for 30 days and then aspirin alone
C) Clopidogrel alone for 1 year and then aspirin alone
D) Clopidogrel and aspirin for 1 year and then aspirin alone
E) Prasugrel (Effient) for 1 year with no anticoagulation after that
D
A 45-year-old female presents with throbbing right-sided heel pain that started a few weeks
ago. She says the pain is worst in the morning and seems to improve during the day but will
return after a long day on her feet. She does not have a history of trauma, change in
exercise, unexplained fever, or unintended weight loss.
On examination the patient’s vital signs are normal. You note pain on palpation of the right
medial calcaneal tuberosity and along the plantar fascia, and pain with passive dorsiflexion
of the right foot. The skin over the foot reveals no sign of trauma, lesions, or masses.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s heel pain?
A) The heel spur
B) A calcaneal stress fracture
C) Heel pad syndrome
D) Plantar fasciitis
E) Sever’s disease
D
A 36-year-old female singer presents with a 10-day history of hoarseness. She has never
smoked and does not take any medications. Her vital signs are normal. An oropharyngeal
examination is normal, her chest is clear to auscultation, and there is no cervical adenopathy
and no masses. She is anxious to be able to sing again as soon as possible.
Which one of the following would you advise at this time?
A) No talking, whispering, or throat clearing for 48 hours
B) No singing or loud talking for 5–7 days
C) Nebulized hypertonic saline treatments 3 times daily for 2–3 days
D) Nebulized ribavirin twice daily for 3 days
E) Inhaled corticosteroids twice daily for 5 days
A
A 74-year-old female with a long-standing history of coronary artery disease is hospitalized
for pneumonia. The patient improves with treatment and is hemodynamically stable. An
EKG performed on the third day of hospitalization is shown below.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step?
A) Cardiac rhythm monitoring with no additional treatment
B) Atropine
C) Transcutaneous pacing
D) Transvenous pacing
A
While sitting in the waiting room a patient develops the acute onset of diffuse hives, itching,
and flushing; swelling of the lips, tongue, and uvula; and bilateral wheezing. He becomes
weak and almost passes out.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate immediate treatment?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) Epinephrine
D) Glucagon
E) Normal saline
C
A 50-year-old male with hypertension who is not at increased risk for gastrointestinal
bleeding should begin low-dose aspirin at what 10-year risk level for cardiovascular disease?
A) 1%
B) 7.5%
C) 10%
D) 15%
E) 20%
C
A U.S. hospital or birthing center seeking to be certified as “Baby-Friendly” by the
Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative must satisfy which one of the following criteria in addition
to meeting other requirements?
A) Demonstrating proper use of an infant car seat to parents prior to discharge
B) Providing no other food or fluids to breastfeeding infants without a medical
indication
C) Providing a pacifier to each baby prior to discharge
D) Providing easy access to a variety of infant formulas
E) Providing on-site daycare facilities for staff
B
A 50-year-old gravida 2 para 2 who is 3 years post menopausal presents with fatigue, headache, galactorrhea, and loss of libido. Your evaluation reveals elevated serum prolactin and a pituitary adenoma of 5–6 mm. You recommend A) bromocriptine (Parlodel) B) estrogens C) haloperidol D) testosterone E) neurosurgical consultation
A
Referral for bariatric surgical evaluation is indicated for patients with a BMI of
A) 35 kg/m2 and mild cognitive impairment
B) 36 kg/m2 and type 2 diabetes mellitus
C) 37 kg/m2 and no other medical problems
D) 40 kg/m2 and active alcohol abuse
E) 42 kg/m2 and uncontrolled schizophrenia
B
A 75-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital. The Joint Commission National Patient
Safety Goals program requires medication reconciliation for this patient both on admission
and at the time of discharge.
The primary intent of this reconciliation is to detect
A) potentially inappropriate medication use in the elderly
B) high-risk medication use
C) medication discrepancies
D) polypharmacy
E) adverse drug effects
C
A 29-year-old male smoker presents with a 10-day history of a cough. He also had a
low-grade fever for 2 days that has resolved. He has had some mild rhinorrhea and has
noted that the cough has become productive of greenish sputum over the past 3–4 days. He
has not tried any medication. An examination reveals some mild rhinorrhea but his lungs are
clear.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Supportive care only
B) A chest radiograph
C) Albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin)
D) Antibiotic therapy
E) An inhaled corticosteroid
A
According to the recommendations of the American Heart Association, which one of the
following patients requires endocarditis prophylaxis?
