202 X2 149 Flashcards by Jessica Moore

____________ uses radiofrequency signals and multiple magnetic fields to produce a high-definition image.
a.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b.
Computed tomography (CT)
c.
Positron emission tomography (PET)
d.
Fluoroscopy

a.
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

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“K” is the symbol for:
a. Barium
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Hydrogen

c. Potassium

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The procedure that is used to correct a blocked or narrowed blood vessel and restore flow is called:
Angioplasty
Venoplasty
Venogram
Seldinger technique

Angioplasty

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Contrast media instilled into the urinary tract for visualization of the bladder, ureters, and kidney is called ________________.
a.
myelography
b.
angiography
c.
cholangiography
d.
retrograde pyelography

d. retrograde pyelography

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Normal adult range for sodium is:
102-113 mEq/L
113-124 mEq/L
124-135 mEq/L
136-145 mEq/L

136-145 mEq/L

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Cross-matching of blood refers to:
Blood typing
Blood grouping
Blood compatibility
Rh factor determination

Blood compatibility

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The _________________ is a basic test used to evaluate the type and percentage of normal components in the blood.
a.
arterial blood gases (ABCs)
b.
metabolic panel
c.
white blood count (WBC)
d.
complete blood count (CBC)

d. Complete Blood Count (CBC)

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Most image guided procedures are initiated with the Seldinger technique. The first step of the technique is placement of the needle in the vessel. Select the step below that is performed after the needle is placed in the lumen of the vessel.

Catheter is threaded over a guidewire

Guidewire is inserted

Needle is removed

Dilator is inserted

Guidewire is inserted

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Two primary tests that are performed on surgical patients to evaluate blood and blood cells are ________________________.
a.
CBC and differential leukocyte count
b.
type and cross-match and type and screen
c.
cardiac enzyme and glucose level studies
d.
urinalysis and electrolyte study

a. CBC and differential leukocyte count

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To perform cholangiography, which duct is identified and incised for placement of the catheter?
Wharton’s
Hepatic
Cystic
CBD

Cystic

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Because ________ is found in contrast media, the patient must be evaluated for potential hypersensitivity before administration.
a.
latex
b.
radioactive material
c.
penicillin
d.
iodine

d. iodine

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_______________ is/are the most basic form of assessment.
a.
CT scan
b.
Vital signs
c.
ECG
d.
Chest radiograph

b. Vital signs

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_________________, or decreased serum potassium, can result from persistent and severe vomiting and diarrhea, from extensive tissue trauma, or from shock.
a.
Hypokalemia
b.
Hyponaturemia
c.
Hyperkalemia
d.
Hypocalcemia

a. Hypokalemia

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Molecules of inorganic substances that are essential for homeostasis and are capable of splitting to yield a charged particle or substance are called _____________.
Answers: a.
sodium levels
b.
glucose levels
c.
electrolytes
d.
cardiac enzymes

c. electrolytes

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Protein or albumin in the urine indicates:
Urinary tract infection
Diabetes
Acute or chronic renal disease
Dehydration

Acute or chronic renal disease

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Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques is used to aid in diagnosing a rotator cuff tear?
MRI
Plain radiographic
Myelography
CT

MRI

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Which of the following is the normal value of the BUN for adults?
7-18 mg/dl
18-29 mg/dl
29-40 mg/dl
40-51 mg/dl

7-18 mg/dl

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A primary tool for assessing the chambers for air after valve replacement is:
ECG
MUGA scan
TEE
Arterial waveform

MUGA scan

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________ is necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses to skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle.
a.
Potassium
b.
Sodium
c.
Magnesium
d.
Calcium

a. Potassium

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The normal adult range of WBC is:
5,000-10,00/mm3
10,000-15,000/mm3
15,000-20,000/mm3
20,000-25,000/mm3

5,000-10,000/mm^3

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Acute adverse reactions to iodinated and gadolinium containing contrast media can be either allergic-like or physiologic. Sound clinical judgment should be used to determine when and how aggressively an acute reaction should be treated, however, many mild reactions resolve during a period of observation without treatment. Which statement by the patient would alert you to the possibility that the patient was having a mild reaction to the contrast agent?

“I am having trouble breathing, and my heart is racing!”

“I feel dizzy, hot, kind of nauseated, and my nose is stuffy.”

“I am having pain and tightness in my chest and shoulders.”

“I am itchy all over and there are shooting pains in my IV arm!”

“I feel dizzy, hot, kind of nauseated, and my nose is stuffy.”

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Lynne D. is scheduled for surgery. Her hematocrit reading is 40% of whole blood volume. This is:
Within normal range
Below normal range
Above normal range
Inconclusive

Within normal range

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What does ALARA stand for:
As Low As Reachable Achievable
As Low As Reasonable Achievable
As Long As Reasonably Attainable
As Long As Reasonably Achieve

As Low As Reasonable Achievable

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_____________________ can result from parathyroid disease, vitamin D deficiency, and specific drugs such as corticosteroids and some diuretics.
a.
Hypocalcemia
b.
Hematocrit
c.
Hyponaturemia
d.
Hemoglobin

a. Hypocalcemia

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__________________ has/have important functions in the blood-clotting mechanism, including clot retraction and activation of coagulation factor. Answers: a. Hemoglobin b. White blood cells c. Red blood cells d. Platelets

d. Platelets

________ studies are used to measure blood flow. a. Endoscopy b. MRI c. Doppler d. X-ray

c. Doppler

Electrolytes are vital for _________________ and are responsible for nerve impulses, fluid balance, transport of substances in and out of the cell, and balancing blood pH. a. staging b. systolic pressure c. hemostasis d. homeostasis

d. homeostasis

Inorganic substances essential for homeostasis; Potassium, sodium, and magnesium; Positively charged are called cations and negatively charged are called anions

Electrolyte

Used to monitor patients who are receiving antiplatelet drugs; PT and PTT

Coagulation Test

The pH and specific gravity are assessed; Assesses color, clarity, and odor

Urinalysis

Measures hemoglobin and hematocrit; Measures the number of each type of leukocyte; A sample is drawn from the vein and centrifuged

CBC

Produces two- or three-dimensional digital images in cross section; Any metal in range of the device may be drawn toward the source of emission; Uses radiofrequency signals and multiple magnetic fields to produce a high-definition image

MRI

_______________ provides detailed information about heart conduction. a. Blood pressure b. Oximetry c. ECG d. EEG

c. ECG

After being scheduled in the OR for a routine tonsillectomy, the SFA checking the chart of Kim A. notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0 gm/dl. This reading is: Within normal range Below normal range Above normal range Inconclusive