A) A 10-year-old female with a previous history of Kawasaki disease without valvular
dysfunction
B) A 22-year-old female who underwent surgical repair of a ventricular septal defect
1 year ago
C) A 28-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation
D) A 35-year-old female with a history of infectious endocarditis in her 20s that was
related to intravenous drug use
E) A 42-year-old female with a history of rheumatic fever with chorea who has normal
cardiovascular findings
D
A 69-year-old male presents with acute right hip pain, which has been worsening over the
past week and is now causing difficulty walking. He has had occasional hip pain in the past
but this is more severe than previous episodes. He has no history of trauma and he feels well
otherwise. His medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, osteoarthritis, and
psoriasis. His current medications include lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic),
aspirin, and adalimumab (Humira).
An examination reveals normal vital signs and a BMI of 29.3 kg/m2. The joint is not red or
swollen. There is no tenderness over the greater trochanter, groin, or buttock. Active and
passive range of motion of the hip is limited in all directions due to pain. A radiograph
shows mild degenerative changes of the hip joint. A C-reactive protein level is mildly
elevated.
Which one of the following would be indicated at this point to rule out a serious cause of
joint pain?
A) A radionuclide bone scan
B) Arthrocentesis
C) CT
D) MR arthrography
E) MRI
B
Which one of the following is the most appropriate psychotherapy for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder? A) Traditional psychotherapy B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy C) Psychoanalysis D) Psychodynamic therapy
B
A 63-year-old female is concerned about her long-term use of medication. She has been
taking omeprazole (Prilosec), 20 mg daily for the past 4 months, and tells you that it works
well to relieve her symptoms of heartburn and regurgitation. She notes, however, that if she
misses a dose her symptoms return.
You tell her that long-term proton pump inhibitor use is associated with which one of the
following complications?
A) Gastrointestinal malignancy
B) Hip fracture
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Nephrotic syndrome
E) Vitamin D deficiency
B
A 4-year-old male is brought to your office for a well child examination. The patient has no
significant medical history. The mother has noted new skin lesions first appearing on the
back, with a new lesion behind the right knee. She has not used any new detergents or skin
or hair care products. She has not made any changes in the patient’s diet. The child does not
have pruritus.
The examination reveals a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F), a pulse rate of 80 beats/min,
and a blood pressure within normal limits. The examination is unremarkable except for
nonerythematous flesh-colored, dome-shaped papules with a central indentation, on the
lower back and popliteal fossa.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate for the initial management of this
condition?
A) Observation only
B) Consistent use of emollients and avoiding frequent hot baths
C) Use of a topical low-dose corticosteroid cream once daily until resolved
D) Use of a topical antifungal cream until resolved
E) Paring, followed by topical salicylic acid or cryotherapy
A
A 34-year-old male has a 3-day history of a runny nose, postnasal drainage, sinus
congestion, and left-sided facial pain. He also reports a mild cough and difficulty sleeping
due to the congestion. He is afebrile and the examination reveals inflammation of the nasal
mucosa, purulent rhinorrhea, and mild left maxillary sinus tenderness to percussion.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
B) Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
C) Loratadine (Claritin)
D) Mometasone (Nasonex)
D
At what age should a patient at average risk be switched from a universal screening strategy
for colon cancer to a more individualized strategy?
A) 45
B) 55
C) 65
D) 75
E) 85
D
An 18-month-old male is brought to your office for a well child check. He is walking only
with assistance. You and the parents are concerned about gross motor delay.
Which one of the following findings would be most suggestive of muscular dystrophy in this
patient?
A) A cross-legged “scissoring” posturing
B) Head lag when sitting up
C) Hyperreflexia in the legs
D) Partial hemiparesis of the lower extremities
E) Toe walking
B
Which one of the following is most commonly associated with oligohydramnios? A) Anencephaly B) Esophageal atresia C) Hydrops D) Maternal -thalassemia E) Posterior urethral valves
E
You see a 47-year-old female for follow-up of a rash. She is a carpenter and was seen 4
days ago for increasing redness and tenderness of her anterior shin after hitting the area with
a board 3 days earlier. She was afebrile during that visit and the area was red but not
fluctuant. She chose observation rather than treatment at that time. The patient smokes 10
cigarettes daily. Past medical, surgical, and family histories are otherwise negative.
Screening for diabetes mellitus was normal last year.
Today the patient’s anterior shin is still tender. She is afebrile and other vital signs are
unremarkable. The extent of the infection was drawn 4 days ago with an indelible marker
by your partner. Currently the area of redness extends beyond this border. There is no
fluctuance or drainage of the wound. The skin appears mildly indurated.
Which one of the following would be best to provide coverage against Streptococcus
pyogenes or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in this patient?
A) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) and ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B) Cephalexin and dicloxacillin
C) Dicloxacillin and fosfomycin (Monurol)
D) Doxycycline and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
E) Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and cephalexin
E
A 65-year-old male brings in results from a health fair screening. He was advised to see you
because he had a hemoglobin level of 10.2 g/dL (N 14.0–18.0) and a mean corpuscular
volume of 80 m3 (N 80–94). A review of systems is unremarkable except for recent
fatigue, and a physical examination is also unremarkable. You order laboratory testing, with
the following results:
Ferritin 15 ng/mL (N 20–150)
Vitamin B12 420 pg/mL (N 200–900)
Folate 12 ng/mL (N 2–20)
Reticulocyte index 0.3% (N 0.5–1.0)
The most likely diagnosis is
A) iron deficiency anemia
B) vitamin B12 deficiency
C) anemia of chronic disease
D) hemolysis
E) myelodysplastic anemia
A
The mother of a newborn infant is concerned because her baby’s eyes are sometimes
crossed. Assuming the intermittent eye crossing persists, which one of the following is the
most appropriate age for ophthalmologic referral?
A) 10–14 days
B) 6 months
C) 12 months
D) 24 months
B
A 47-year-old male presents with a 3-day history of fever, chills, low back pain, and urinary
frequency. He does not have any nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. There is no
significant past medical history.
The patient’s vital signs include a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F), a pulse rate of 88
beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 14/min. The examination reveals a mildly tender lower
abdomen with no guarding or rebound tenderness; no costovertebral angle tenderness; and
an enlarged, homogeneous, exquisitely tender prostate.
Which one of the following is indicated to help guide this patient’s treatment?
A) A serum prostate-specific antigen level
B) A culture of prostate secretions after massage of the prostate
C) A culture of midstream voided urine
D) CT of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous and oral contrast
E) An ultrasound-guided prostate biopsy
C
A 57-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with lower lobe pneumonia. She has no
history of diabetes mellitus. She has not met sepsis criteria but had a blood glucose level of
172 mg/dL in the emergency department.
Insulin should be started if this patient has a persistent blood glucose level greater than or
equal to
A) 120 mg/dL
B) 140 mg/dL
C) 160 mg/dL
D) 180 mg/dL
D
A healthy 33-year-old male sees you for a pretravel consultation. He plans to attend a
4-week intensive Spanish language course in Antigua, Guatemala. You discuss
immunizations, malaria prophylaxis, injury prevention, and traveler’s diarrhea.
Which one of the following interventions is most likely to prevent traveler’s diarrhea?
A) Avoiding food from street vendors
B) Avoiding the use of ice in beverages
C) Taking a probiotic
D) Taking a prophylactic antibiotic
E) Washing hands frequently
E
A 52-year-old male smoker presents to your office in January with worsening respiratory
symptoms over the past 24 hours, along with a rapid onset of fever and chills, nausea,
myalgias, and sore throat. He has a history of mild chronic bronchitis and hypertension, and
his medications include tiotropium (Spiriva) inhaled daily; lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide
(Zestoretic), 20/12.5 mg daily; and albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) as needed.
On examination the patient has a temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F), a heart rate of 102
beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24/min, and an oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. He
is ill-appearing and pale. Examination of his throat reveals mild erythema, and chest
auscultation reveals bilateral bronchovesicular breath sounds with no crackles or wheezing.
The examination is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory and radiology services are not
available.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Observation only, with follow-up in a few days
B) Azithromycin (Zithromax)
C) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
D) Penicillin VK
E) Prednisone
C
A 33-year-old gravida 2 para 2 presents with a 1-year history of amenorrhea, hot flashes,
and vaginal dryness. She previously had normal menses and takes no medications. Her past
medical and surgical histories are negative. The patient is 178 cm (70 in) tall and her BMI
is 22.0 kg/m2. Her vital signs are normal. A physical examination is normal except for
vaginal dryness. Laboratory studies reveal a negative urine pregnancy test, normal TSH and
prolactin levels, and elevated LH and FSH levels.
The most likely diagnosis is
A) intrauterine synechiae (Asherman syndrome)
B) functional hypothalamic amenorrhea
C) polycystic ovary syndrome
D) primary ovarian insufficiency
E) Turner’s syndrome
D
A 62-year-old female presents for a health maintenance visit. She is interested in staying up
to date on her preventive care recommendations. She smoked for 4 years during college.
Her BMI is 23.0 kg/m2. She feels well and does not have any specific health concerns. She
had a colonoscopy 4 years ago and no polyps were found. A screening mammogram 6
months ago was normal.
Which one of the following screening measures is recommended by the U.S. Preventive
Services Task Force for this patient?
A) A urinalysis to detect asymptomatic bacteriuria
B) Measurement of hemoglobin A1c
C) Screening for hepatitis A and B viruses
D) Screening for hepatitis C virus
E) Lung cancer screening with low-dose CT of the lungs without contrast
D
A 69-year-old male presents for follow-up of hypertension treated with spironolactone
(Aldactone) and amlodipine (Norvasc). His past medical history is remarkable only for a
kidney stone several years ago. A physical examination is unremarkable. A comprehensive
metabolic panel is unremarkable except for a calcium level of 12.0 mg/dL (N 8.0–10.0).
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his elevated calcium level?