Below normal range

Taken when a surgical count cannot be resolved and there is risk of an item left in the patient

Standard X-Ray

A gel coating is used when the probe is applied to skin; Used in vascular surgery to track the movement of blood when combined with the Doppler; Uses high-frequency sound waves

Ultrasound

Cholangiography and angiography

Contrast Radiography

Normal adult range for potassium is: 1.5-3.5 mEq/L 3.5-5.5 mEq/L 5.5-7.0 mEq/L 7.0-8.5 mEq/L

3.5-5.5 mEq/L

The normal pulse rate for an adult is ___________________. a. 75 to 100 beats per minute b. 40 to 60 beats per minute c. 80 to 120 beats per minute d. 60 to 100 beats per minute

d. 60 to 100 beats per minute

The preoperative urinalysis test done on Ms. McSweeney indicates that the specific gravity is 1.050. This indicates that: It is within normal range It is below normal range and she is dehydrated It is above normal range and she is dehydrated There is sugar present in the urine

It is above normal range and she is dehydrated

A microscopic blood count that estimates the percentages of each type of leukocytes within a sample is called a: Platelet Differential Hematocrit Hemoglobin

Differential

___________ tests and procedures are those that do not require an incision or the perforation of intact tissues or structures. a. Noninvasive b. Fluoroscopy c. CBC d. Invasive

a. Noninvasive

The body requires a core (deep) temperature of approximately 99° F, or __________. a. 37.2° C b. 40° C c. 42° C d. 38.2° C

a. 37.2° C

The ____________________ produces characteristic patterns indicating normal or abnormal conduction impulses that stimulate heart action. a. electrocardiogram (ECG) b. ultrasound c. Doppler d. neuromonitoring

a. electrocardiogram (ECG)

Preoperative laboratory tests for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy patient reveal an elevated amylase level and elevated alkaline phosphatase level. These would alert the SFA to: Change to an open Hasson technique Abort the endoscope approach Have the laparoscopic choledochoscope and baskets available Order a postoperative ICU bed

Have the laparoscopic choledochoscope and baskets available

Gary Robert is on anticoagulant drugs. Which of the following tests may be done to check the clotting time of his blood? Serum amylase Complete blood count Bleeding time Prothrombin time

Prothrombin time

A test that includes results of blood glucose, carbon dioxide, creatinine, urea nitrogen, bicarbonate, and several important electrolytes is called a ____________. a. coagulation test b. metabolic panel c. differential leukocyte count d. urinalysis

b. metabolic panel

________ is a radiopaque element that is used in the radiographic examination of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. a. Optiray b. Renografin c. Barium d. Conray

c. Barium

What is the best protection against occupational radiation exposure? Lead apron Collimator Filter Distance

Lead apron

Normal adult male range for RBC is: 4.2-6.1 mill/µl 2.8-4.2 mill/µl 1.4-2.8 mill/µl 0.4-1.4 mill/µl

4.2-6.1 mill/µl

Cesium-137, iodine-125, and iridium-192 are ________________that are implanted directly into the tumor mass. a. contrast mediums b. cardiac enzymes c. metabolic panels d. radioactive seeds

d. radioactive seeds

The normal pH of urine is: 1.2-4.6 4.6-8.0 8.0-11.4 11.4-14.0

4.6-8.0

Normal oral temperature in a person at rest is _________. a. 47° C b. 52° C c. 42° C d. 37° C

d. 37° C

The ________ measures hemoglobin, hematocrit, platelet, and leukocytes. a. metabolic panel b. imaging study c. CBC d. ABO

c. CBC

A 75-year-old woman who is in teh ICU after undergoing cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis is hypotensive and tachycardiac. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is elevated to 18 mm Hg, and cardiac output is 3 L/min. She is in shock best described as which of the following? Hypovolemic shock Septic shock Cardiogenic shock Neurogenic shock

Cardiogenic shock

The basic metabolic panel includes all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. blood glucose b. carbon dioxide c. oxygen d. creatinine

c. oxygen

__________________ is/are the oxygen-carrying protein attached to RBCs. a. Hemoglobin b. Leukocytes c. Platelets d. Hematocrit

a. Hemoglobin

The cardiac malformation which most frequently causes infant death is: Complete transposition of the great vessels Mitral and aortic stenosis Pulmonary valvular stenosis Coarctation of the aorta

Complete transposition of the great vessels

Neuropathologic conditions requiring surgical intervention can be found in any age group. What are the most common problems requiring neurosurgical procedures in infants and children? a. Occipital neuroma and trauma b. Aneurysms and craniostenosis c. Skull fractures and epilepsy d. Craniosynostosis and hydrocephalus

d. Craniosynostosis and hydrocephalus

Which statement concerning omphalocele is NOT true? Defect occurs from sixth to tenth week of fetal life Sac is composed of transparent avascular membrane Both skin and muscle of abdominal wall are missing Defect occurs at the juncture of umbilical cord with the abdomen

Both skin and muscle of abdominal wall are missing

Protrusion of meninges and brain tissue out of cranial cavity is: Meningocele Encephalocele Meningomyelocele Spina bifida

Encephalocele

Infants and children with severe gastroesophageal (GE) reflux can have life-threatening complications, including obstructive apnea, aspiration pneumonia, esophagitis, and failure to thrive. What is the name of the procedure, performed open or laparoscopically, that is designed to create a competent antireflux barrier? a. Pyloromyotomy with pyloroplasty b. Nissen fundoplication c. Esophagectomy d. Sphincterotomy

b. Nissen fundoplication

In a ventriculoureterostomy shunt procedure for hydrocephalus it is necessary to: Replace the tube as the child grows Combat sodium depletion Remove one kidney and insert tube into that ureter All of the above

All of the above

Indicators of spina bifida occulta include all EXCEPT which of the following? A deep dimple or sinus at the affected level An ulceration in the skin at the affected area A tuft of hair at the affected level An area lacking pigmentation

An ulceration in the skin at the affected area

An 8-year-old girl with a prominent chest wall deformity that pushes the sternum inward is asymptomatic, and she participates fully in atheletic activities at school. Surgical correction is recommended. What is the most likely cause of the deformity? Funnel chest (pectus excavatum) Pectus carinatum (protrusion at the sternum) Flail chest Cystic hygroma

Funnel chest (pectus excavatum)

Pediatric surgery is a multidisciplinary field that encompasses many surgical specialties. Most procedures can be classified into one of three groups, including all of the following, EXCEPT __________. a. treatment of congenital anomalies b. treatment of disease c. treatment of PID d. trauma surgery

c. treatment of PID

Which of the following groups of congenital anomalies require immediate surgery? Tetralogy of Fallot, pyloric stenosis, cleft palate Tracheo-esophageal fistula, omphalocele, imperforate anus Hypospadias, spina bifida, biliary atresia Patent ductus arteriosus, epispadias, exstrophy of the bladder