A) Excessive ingestion of calcium supplements
B) His current medication regimen
C) Occult malignancy
D) Primary hyperparathyroidism
E) Vitamin D deficiency
D
A 7-month-old male is admitted to the hospital for respiratory syncytial virus bronchiolitis.
His temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse rate 160 beats/min, respiratory rate 70/min, and
oxygen saturation 92% on room air. Auscultation of the lungs reveals diffuse wheezing and
crackles accompanied by nasal flaring and retractions.
Which one of the following interventions would most likely be beneficial?
A) Bronchodilators
B) Corticosteroids
C) Epinephrine
D) Nasogastric fluids
E) Oxygen supplementation to maintain O2 saturation above 95%
D
A 30-year-old male presents with intermittent right upper quadrant pain after meals. He has
been in moderate pain for the past 3 hours. On examination the patient’s vital signs are
normal except for a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F). He appears toxic. Examination of the
abdomen reveals a positive Murphy’s sign.
Laboratory Findings
WBCs 3000/mm3 (N 4300–10,800)
ALT (SGPT) 132 U/L (N 10–55)
AST (SGOT) 123 U/L (N 9–25)
Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (N 45–115)
Bilirubin 2.6 mg/dL (N 0.0–1.0)
Lipase 15 U/dL (N 3–19)
Ultrasonography reveals cholelithiasis. Other findings include an enlarged gallbladder,
thickening of the gallbladder wall, and a common bile duct diameter of 11 mm.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
A) Acute cholangitis
B) Acute viral hepatitis
C) Cholangiocarcinoma
D) Gallstone pancreatitis
A
A 73-year-old female presents with a 3-day history of pain, numbness, and weakness in her
right arm and shoulder. She reports that the problem began when she went out for a walk,
tripped on an asphalt ledge, and fell to the ground. She was able to get herself back up and
walk home but has had upper extremity problems since then. Her chronic medical conditions
include early Alzheimer’s dementia and hyperlipidemia. After a full examination you order
radiographs (shown below).
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Figure-of-eight bandaging
B) Physical therapy
C) Shoulder reduction
D) Sling immobilization
E) Surgical decompression
C
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force recommends which one of the following for
women who are planning on or are capable of becoming pregnant?
A) Testing for hepatitis C
B) Annual pelvic examinations
C) Folic acid, 0.4–0.8 mg daily
D) Vitamin B12, 1000 g daily
E) Vitamin D, 400–800 IU daily
C
An 11-year-old female is brought to your office for a well child visit. The mother is
concerned because the patient’s back seems to have a curve. The patient is not aware of this
although she has frequent back pain.
An examination is notable for a BMI above the 95th percentile for her age, and breast bud
development. Menarche has not occurred. When she leans forward with her arms
outstretched there is a 12° curve in her spine with a rib hump. Radiography reveals a
measured Cobb angle of 20°.
Which one of the following indicates a need for referral to a specialist?
A) Back pain
B) A Cobb angle of 20°
C) Female sex
D) Obesity
E) Premenarchal status
B
A healthy 43-year-old executive presents with problems falling asleep and staying asleep.
Doxepin (Silenor) and extended-release melatonin have not helped.
In addition to behavioral interventions, which one of the following would be the most
appropriate pharmacologic therapy for this patient’s insomnia at this time?
A) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B) Doxylamine (Unisom)
C) Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
D) Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
E) Zaleplon (Sonata)
C
A 46-year-old male presents with a persistent cough that has been present for several months
and was not preceded by an upper respiratory infection. He does not have a history of
asthma, does not smoke, and takes no medications. His symptoms consist of short bursts of
coughing that produce a small amount of mucoid sputum during the day. He does not have
emesis or nausea. The cough sometimes wakes him at night but does not seem to be specific
to any particular posture. He does not have a fever, shortness of breath, wheezing,
heartburn, or nasal symptoms. A thorough physical examination is normal and a chest
radiograph appears normal.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of
this patient?
A) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
B) An empiric trial of a proton pump inhibitor
C) CT of the chest
D) CT of the sinuses
E) Referral for bronchoscopy
B
A 25-year-old female comes to your office at 30 weeks gestation for a routine obstetric
follow-up. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated except for a lack of insurance. She is an
immigrant from Guatemala and does not speak English. You have used a telephone
interpreting service for her previous visits, but today her 15-year-old niece is with her and
she says that she would be happy to interpret for you.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate?
A) Have the niece ask the patient for permission to act as interpreter
B) Proceed with the visit, since it is unlikely that you will need to discuss complicated
medical issues
C) Confirm the niece’s significant understanding of English, then have her interpret
D) Recommend the use of the telephone interpreting service as best medical practice
E) Tell her that it is illegal to use interpreters who are not certified
D
A 65-year-old female presents for follow-up of a DXA scan for osteoporosis screening.
Results of the scan reveal osteopenia, with a T-score of –2.0.
Treatment for osteopenia is indicated when the 10-year risk of a major fracture reaches
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 35%
C
A 21-year-old gravida 1 para 0 is diagnosed with overt hyperthyroidism early in the first
trimester. The most appropriate management at this time is
A) observation only
B) methimazole (Tapazole)
C) propylthiouracil
D) radioactive iodine
E) thyroidectomy
C
A 55-year-old male presents with severe pain, swelling, and erythema in his left first
metatarsophalangeal joint. His symptoms started yesterday and he has never had this
problem in the past. He has a history of hypertension, but normal renal function and no
diabetes mellitus. There is no overlying skin lesion or obvious source of infection.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
B) Cephalexin (Keflex)
C) Colchicine (Colcrys)
D) Febuxostat (Uloric)
C
A 30-year-old male is treated with topical medications for his papulopustular rosacea with
only partial improvement. The preferred antibiotic is
A) amoxicillin
B) cephalexin (Keflex)
C) doxycycline
D) erythromycin
E) trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
C
A 75-year-old female sees you because of a bulge at the vaginal opening. A pelvic
examination confirms descent of the vaginal wall to just beyond the hymen. This protrusion
is bothering her and interfering with her quality of life. She has had two vaginal deliveries.
She is sexually active and has not had any pelvic surgery.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this problem?
A) Kegel exercises
B) A ring pessary
C) A space-occupying pessary
D) Hysteropexy
E) Hysterectomy
B
A mother brings in her 2-week-old infant for a well child check. She reports that she is
primarily breastfeeding him, with occasional formula supplementation.
Which one of the following should you advise her regarding vitamin D intake for her baby?
A) Breastfed infants do not need supplemental vitamin D
B) He does not need supplemental vitamin D if he is taking at least 16 oz of formula
per day
C) Vitamin D supplementation should not be started until he is at least 6 months old
D) He should be given 400 IU of supplemental vitamin D daily
E) Intake of vitamin D in excess of 200 IU/day is potentially toxic
D
A 70-year-old male comes to your office for preoperative clearance for a right total hip
replacement. He is a nonsmoker and has a history of mild hypertension controlled with
amlodipine (Norvasc). The history indicates that he is able to perform 7–8 METS of activity
without any concerning symptoms. A physical examination, including vital signs, is normal.
Your evaluation should include which one of the following tests?
A) A chest radiograph
B) Coagulation testing
C) An EKG
D) Liver function studies
E) Renal function studies
E
A 12-year-old female is brought to your office with a 3-week history of left groin pain that
is most bothersome after she participates in gym class at her middle school. She does not
recall a specific injury and does not participate in extracurricular sports. She had an upper
respiratory infection about a month ago but has otherwise been well.
An examination reveals a BMI at the 95th percentile for her age. Her vital signs are within
normal limits. A musculoskeletal examination is remarkable for limited internal rotation of
the hip.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Adductor muscle strain
B) Apophysitis of the anterior superior iliac spine
C) Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
D) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
E) Transient synovitis
D
A 36-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of persistent nasal congestion and
rhinorrhea. On examination he has clear nasal discharge and edema of the nasal mucosa but
no nasal polyps are noted. His current medications include intranasal fluticasone (Flonase).
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of his chronic
symptoms?
A) Recommend neti pot nasal irrigation
B) Add oral amoxicillin
C) Add oral prednisone
D) Replace fluticasone with budesonide (Rhinocort) nasal spray
A
A 45-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history reports a chronic cough with a
small amount of phlegm production and dyspnea with strenuous exercise. You order
spirometry, which shows a pre- and postbronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.6 and an FEV1
of 85% of predicted.
Which one of the following agents would be the best initial pharmacologic management?
A) An inhaled corticosteroid
B) A short-acting anticholinergic
C) A long-acting anticholinergic
D) A long-acting 2-agonist
E) Theophylline
B
A 50-year-old female sees you for follow-up of her hypertension. At her last visit 4 weeks
ago you started her on lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 10 mg daily, because of a blood pressure
of 158/92 mm Hg and confirmed hypertension on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.
She is tolerating the medication well and has no side effects. She does not take any other
medications. Today her blood pressure is 149/90 mm Hg, which you confirm on repeat
measurement. This is also consistent with her home measurements. At her last visit a basic
metabolic panel was normal.
You repeat a basic metabolic panel today and the results are normal except for a BUN of 25
mg/dL (N 8–23) and a creatinine level of 1.5 mg/dL (N 0.6–1.1). At her last visit her BUN
was 12 mg/dL and her creatinine level was 0.7 mg/dL.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time?