Tracheo-esophageal fistula, omphalocele, imperforate anus

What is the remnant of the diverticulum formed by migration of thyroid tissue? Cystic Hygroma Thyroglossal duct cyst Esophageal Atresia without tracheoesophagel fistula Pectus Carinatum

Thyroglossal duct cyst

Jaundice appearing during the first 24 hours of life is usually due to: Biliary atresia Neonatal sepsis Hemolytic disease Congenital infection

Hemolytic disease

This diagnosis describes the protrusion of the viscera through a defect in the abdominal wall to the right of the umbilical cord. It may be idiopathic or one in a combination of other syndromes with associated anomalies. Select the diagnosis. a. Omphalocele b. Umbilical hernia c. Gastroschisis d. Congenital talipes equinovarus

c. Gastroschisis

Cleft lip is usually associated with a notch or cleft of the underlying alveolus and a cleft of the palate. Cleft lip repair is most often performed when the infant is about 3 months of age. Cleft lip is described as: a. absence of the frenulum with resultant mandibular defect. b. a deficiency of tissue (skin, muscle, and mucosa) along one or both sides of the upper lip. c. absence of one or both philtral clefts with a notch in the alveolus. d. two skin ridges situated near the midline of the central philtrum of the lip.

b. a deficiency of tissue (skin, muscle, and mucosa) along one or both sides of the upper lip.

A cleft palate may include a _____________ roof of the mouth, or it may be ___________ behind the soft palate. Cracked; Prominent Broken; Intact Open; Hidden None of the above

Open; Hidden

Hydrocephalus is caused by: Cerebral capillary fragility Excessive CSF absorption in lateral ventricles Increasing production or decreased absorption of CSF Edema of subarachnoid space

Increasing production or decreased absorption of CSF

Which of the following functions is immature at birth? Cardiac Renal Respiratory Peristalsis

Renal

The pediatric patient is at risk for surgical site infection related to surgical intervention. Select the outcome indicator that would best reflect that the goal of freedom from signs and symptoms of infection was attained. a. The patient demonstrates or reports adequate pain control. b. The surgical site heals by first intention. c. The patient is at or returning to normothermia at the conclusion of the immediate postoperative period. d. The patient’s fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balances are maintained at or improved from baseline levels.

b. The surgical site heals by first intention.

What is the most common inguinal hernia is children? Direct Indirect Sliding Petersen

Indirect

The toddler uses symbols and engages in creative play. Toddlers are beginning to develop free will and control over their bodies. Which of the interventions below is age-appropriate for toddlers? a. Sing songs from your own childhood that the child may be able to learn. b. Make up a story about their personal comfort item as you give it to their parent to keep. c. Ask them about their concerns and offer information to decrease their fears. d. Give only simple choices and involve them in actions when possible.

d. Give only simple choices and involve them in actions when possible.

Airway and pulmonary management in infants is more challenging than in adults because: Infants' pulmonary functional residual capacity means they become hypoxic more quickly if the airway is lost Very compliant chest wall decreases the work of breathing with airway compromise The CO2 curve respiratory response rate is increased in infants Infants are obligate mouth breathers

Infants' pulmonary functional residual capacity means they become hypoxic more quickly if the airway is lost

The procedure of choice for stenosis of the pyloric sphincter in infants is: Pyloroplasty Gastrostomy Cardiomyotomy Pyloromyotomy

Pyloromyotomy

Young children are predisposed to parasympathetic hypertonia (increased vagal tone), which can be induced by: a. environmental stimuli such as loud noise or flashes of light. b. thermal stimuli such as ambient excessive heat or cold. c. anxiety stimuli such as separation from a parent. d. painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.

d. painful stimuli such as eye surgery or abdominal retraction.

Which is an established cause of patent ductus arteriosus? Maternal diabetes Maternal rubella in first trimester Preeclampsia with hypertension ABO incompatibility

Maternal rubella in first trimester

Any misalignment of the eyes is called strabismus. The goal for treatment of strabismus is to straighten the eyes so that binocular vision functions appropriately. Surgery may be recommended to change the alignment of the eyes relative to each other by: a. performing bilateral blepharoplasty. b. repositioning the eye muscles. c. strengthening the lower eyelids. d. strengthening the upper eyelids.

b. repositioning the eye muscles.

The surgical pediatric patient with an increased metabolic rate requires all the following EXCEPT: Oxygen Calorie intake Blood transfusions Fluids

Blood transfusions

1. Congenital narrowing of the thoracic aorta that restricts blood flow to the lower body 2. A congenital anomaly that includes several types of neural tube defects, including incomplete closure of the bony spinal column around the spinal cord 3. Congenital anomaly in which large parts of the brain fail to develop 4. A type of abdominal wall deformity in which the viscera develop outside the body, contained within a peritoneal sac 5. Is a congenital anomaly characterized by a stricture or blockage of the passage between the nasal sinus and the pharyngonasal airways a. Spina bifida b. Choanal atresia c. Anencephaly d. Omphalocele e. Coarctation of the aorta

1. (e) Coarctation of the aorta 2. (a) Spina bifida 3. (c) Anencephaly 4. (d) Omphalocele 5. (b) Choanal atresia

1. The most common primary renal malignancy of children 2. A combination of congenital defects 3. Congenital absence of ganglion cells, which control the relaxation and contraction that occur in peristalsis 4. These are embryonic remnants or slits in the neck region that persist as cysts or fistulas after birth 5. Webbing of the fingers or toes as a result of incomplete separation of the digits in embryonic life a. Syndactyly b. Tetralogy of Fallot c. Wilms tumor d. Branchial cleft cysts and clefts e. Hirschsprung disease

1. (c) Wilms tumor 2. (b) Tetralogy of Fallot 3. (e) Hirschsprung disease 4. (d) Branchial cleft cysts and clefts 5. (a) Syndactyly

1. Is a fetal heart structure that shunts blood from the right ventricle into systemic circulation 2. Congenital cardiac defect 3. An abdominal wall defect in which the viscera form outside the body 4. Congenital cardiac defect in which a hole in the interatrial septum allows blood from the left atrium to flow into the right atrium 5. Complete or partial absence of the esophagus a. Gastroschisis b. Esophageal atresia c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. Atrial septal defect e. Ventricular septal defect

1. (c) Patent ductus arteriosus 2. (e) Ventricular septal defect 3. (a) Gastroschisis 4. (d) Atrial septal defect 5. (b) Esophageal atresia

1. Also called pyloric stenosis 2. Partial or complete division of the lip or palate prevents the infant from sucking effectively 3. A fistula connecting the esophagus with the trachea 4. Pectus excavatum or pectus carinatum 5. Congenital cardiac defect in which the pulmonary valve leaflets are fused, restricting circulation of the blood from the right ventricle to the lungs a. Tracheoesophageal fistula b. Infantile hypertrophic c. Chest wall deformities d. Pulmonary valve stenosis e. Cleft lip or palate

1. (b) Infantile hypertrophic 2. (c) Cleft lip or palate 3. (a) Tracheoesophageal fistula 4. (c) Chest wall deformities 5. (d) Pulmonary valve stenosis

A child’s comprehension of, and responses to, the environment are based on his or her developmental age. Many theorists have provided excellent guidelines for assessing the pediatric patient’s developmental level to use appropriate interventions. The infant develops the belief that the world can be counted on to meet basic needs through the trust versus mistrust concept based on the stages of psychosocial and emotional needs. This theoretical framework of stages based on emotional needs was described by ______________, while the stages based on changes in cognition and ability to think were described by _____________. a. Dr. John Watson; Dr. Albert Bandura b. Dr. Jean Piaget; Dr. John Watson c. Dr. Erik Erikson; Dr. Jean Piaget d. Dr. Karl Jung; Dr. Sigmund Freud

c. Dr. Erik Erikson; Dr. Jean Piaget

The main physiologic difference between an omphalocele and a gastroschisis is: An omphalocele is enclosed in a membranous sac An omphalocele is lower in the abdomen A gastroschisis includes the liver and spleen A gastroschisis is easier to repair

An omphalocele is enclosed in a membranous sac

Which of the following pediatric procedures can be performed using minimally invasive technology? Closure of a patent ductus arteriosus Correction of pectus excavatum Pancreatectomy All of the above

All of the above

Pediatric medications are prescribed according to the child’s __________. a. developmental stage b. age c. weight d. all of the above

c. weight

An imperforate anus means: Anal opening is absent Anus is closed Anal sphincter is too tight Anal sphincter is too loose

Anus is closed

The condition involving premature closure of infant cranial suture lines is referred to as: Cranioplasty Stereotactic surgery Craniosynostosis Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

Craniosynostosis

One cause of early onset jaundice is _____________, which can occur when a type 0 mother gives birth to a non-type 0 infant. Rh incompatibility RhX insufficiency AO insufficiency ABO incompatibility

ABO incompatibility

_____________ may predispose the patient to infections such as meningitis. Meningocele Anencephaly Spina bifida occulta Myelomeningocele

Meningocele

Children are more prone to foreign-body ingestion than adults. What is the most significant risk? a. Mucosal tear b. Poisoning c. Esophageal impaction d. Aspiration with airway obstruction

d. Aspiration with airway obstruction

Personal comfort or security items should be permitted to accompany children to the OR who are in which developmental age? a. Infancy to 1 year b. School age to adolescence c. Toddler to early childhood d. Infancy through adolescence

d. Infancy through adolescence

Improvements in instrumentation and the development of equipment in smaller sizes have resulted in the evolution of minimally invasive surgery (MIS) from that of a rapidly growing field to one of routine practice in the pediatric surgical arena. The advantages of MIS for the pediatric population include which true statement? a. Pediatric patients having MIS procedures have less prevalence of adhesion formation. b. There is less risk for injury or complications with pneumoperitoneum insufflation. c. There is less possibility for abdominal injury from Foley catheter decompression. d. MIS procedures on children do not require the use of thromboembolic devices.

a. Pediatric patients having MIS procedures have less prevalence of adhesion formation

Gastroschisis is a condition in which the abdominal wall has failed to _______________ and the intestines lay ________________ the abdominal cavity. Form; Above Close; Outside Open; Under Grow; Within

Close; Outside

An otherwise healthy child is admitted with massive painless rectal hemorrhage. The diagnosis is: Peptic ulcer Meckel's diverticulum Intussusception Meconium peritonitis

Meckel's diverticulum

In patent ductus arteriosus ___________ blood under pressure from the __________ is shunted into the __________. Venous, pulmonary artery, aorta Arterial, inferior vena cava, right ventricle Nonoxygenated, pulmonary vein, left ventricle Oxygenated, aorta, pulmonary circulation

Oxygenated, aorta, pulmonary circulation

An orchiopexy is the surgical placement and fixation of the testicle in a normal anatomic position in the scrotal sac. If the testis fails to descend into the scrotum during gestation, it is considered undescended. Which statement regarding indications for orchiopexy is true? a. All testes that are undescended after 1 year require surgical placement in the scrotum. b. The normal path of the testis becomes obstructed. c. The testis is strangulated by contraction of the cremaster muscle. d. Retractile testes require surgical or hormonal treatment.

a. All testes that are undescended after 1 year require surgical placement in the scrotum.

Which of the following endocrine disorders is common in older women? Pheochromocytoma Hypothyroidism Cushing syndrome Acromegaly

Hypothyroidism

Your patient has an ileal conduit. Which of the following best describes an ileal conduit? A bag is connected to a stoma on the abdominal wall and stool from the large intestine drains into the bag A feeding tube is placed directly into the stomach through the abdominal wall A tube is inserted into the urethra to drain urine from the bladder, which collects in the bag A bag is connected to a stoma on the abdominal wall and urine drains into the bag

A bag is connected to a stoma on the abdominal wall and urine drains into the bag

Elderly patients often have to have cataract surgery, the irrigation/aspiration handpiece is used for: Anterior capsulotomy Posterior capsulotomy Peripheral iridectomy Remove residual cortex

Remove residual cortex

Which action is considered a best practice when communicating with geriatric patients with cognitive impairments? a. Approach the patient from the front and identify yourself. b. Treat the person as if he/she is special and address him/her in a soft, quiet manner. c. Take measures to minimize emotional inflections in your message. d. Speak moderately loud, facing the patient and holding his/her hand.

a. Approach the patient from the front and identify yourself.

Factors in the evaluation of the older surgical patient are assessing cognitive ability and capacity, risk for postoperative delirium, screening for alcohol and substance abuse, documentation of functional status including falls, nutritional status, and understanding of treatment goals and expectations and their family/social support system. The Mini-Cog test can be used as a tool for: a. assessing cognitive impairment. b. determining fall risk. c. assessing nutritional status. d. screening for alcohol/substance abuse.

a. assessing cognitive impairment.