A) Continue her current treatment regimen
B) Increase lisinopril to 20 mg daily
C) Continue lisinopril at the current dosage and add amlodipine (Norvasc), 5 mg daily
D) Discontinue lisinopril and begin amlodipine, 5 mg daily
E) Discontinue lisinopril and begin losartan (Cozaar), 25 mg daily
D
A 50-year-old female presents with pain in her right forefoot. She recently ran her first full
marathon after several years of inactivity and says the pain started gradually over the last
few weeks of her training and has slowly gotten worse. You order radiographs of the foot,
which show a stress fracture of the second metatarsal.
You would recommend
A) resumption of regular activity if the pain does not recur with activity after 1 week
of rest
B) no weight bearing on the right foot for 6 weeks
C) no weight bearing for a few days, followed by a walking boot, then a rigid-soled
shoe in 4–6 weeks
D) a walking boot for 12 weeks
E) referral to an orthopedic surgeon for further evaluation
C
A healthy 55-year-old white male with a family history of coronary artery disease sees you
for a routine health maintenance visit. He asks you what he could do to decrease his risk of
cardiovascular disease. He is a nonsmoker, does not drink alcohol, and has no history of
substance abuse. His BMI is normal and the physical examination is otherwise
unremarkable. His vital signs include a heart rate of 80 beats/min, a blood pressure of
119/70 mm Hg, a respiratory rate of 15/min, and a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F).
Laboratory Findings
Fasting glucose 92 mg/dL
Total cholesterol 190 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 98 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 50 mg/dL
Triglycerides 145 mg/dL
His calculated 10-year risk for cardiovascular disease is 5.4%. Which one of the following
has the best evidence to prevent cardiovascular disease in a patient such as this?
A) Moderate-intensity exercise, 150 minutes weekly
B) A low-dose statin
C) Aspirin, 81 mg daily
D) Fish oil supplements
E) Niacin supplements
A
An asymptomatic 42-year-old female sees you for a routine evaluation. On examination her
uterus is irregularly enlarged to the size seen at approximately 8 weeks gestation. Pelvic
ultrasonography shows several uterine fibroid tumors measuring <5 cm. The patient does
not desire future fertility.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management option?
A) Observation only
B) An oral contraceptive
C) A gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonist
D) Laparoscopic myomectomy
E) Hysterectomy
A
A 34-year-old female sees you because of cramping diarrhea for the past several months
following resection of her terminal ileum as treatment for Crohn’s disease. She is not aware
of any exposure to individuals with similar symptoms. She has not had any fever, chills,
nausea, vomiting, or myalgias, and she has not noticed any blood in her stool. She is passing
several loose stools daily, mostly after meals. She has not been able to identify any clear
relationship to the type of food she eats.
Which one of the following would be the best initial treatment option for this patient?
A) A dairy-free diet
B) Cholestyramine (Questran) daily
C) A Lactobacillus probiotic supplement (Lactinex) 4 times daily
D) Loperamide (Imodium) as needed
E) Psyllium fiber (Metamucil) twice daily
B
A 48-year-old male comes to your office for follow-up of recently diagnosed panic attacks.
As part of his treatment plan he is taking sertraline (Zoloft), 50 mg daily, and working with
a mental health provider who has diagnosed posttraumatic stress disorder associated with a
traumatic childhood. He reports that his sleep continues to be interrupted by nightmares.
Which one of the following additional medications may provide long-term control of his
symptoms?
A) Atenolol (Tenormin)
B) Lorazepam (Ativan)
C) Prazosin (Minipress)
D) Risperidone (Risperdal)
E) Zolpidem (Ambien)
C
A 55-year-old female presents with a 3-month history of right shoulder pain. The pain has
begun to limit some daily activities such as brushing her hair and reaching high shelves, and
it is waking her up at night, especially when she lies on her right side.
On examination the shoulder appears normal. There is moderate subacromial tenderness, a
positive painful arc at 90°, normal range of motion and abduction strength, and a positive
Hawkins impingement sign. You diagnose rotator cuff impingement syndrome.
You consider performing a subacromial corticosteroid injection. Which one of the following
is the most likely result?
A) More pain relief and functional improvement compared to NSAIDs
B) More effective pain relief compared to physical therapy
C) More durable relief if an image-guided intra-articular injection is used
D) A possibility of temporary pain relief, but no change in the long-term outcome
D
A patient is being discharged from the hospital following an acute non–ST-elevation
myocardial infarction. He is currently being treated with aspirin, lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril),
and metoprolol. An echocardiogram performed in the hospital was normal and a lipid panel
included a total cholesterol level of 200 mg/dL and a triglyceride level of 225 mg/dL. On
examination he has a pulse rate of 68 beats/min and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
Which one of the following additional medications has been shown to improve survival in
patients like this?
A) Amlodipine (Norvasc)
B) Atorvastatin (Lipitor)
C) Gemfibrozil (Lopid)
D) Isosorbide mononitrate
E) Spironolactone (Aldactone)
B
Acne appearing at which one of the following ages should prompt detailed endocrine
laboratory testing for possible underlying systemic disease?