Which of the following infectious disease is relatively rare in geriatric patients? Pneumonia Measles Urinary tract infection Clostridium difficile diarrhea

Measles

The occurrence of perioperative mortality in geriatric surgical patients is influenced by several evidence-based factors. Select the patient most at risk for perioperative mortality. a. A 70-year-old man scheduled for a bunionectomy of the right foot, ASA class II b. A 70-year-old woman, scheduled for an emergency bowel resection with an American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) class IV c. A 70-year-old man with type 2 diabetes, scheduled for a robotic-assisted prostatectomy, ASA class III d. A 70-year-old woman with a hearing aid and bilateral cataracts, scheduled for a dilatation and curettage (D&C), ASA class IV

b. A 70-year-old woman, scheduled for an emergency bowel resection with an American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) class IV

Surgical option for older women with advanced pelvic organ prolapse who no longer desire coital activity. Cervical cerclage LeFort procedure Wertheim procedure Manchester procedure

LeFort procedure

Minimally invasive surgeries continue to increase in popularity. It seems logical that older patients would benefit from smaller incisions that produce less postoperative pain, atelectasis, and ileus. However, regardless of age, every surgical procedure possesses a certain amount of risk. Which minimally invasive surgical component can present hemodynamic and pulmonary consequences in patients with severe cardiac or pulmonary disease? a. Ultrasonic dissection b. Robotic-assisted pelvic approach c. CO2 pneumoperitoneum d. Radiofrequency ablation

c. CO2 pneumoperitoneum

An 83-year-old woman, admitted for an abdominal perineal resection for early sigmoid cancer, has a recent history of a 4% weight loss. On admission to the OR, she is tachypneic, her tongue and mucous membranes of her mouth are dry, her speech is slurred, and she is confused. Her surgical unit nurse states that the patient’s bowel prep the night before was successful. The patient states that she needs to vomit. The anesthesia provider tries to find a good vein for an intravenous (IV) access and asks the perioperative nurse to look for a possible vein on the patient’s other arm as the left arm veins are flat. Based on these conditions, what nursing diagnosis is the patient presenting? a. Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to NPO status and bowel prep b. Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume related to intraoperative blood loss c. Deficient Fluid Volume related to age-associated total body water and plasma volume loss d. Deficient Fluid Volume related to NPO status and bowel prep

d. Deficient Fluid Volume related to NPO status and bowel prep

What is a common effect of aging on the muscles? They become larger, but lose strength They become smaller, but have more elasticity They become smaller and more rigid None of the above

Older people are at higher risk for retinal detachment. What procedure is performed to treat retinal detachment? Scleral buckling Trabeculectomy Goniotomy Vitrectomy

Scleral buckling

By age 65, normal blood pressure, without corrective medications, may become __________ or even higher. 160/90 120/90 200/120 None of the above

160/90

Elderly patients are at a higher risk for DVTs. DVTs occur most commonly in the: Right iliac vein Lumbar vein Femoral vein Left iliac vein

Left iliac vein

As a person ages, digestive secretions decrease, mucus becomes thicker (causing dysphagia), and saliva becomes more alkaline. Decreased peristalsis and gastric motility, resulting in muscle tone loss, will cause delayed stomach emptying. What common digestive condition may result from delayed stomach emptying? a. Mucositis b. Dysphagia c. Esophageal reflux d. Odynophagia

c. Esophageal reflux

Older women experience urinary incontinence more frequently. Which of the following types of fistulas refers to leakage of urine into the vagina? Rectrovaginal Ureterovaginal Vesicovaginal Ureterovaginal

Vesicovaginal

An ethical consideration with older surgical patients centers on the dilemma of do not resuscitate (DNR) orders. When considering the decision to maintain or suspend DNR orders prior to surgery, the guiding principle should be to: a. facilitate the family to collaborate on consensus. b. seek legal consultation through the facility ethics department. c. develop a facility-wide policy for either suspension or maintaining of DNR orders. d. respect the patient’s autonomy.

d. respect the patient’s autonomy.

Age-related changes cause decreased blood flow to the kidneys with a resultant decrease in nephron function. Which condition is created from the cumulative effect of the multiple drugs that the elderly patient will receive during the perioperative phase? Liver toxicity Polypharmacy psychosis Weakened bladder muscle tone with urinary incontinence Adverse drug reaction

Adverse drug reaction

Which of the following is an uncommon disease in elderly individuals? Parkinson disease Reye's syndrome Alcoholism Depression

Reye's syndrome

Your patient fell and received a fracture to the distal radius, this would be referred to as: Avulsion fracture Torus fracture Colles' fracture Smith's fracture

Colles' fracture

The glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys: Tends to increase with aging Tends to decrease with aging Has an unpredictable response to aging. It increases in about half of all people and decreases in the other half

Tends to decrease with aging

Hyperthyroidism is the great masquerader in the elderly population and can easily be missed in patients older than 60 years. An important assessment point during the preoperative interview that could influence the positioning for the surgical procedure is based on which true statement? a. Patients who have been exposed to radioactive iodine are at risk for pressure injuries. b. The patient may have osteoporosis caused by hyperthyroidism. c. Positional injury can trigger thyroid storm. d. Euthyroid syndrome is prevalent in hyperthyroidism and impairs neck flexion.

b. The patient may have osteoporosis caused by hyperthyroidism.

Which of the following can be a cause of locking of the knee joint? Tibial fracture Osteochondral defects Osteosarcoma Osteomalacia

Osteochondral defects

Mechanism of injury (MOI), or kinematics, involves the action of forces on the human body and their effects. Motor vehicle collisions (MVCs) account for a high degree of blunt trauma. In the case of an adult trauma victim who is the driver in a head-on MVC at high speed, where the head hits the windshield and the chest impacts the steering wheel, what is the MOI and description of the possible injuries? a. Blunt force trauma; impact force causes subdural and epidural hemorrhage and transaction of the thoracic aorta and great vessels b. Acceleration/deceleration; injury to the anterior and posterior brain and internal thoracic organs and vessels c. Deceleration; contusion of the frontal lobe of the brain and anterior chest wall d. Acceleration; contusion of the occipital lobe of the brain and posterior chest wall

b. Acceleration/deceleration; injury to the anterior and posterior brain and internal thoracic organs and vessels

Postoperative serosanguinous pooling is controlled with wound _________. a. Drains b. Pins c. Clamps d. Dressings

a. Drains

____________, a vascular failure caused by prolonged, severe blood loss, is the most common cause of mortality in trauma. a. Hypothermia b. Metabolic acidosis c. Coagulopathy d. Hemorrhagic shock

d. Hemorrhagic shock

One goal of damage control surgery is to focus solely on lifesaving maneuvers, including all of the following EXCEPT __________. a. Relief of compartment syndrome b. Control of feeding c. Control of hemorrhage d. Control of fecal spillage

b. Control of feeding

A victim of a MVA who was thrown from the vehicle is brought to the ED. The patient is unconscious and hypotensive. He is found to have a dilated left pupil, decreased breath sounds over the right chest, a moderately distended abdomen, an unstable pelvis, and severe bruises over the thighs. After resuscitation with 2 L of crystalloid and 2 units of type-specific packed RBCs, the patient remains hypotensive with a systolic blood pressure in the low 80's. What is the least likely explanation for this patient's hypotension? External blood loss Bleeding into the chest Retroperitoneal bleeding Severe closed head injury

Severe closed head injury

The extent of injury after blunt trauma may be difficult to determine. What noninvasive diagnostic test is critical to diagnosis in potential traumatic brain injury? a. Neurovascular arteriography b. Pupil reflex and response to light c. CT scan of the head d. Skull radiograph

c. CT scan of the head

Lower-than-normal blood pH is what condition? a. Hypothermia b. Metabolic acidosis c. Coagulopathy d. Hyperthermia

b. Metabolic acidosis

Focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST) may assist with diagnosis in difficult situations. Which group of scans is performed, and what do they identify? a. Upper and lower extremity scans; compartment syndrome b. A full body scan; midline shifts c. Chest, pelvic, and four abdominal scans; collections of fluid and free air d. Chest, abdominal, and cervical spine scans; hemorrhage

c. Chest, pelvic, and four abdominal scans; collections of fluid and free air

Blunt force to the larynx can result in a fracture and impose immediate airway obstruction. These patients are at risk for a lost airway and may require immediate tracheotomy followed by repair of the fracture when the fracture is unstable or displaced. It is also important to consider that a trauma patient is assumed to have a full stomach; thus, these patients are at high risk for aspiration and resultant pneumonia. What is an appropriate nursing action in the event of a lost airway after anesthesia induction and before intubation? a. Assist the anesthesia provider with securing the airway while applying cricoid pressure. b. Increase the oxygen delivery and perform a head tilt–chin lift. c. Assist the anesthesia provider by inserting a nasogastric tube and connecting to suction. d. Obtain emergency tracheostomy tray and trach tubes.

a. Assist the anesthesia provider with securing the airway while applying cricoid pressure.

With injury to the brain, swelling may occur quickly, requiring aggressive decisions to manage increasing ICP. What is an appropriate diuretic medication to give, and what nursing actions would be indicated for an older adult patient with traumatic brain injury, increased ICP, and a history of congestive heart failure (CHF)? a. Mannitol 1.5/kg IV; monitor cardiovascular status b. Mannitol 1.5/kg IV; monitor cardiovascular status; and furosemide 20 to 80 mg IV; monitor for hypotension and note extent of diuresis c. Neither mannitol 1.5/kg IV; monitor cardiovascular status; nor furosemide 20 to 80 mg IV; monitor for hypotension and note extent of diuresis d. Furosemide 20 to 40 mg IV; monitor for hypotension and note extent of diuresis

d. Furosemide 20 to 40 mg IV; monitor for hypotension and note extent of diuresis

Endoscopy is best utilized in the trauma setting: For small-volume hemothorax, especially in conjunction with another surgical intervention For evaluation of a gunshot wound to the abdomen For hypotensive patient with blunt abdominal injury For the chest trauma patient with ECG changes

For small-volume hemothorax, especially in conjunction with another surgical intervention

An adult man was the victim of a low-velocity, low-caliber gunshot wound to the anterior left quadrant of the lower abdomen. The gun was shot at far range. What is the trajectory of the gunshot? a. Large entrance wound with possible injury to left quadrant vessels and contusion of anterior sigmoid colon b. Large entrance wound with complete transection of the left colon and no exit wound c. Small entrance wound with blast injury to the left sigmoid colon and large exit wound d. Small entrance wound with no exit wound; energy is dissipated to the tissues

d. Small entrance wound with no exit wound; energy is dissipated to the tissues

A 78-year-old man is brought to the ED with severe shortness of breath. Chest x-ray demonstrates pulmonary edema. Immediate aggressive diuretic therapy is initiated. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to develop. Hyponatremia Hyperkalemia Hypokalemia Hypocalcemia

Hypokalemia

Traumatic deaths may occur in three phases or time frames. Which phase occurs within the first 1 to 2 hours after the injury, where definitive trauma care has the most significant effect? a. Phase II b. Phase III c. Phase I d. Phase IV

a. Phase II

Subnormal core body temperature for an extended period of time is known as __________. a. Metabolic acidosis b. Hyperthermia c. Coagulopathy d. Hypothermia

d. Hypothermia

Consent for invasive procedures, including emergency surgery, is obtained from the patient if he or she is able, or from _____________________, according to hospital policy. a. Another person b. Responsible individuals c. The parents d. None of the above

b. Responsible individuals

The compensatory mechanisms in acute injury can lead to the condition called __________. a. Hemorrhagic shock b. Hypothermia c. Compartment syndrome d. Metabolic acidosis

c. Compartment syndrome

The BEST method of managing blood loss during a traumatic liver injury or hepatic resection is: Harmonic scalpel Suture ligation Kocher maneuver Pringle maneuver

Pringle maneuver

What special consideration should be made when assessing geriatric trauma patients before surgery? a. They commonly have diminished mental capacity and will have difficulty understanding the information provided. b. They may have preexisting diseases and conditions. c. They have increased physiologic reserves. d. The Glascow Coma Scale cannot be applied if the patient has dementia.

b. They may have preexisting diseases and conditions.

____________-based tissue sealants are used only if there is no coagulopathy present because these depend on an intact coagulation response. a. Heparin b. Warfarin c. Lidocaine d. Thrombin

d. Thrombin

Which statement regarding level I and level II trauma centers (TCs) best describes the difference between the two types of centers? a. A level I TC requires trauma certification and 8 hours of annual trauma education for all staff, while a level II does not. b. A level I TC is staffed 24 hours/7 days, while a level II has many support services that are open and staffed 8 hours/5 days. c. A level I TC provides care for every type of injury, while a level II lacks some specialized resources. d. A level I TC has a transplant program, while a level II is only able to complete organ procurements.

c. A level I TC provides care for every type of injury, while a level II lacks some specialized resources.