A) 3 weeks
B) 7 months
C) 5 years
D) 9 years
E) 13 years
C
A 30-year-old white male presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of
fever to 101°F, a sore throat, rhinorrhea, and cough. An examination reveals rhinorrhea and
a boggy nasal mucosa, but is otherwise unremarkable. A chest radiograph shows a
questionable infiltrate.
Which one of the following would help determine if antibiotic treatment would be
appropriate?
A) A C-reactive protein level
B) A procalcitonin level
C) A WBC count with differential
D) An erythrocyte sedimentation rate
E) CT of the chest
B
A 5-year-old male is brought to your office after passing an intestinal worm. He lives on a
farm with cattle, pigs, and dogs. He has never traveled very far from home. He does not
have any respiratory symptoms or diarrhea, but has experienced some abdominal bloating.
A picture of the worm taken by his mother is shown below.
Which one of the following is the infecting organism?
A) Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm)
B) Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)
C) Giardia lamblia
D) Necator americanus (hookworm)
E) Taenia solium (tapeworm)
A
A 55-year-old male veteran sees you for a routine health maintenance visit. He is up to date
on recommended immunizations. His father was diagnosed with colon cancer at age 70 and
his family history is otherwise negative. The patient underwent a colonoscopy at age 50 and
has a copy of his pathology results, which describe a single hyperplastic polyp taken from
the rectum.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate screening for colorectal cancer
in this patient?
A) Annual fecal immunochemical testing (FIT) starting now
B) Repeat colonoscopy now
C) Repeat colonoscopy at age 60
D) Referral to a gastroenterologist for further management
C
Additional workup or referral to an endocrinologist for evaluation of precocious puberty
would be indicated in which one of the following patients?
A) A 7-year-old female with some pubic hair
B) An 8-year-old female with breast buds
C) An 8-year-old male with some pubic hair and axillary odor
D) An 8-year-old male with penile enlargement
E) A 10-year-old female who has recently begun having menses
D
An obese 37-year-old white female sees you because of fatigue. She is otherwise
asymptomatic and has normal vital signs. A complete physical examination is unremarkable
with the exception of obesity. A CBC shows no anemia, but her WBC count is 12,500/mm3
(N 4500–11,000). A TSH level and a comprehensive metabolic panel are normal. She does
not take any medications and has not had any recent illnesses.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Reassurance that her leukocytosis is likely caused by her obesity and counseling
about weight loss
B) A repeat CBC with differential and a review of the peripheral smear
C) A blood culture
D) Flow cytometric testing
E) Referral to a hematologist for further workup
B
The drug class of choice for the management of breathlessness in end-of-life care is A) anticholinergics B) antipsychotics C) benzodiazepines D) corticosteroids E) opiates
E
A 34-year-old male presents with low back pain and stiffness that has been slowly worsening
over the past 6 months. It is especially bothersome at night and in the morning when he gets
out of bed. It improves with physical activity. He has taken ibuprofen, 400 mg several times
a day, which provides moderate pain relief but is not working as well as it used to. He does
not have any other joint pain, there is no history of trauma, and he is otherwise well. His
BMI is 24.8 kg/m2. Radiographs of the lumbar spine show mild degenerative changes of the
lumbar vertebrae without other abnormalities.
Which one of the following additional tests would most likely lead to a specific diagnosis?
A) An erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B) C-reactive protein
C) Antinuclear antibody
D) HLA-B27
E) Rheumatoid factor
D
An 80-year-old male sees you for the first time. He is asymptomatic except for some fatigue.
His pulse rate is 50 beats/min. An EKG shows a prolonged PR interval.
Which one of the following medications in his current regimen is the most likely explanation
for these findings?
A) Donepezil (Aricept)
B) Escitalopram (Lexapro)
C) Lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
D) Memantine (Namenda)
E) Zolpidem (Ambien)
A
A 14-year-old female is brought to your office for an annual well child check and sports
preparticipation physical examination. She says she does a lot of running during basketball
practices and games but has trouble controlling her weight. Most of her family is
overweight. She does not have any difficulty participating in sports, and has no symptoms
such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or headaches. She has no significant past medical
history.
On examination the patient’s height is 154 cm (61 in) and she weighs 63 kg (139 lb). Her
BMI is 26.4 kg/m2, which places her in the 90th percentile for her age. Her blood pressure
is 130/85 mm Hg, which places her between the 95th and 99th percentile for her age,
height, and sex. Her chart reveals that her blood pressure was at this level at the last two
visits. The physical examination is otherwise normal.
In addition to counseling and support for weight loss, which one of the following would be
most appropriate at this point?