What is the description of damage control surgery, and what conditions may be present? a. Surgery performed in the ED; inadequate sterile technique b. Trauma surgery performed by a nontrauma surgeon; lack of specialty training c. Surgery performed during ambulance or helicopter transfer; patient movement d. Surgery that puts emphasis on trauma impact instead of complete anatomy repair; intentional retained sponges

d. Surgery that puts emphasis on trauma impact instead of complete anatomy repair; intentional retained sponges

If an injury to a patient is a result of a violent crime, the team must give special attention to preservation of evidence during patient care. When clothing is removed from the patient, why must it be placed and secured in a paper bag rather than a plastic bag? a. It is easier to write identifying information on paper rather than plastic. b. Plastic bags trap air, which could kill anaerobic microorganisms needed as evidence. c. Plastic bags may trap moisture and allow mold growth, destroying evidence. d. Paper bags are more secure as they cannot be untied and retied.

c. Plastic bags may trap moisture and allow mold growth, destroying evidence.

A 7-year-old girl fell from a swing at school and landed on her head. She is not conscious. On the baseline neurologic exam, her Glascow Coma Scale (GCS) is 5. What is the recommended immediate treatment of choice? a. Intubate with controlled ventilation. b. Phenytoin 15 to 20 mg/kg IV. c. Reassess with the modified GCS for children. d. Monitor for hypotension and drug interactions.

When the patient arrives in the emergency department (ED), the trauma team initiates a primary assessment. This is a logical, orderly process of patient assessment for potential life threats. These assessment activities are based on established protocols for advanced trauma life support (ATLS). The mnemonic “ABCDE” is used, representing assessment of the following: airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. The D and E represent what degree of investigation? a. D = history of prior impairments; E = events that contributed to the injury b. D = a brief neurologic examination; E = exposure to reveal all life-threatening injuries c. D = musculoskeletal impairments; E = environmental issues d. D = a brief reflex examination; E = extraneous sensory impairments

b. D = a brief neurologic examination; E = exposure to reveal all life-threatening injuries

Trauma patients often arrive with cervical collars in place, or collars are placed by the ED team if cervical spine injury is suspected. What event needs to take place before the team removes the cervical collar and continues care? a. A halo traction apparatus is applied. b. A computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast of the upper body is obtained to rule out vascular involvement. c. A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck. d. A myelogram of the cervical spinal canal is obtained to rule out injury to the spinal cord.

c. A cervical radiograph is obtained to rule out injury to the neck.

Autotransfusion can present a vital asset in trauma care when considering the high blood loss associated with many traumatic injuries. This process provides immediate volume replacement, decreases the amount of bank blood used, and reduces the possibility of transfusion reactions or risk of transfusion with bloodborne pathogens. What are the contraindications to using autotransfusion as a blood replacement source? a. Blood contaminated with food, bowel contents, or antibiotic irrigation b. Clean, hemodiluted blood c. Blood and fluids squeezed out of sterile bloody sponges d. Pooled blood from a torn aorta

a. Blood contaminated with food, bowel contents, or antibiotic irrigation

1. Pressure on the heart causing restriction and damage to the conduction system 2. Injury that results in air in the pleural space causing displacement or collapse of the respiratory structures 3. Bruising 4. Trauma that results in deep tissue injury without rupture of the skin 5.A protocol of ATLS in which ultrasound is used in a focused area to diagnose severe trauma a. Pneumothorax b. Contusion c. FAST d. Cardiac tamponade e. Blunt injury

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (e) 5. (c)

1. Condition in which the body's normal blood clotting mechanism ceases to function; characteristic in severe multitrauma 2. Tearing of the atria or ventricles as a result of trauma 3. Evidence-based diagnosis of a medical problem using normal investigative procedures, such as imaging studies 4. A type of shock characterized by vascular failure resulting from severe bleeding 5. Hemorrhage with the potential to deplete the patient's total blood volume a. Coagulopathy b. Hemorrhagic shock c. Definitive diagnosis d. Exsanguinating e. Cardiac rupture

1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)

1. Surgery whose objective is to stop hemorrhage and prevent sepsis without attempting reconstruction or anatomical continuity 2. Increased pressure in any compartment of the body 3. A planned surgical procedure, usually with specific objectives for reconstruction or restoring continuity of anatomical structures a. Compartment syndrome b. Definitive diagnosis c. Damage control surgery

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b)

A 58-year-old man is the recipient of a kidney transplant. He later undergoes an abdominal CT scan for an unrelated issue and is surprised to learn that his transplanted kidney is down in his pelvis. This is most likely an example of what? Heterotopic transplantation Organ prolapse Orthotopic transplantation Syngeneic graft

Heterotopic transplantation

A 62-year-old man with end-stage kidney disease has been on hemodialysis for 6 years is preparing for a kidney transplant. Which of the following is the most common indication for renal transplantation in the United States? Diabetic nephropathy Polycystic kidney disease Glomerulonephritis Hypertensive nephropathy

A 43-year-old man is scheduled for a liver transplant. He has been on the transplant waiting list for 5 years and has developed worsening hepatic encephalopathy over the past 2 weeks. Which of the following is the most common chronic diseases leading to liver transplant in the United States? Chronic hepatitis B Chronic hepatitis C Biliary cirrhosis Diabetic nephropathy

A 6-month-old infant is caing heart failure of unknown etiology. He is a candidate for a heart transplant and is on the waiting list. Which of the following are the most common indications for heart transplant? Coronary artery disease (CAD) and cardiomyopathy Neoplasms and CAD Congenital heart disease and neoplasms Valvular disease and cardiomyopathy

Coronary artery disease (CAD) and cardiomyopathy

An organ donor patient at a small community hospital is declared brain dead and a surgical transplant team arrives to harvest needed organs. A patient in a neighboring state is awaiting the availability of one of the organs harvested from the donor but lives 2 hours away by helicopter. Which of the following organs can tolerate the greatest amount of cold ischemia? Heart Kidney Liver Lung

Kidney

Procurement is the surgical removal of _______________ from either a live or dead donor and transplanted into another patient. Tissue Organ Both A and B Neither A or B

Both A and B

In cold dissection of the liver, the last item the surgeon incises and divides away from the spine and diaphragmatic muscle to free the liver is _____________. Abdomen SMA Aorta IVC

Aorta

Where will a heterotypic graft for the pancreas be placed? Thoracic cavity Retroperitoneal Iliac fossa Upper right quadrant

Iliac fossa

The IMV is most commonly used for access into the ____________________. Liver Portal system Abdominal sac Hepatogastric ligament

Portal system

In warm dissection, a midline incision is extended from the pubic bone to the _____________. Aorta Liver Xiphoid Round Ligament

Xiphoid

In warm dissection, exsanguination is performed by opening the _____________. Right atrium Left atrium Aorta Liver

Right atrium

This structure, along with bronchi and pulmonary veins are necessary anastomoses for a lung transplant. Bronchial artery Pulmonary artery Thoracic artery None of the above

Pulmonary artery

A 55-year-old female candidate for a heart transplant has tyle 0 blood. A donor heart is available from a patient with type B blood. She is eager to undergo the transplant. What should she be told? Blood type is not a factor in this type of organ transfer She can receive this organ if it is thoroughly rinsed from all donor blood She can receive this organ if she is placed on immunosuppressants She cannot receive this organ

She cannot receive this organ

A 23-year-old woman with renal failure is a candidate for a kidney transplant. Her twin sister volunteered to donate a kidney. This exchange would qualify as which type of transplant? Allograft Autograft Isograft Xenograft

Isograft

A harvested organ is rapidly flushed with 4°C saline as soon as it is removed from the body. Which organ is routinely treated in this manner before its transplantation? Heart Kidney Liver All the above

All the above

A 45-year-old man with signifiant diabetic nephropathy, retinopathy, and neuropathy secondary to longstanding type 2 diabetes mellitus is considering a pancreas transplant in hopes of curing his diabetes. Which of the following transplantation procedures would be the best option for this patient? Kidney transplant followed by pancreas after kidney (PAK) transplantation Pancreas transplantation alone (PTA) Simultaneous pancreas-kidney (SPK) transplant This man is not a candidate for pancreatic transplant

This man is not a candidate for pancreatic transplant

This structure is anastomosed during an intestinal transplantation. Renal artery Superior mesenteric artery Common iliac artery Common hepatic artery

Superior mesenteric artery

Which federal agency requires companies to have a written emergency action plan? Occupational Safety and Health Administration Environmental Protection Agency Federal Emergency Management Agency National Disaster Medical System

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

_______________________ such as the Fukushima nuclear crisis and Chernobyl are uncommon but devastating to families and communities. a. Explosions b. Transportation accidents c. Radiation accidents d. Hazardous material accidents

c. Radiation accidents

What is the use of chemical agents for intentional harm in the population? a. Pandemic b. Bioterrorism c. Acts of terrorism d. Chemical terrorism

d. Chemical terrorism

Who is directly responsible for ensuring that all functional area activities are directed toward accomplishment of the strategy during a disaster? CERT Team Incident commander Unified commander Police department

Incident commander

_________ or ____________ disasters are unintentional events caused by human activity, compounded by error or negligence. a. Technology, chemical b. Technological, industrial c. Chemical, war d. War, technology

b. Technological, industrial

________________ are those with a particularly high risk for injury or harm as a result of a disaster. a. Vulnerable populations b. American Red Cross workers c. US Navy Seals d. FEMA workers

a. Vulnerable populations

______________ is a localized emergency, such as a transportation accident, explosion, or structural collapse, in which the number of victims overwhelms health care services. An emergency A national incident A mass casualty event None of the above

A mass casualty event

The purpose of an all-hazard approach is to ______________________. Provide training about only disasters that affect the community in which we live Provide information to only those individuals impacted by the disaster Provide general preparation and training for any disaster or emergency, regardless of the cause Provide a way to alert individuals who are at risk during an emergency

Provide general preparation and training for any disaster or emergency, regardless of the cause

_________________ are large-scale aviation, vehicle, and train accidents, which often result in mass casualty events. a. Transportation accidents b. Hazardous material accidents c. Radiation accidents d. Explosions

a. Transportation accidents

A(n) __________ is a more geographically isolated event that can be handled by local services. a. disaster b. medical facility evacuation c. emergency d. mass casualty event

c. emergency

Large-scale _____________ can occur where flammable materials are used in manufacturing or in large storage facilities, including oil refineries, chemical plants, and manufacturing facilities. a. Transportation accident b. Radiation accident c. Explosions d. Hazardous material accident

c. Explosions

______________ is a process in which casualties are given emergency medical treatment according to the probability of their survival. a. Recovery b. Morgue c. Local incidence command system d. Triage

d. Triage

____________________ evacuation involves moving to a safer location on the same floor. Horizontal Vertical Shelter-in-place Full

Horizontal

_____________, or risk reduction, is a process or activity that minimizes the impact of an event. a. Mitigation b. Logistics and supply chains c. Response d. Coordination

a. Mitigation

How often should healthcare facilities conduct emergency preparedness drills? Monthly Once a year Twice a year Every other year

Twice a year

___________________ occur in similar conditions as explosions, with greater risk in refineries and other locations where large amounts of hazardous materials are stored or manufactured. a. Radiation accidents b. Explosions c. Transportation accidents d. Hazardous material accidents

d. Hazardous material accidents

Which of the following is NOT a natural disaster? Tsunami Volcano Floods Explosion

Explosion

____________ is a(n) integrated strategy for disaster management that focuses on the common features of all disasters, regardless of the cause or origin. All-hazards approach Disaster recover Mass casualty event Bioterrorism

All-hazards approach

___________ is/are a wide-scale, rapidly contagious infectious disease. a. Acts of terrorism b. A pandemic c. Chemical terrorism d. Bioterrorism

b. A pandemic

________ is a catastrophic event that poses a large-scale risk to human life and property. a. Tornado b. Earthquake c. Hurricane d. Disaster

d. Disaster

___________ is a localized emergency, such as a transportation accident, explosion, or structural collapse, in which the number of victims overwhelms local health care services. a. An emergency b. A national incident c. A mass casualty event d. None of the above

c. A mass casualty event

A level _____ disaster is classified by statewide and federal assistance being required because the effects of the disaster have overwhelmed local and regional resources. a. II b. III c. I d. IV

b. III

The __________ simplifies communication among disaster responders: Emergency Response System Incident Command System Emergency Response Network Disaster Preparedness System

Incident Command System

1. Emergency operations center 2. National Weather Service 3. Mass casualty event 4. Hazardous materials 5. National Incident Management System a. MCE b. NWS c. HazMat d. NIMS e. EOC

1. (e) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d)

1. Emergency management agency 2. Department of Homeland Security 3. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention 4. Department of Health and Human Services 5. Division of Homeland Security and Emergency Services a. EMA b. DHHS c. CDC d. DHSES e. DHS

1. (a) 2. (e) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d)

1. Disaster Medical Assistance Team 2. World Health Organization 3. Health Resources and Services Administration 4. Hospital incident command system 5. Simple triage and rapid treatment a. START b. HRSA c. HICS d. WHO e. DMAT

1. (e) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)

1. Federal Communications Commission 2. National Response Framework 3. Federal Emergency Management Agency 4. National Disaster Medical System 5. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality a. NRF b. AHRQ c. NDMS d. FEMA e. FCC

1. (e) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b)

202 X2 149 Flashcards

(199 cards)