A) Informing the patient and her parents that she is prehypertensive and having her
return for a blood pressure check in 3 months
B) Plasma renin and catecholamine levels
C) An imaging study of the renal arteries
D) A fasting basic metabolic panel, a lipid profile, and a urinalysis
E) Antihypertensive drug therapy
D
A 55-year-old male is hospitalized because of altered mental status. His group home
caregiver reports a 1-week history of the patient being confused and unable to perform his
activities of daily living. He has a history of hypertension, COPD, and bipolar disorder, and
his medications include losartan (Cozaar), inhaled tiotropium (Spiriva), and valproic acid
(Depakene).
On examination the patient’s vital signs are normal and he is oriented to person, but not to
time or place. The remainder of the physical examination is within normal limits. Laboratory
findings, including liver enzymes and renal function tests, are normal except for an elevated
ammonia level. Ultrasonography of the abdomen does not show any liver abnormalities.
Lactulose therapy is started.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s elevated ammonia level?
A) Valproic acid
B) Occult upper gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Portal vein thrombosis
D) Gilbert syndrome
A
A 75-year-old male with a history of hypertension, TIA, and atrial fibrillation sees you for
follow-up. Ten days ago he was on vacation in another state when he developed chest pain.
He went to a local hospital where he was diagnosed with an ST-elevation myocardial
infarction (STEMI) and was taken immediately for cardiac catheterization. He had a
drug-eluting stent placed in his left anterior descending artery. He brings some discharge
paperwork with him, including a medication list, but has not yet seen a local cardiologist.
He is concerned that he is taking too many blood thinners. He feels well and does not have
any chest pain, shortness of breath, or excessive bleeding or bruising.
Prior to his STEMI the patient was taking lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), 10 mg daily; warfarin
(Coumadin), 2.5 mg daily; and metoprolol succinate (Toprol-XL), 25 mg daily. Upon
discharge he was instructed to continue all of those medications and to add clopidogrel
(Plavix), 75 mg daily, and aspirin, 81 mg daily.
The patient’s vital signs and physical examination are normal except for an irregularly
irregular rhythm on the cardiovascular examination. His INR is 2.5.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time?
A) Continue the current regimen
B) Discontinue aspirin
C) Discontinue clopidogrel
D) Discontinue warfarin
E) Decrease warfarin with a goal INR of 1.5–2.0
A
A 38-year-old white female presents with abdominal pain and insists that she be referred for
surgical evaluation. She has a history of multiple unexplained physical symptoms that began
in her late teenage years. She is vague about past medical evaluations, but a review of her
extensive medical record reveals multiple normal blood and imaging tests, several surgical
procedures that have failed to alleviate her symptoms, and frequent requests for refills of
narcotic analgesics.
This patient’s history is most compatible with
A) illness anxiety disorder
B) malingering
C) panic disorder
D) generalized anxiety disorder
E) somatic symptom disorder
E
A 20-year-old college student comes to the urgent care clinic with right knee pain and
swelling after injuring her knee in a recreational basketball game. Her feet were planted
when another player collided with her, causing her upper torso to rotate. She felt immediate
pain in the knee and was unable to complete the game.
Which one of the following is the most accurate and appropriate maneuver to detect an
anterior cruciate ligament tear?
A) The anterior drawer test
B) The lever sign test
C) The Lachman test
D) The McMurray test
E) The pivot shift test
C
A 54-year-old male is concerned about testosterone deficiency. He has erectile dysfunction
with impaired erections and decreased libido. He has also noted hair loss on his legs, breast
tenderness, and fatigue. He has chronic renal disease and compensated heart failure, and he
takes opioids for chronic pain. Five years ago he had a non–ST-elevation myocardial
infarction and has done well with medical management.
The patient’s morning testosterone level is low on two separate readings and you want to
initiate testosterone replacement.
Laboratory Findings
Estimated glomerular filtration rate 58 mL/min/1.73 m2
Creatinine 2.0 mg/dL (N 0.7–1.3)
Hematocrit 55% (N 42–52)
Prostate-specific antigen 3.9 ng/dL (N 0.0–4.0)
Which one of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication to starting treatment with
testosterone in this patient?
A) The history of coronary artery disease
B) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C) Chronic renal disease
D) Compensated heart failure
E) Polycythemia
E
A 62-year-old female comes to your office for evaluation of pain in her right thumb and
wrist associated with sewing. She does not have any injury, numbness, tingling, or
weakness. An examination reveals an otherwise healthy-appearing female with normal vital
signs and no deformity or swelling in her wrists or hands. She has tenderness to palpation
at the first dorsal compartment over the radial styloid and has pain with active and passive
stretching of the thumb tendons over the radial styloid. She is very worried that she will
have to stop sewing and asks if there is anything she could try to alleviate her symptoms.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?
A) Reassurance that it will likely improve on its own within about a year
B) A corticosteroid injection into the first extensor compartment
C) Immobilization in a thumb spica splint and an NSAID for 1–4 weeks
D) Radiographs of the thumb and wrist
E) Referral to an orthopedic surgeon
C
