204 Flashcards by Jessica Moore

What year were the ASA Code of Ethics approved by the ASA Board of Directors?

1976
1984
2015
2018

2018

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Types of credentialing include:

Registration
Certificate from accredited school
Certification
Licensure

1, 3, and 4

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Healthcare professionals, such as SFAs are guided in their practice by:

Standards
Laws
Regulations
Policies

All of the above

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A SFA maybe negligent if he/she exceeds his/her scope of practice that is defined by:

Education
Experience
Policies and procedures
Knowledge

All of the above

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Effective January 1, 2020, once certified, _____ CEUs must be maintained every _____ years.

30; 2
38; 2
60; 2

38; 2

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Billing requires the SFA to have a:

CPT code
ISBN#
NPI
Master’s degree

NPI

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Suzie has taken the CSFA Exam and passed. For Suzie to keep her certification without retaking the exam, she must do which of the following:

Attend the national conference
Maintain continuing education (CE) credits
Attend the state meeting to be familiar with the state laws
All of the above

Maintain continuing education (CE) credits

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Which type of business model would the SFA’s personal assets be protected?

Corporation
Limited Liability Company
General Partnership
S-Corporation

Limited Liability Company

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Most Surgical Assistant programs are accredited through _____________.

OSHA
NBSTSA
CAAHEP
DOE

CAAHEP

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The CSFA Examination consist of 175 questions, how many are scored?

100
150
175
200

150

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The __________ is responsible for all decisions related to certification such as eligibility, renewal, and revocation, as well as developing the certification examination.

Association of Surgical Assistants (ASA)
Accreditation Review Council on Education in Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting ARC/STSA)
National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA)
Commission of Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAHEEP)

National Board of Surgical Technology and Surgical Assisting (NBSTSA)

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_______________ demonstrates that a SFA from an accredited program has achieved a minimum level of knowledge and skills.

Licensure
A certificate
Certification
An Associate Degree

Certification

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Unlawful physical harm is called:

Battery
Wrongful discharge
Defamation
Libel

Battery

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Which of the following refers to a civil wrong committed against a person or property, not including a breach of contract?

Tort

Negligence

Malpractice

Assault and battery

Tort

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If a Kelly clamp is left in a patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, which of the following legal charges can be filed?

Primum non nocere

Res ipsa loquitur

Foreseeability

Intentional tort

Res ipsa loquitur

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The legal doctrine that mandates every professional to carry out his or her duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the:

Doctrine of reasonable man

Doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

Doctrine of respondeat superior

Doctrine of informed consent

Doctrine of reasonable man

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A system of principles and beliefs intended to govern the behavior of those entrusted with providing care to the sick is commonly referred to as:

Bioethics

Administrative law

Civil law

Code of ethics

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The Patient’s Bill of Rights entitles the patient to all of the following EXCEPT:

Considerate and respectful care

Refusal of all treatment

Experimental treatment without consent

Confidentiality

Experimental treatment without consent

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The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA):

Gives patients the right to have elective surgery

Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

Gives the patient the right to sue their surgeon

Allows patients to see any physician they chose

Privacy standards to protect the patient’s medical records

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Which of the following is not a form of intentional misconduct?

Slander
Libel
Negligence
Invasion of privacy

Negligence

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Which of the following describes the legal doctrine of respondeat superior?

The things speaks for itself
The matter will be settled by precedent
Let the master answer
The matter will be settled by justice

Let the master answer

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Name the legal doctrine which applies to a SFA when he/she is acting under the direction and control of a physician or hospital who may be responsible for his/her negligence.

Res ipsa loquitur

Health Amendments Act

Respondeat superior

Primum non nocere

Respondeat superior

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Granting of implied or informed permission by a patient for someone else to perform an action is called:

Indemnity

Tort

Consent

Protocol

Consent

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Which of the following is an affirmative defense that alleges that the plaintiff is mutually responsible for an injury through a lack of care in combination with negligence of the healthcare provider?

Comparative negligence
Malevolence
Malfeasance
Contributory negligence

Contributory negligence

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Ethics is defined as: Legal obligation that one person owes another person Moral obligation that one person owes another person Laws What the patient requests

Moral obligation that one person owes another person

The principles of personal liability is a legal rule which: Holds the hospital responsible for negligence of the staff Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts Prevents malpractice suits against individual hospital employees Applies only when the SFA is employed outside of a hospital environment

Holds everyone legally responsible for his/her own negligent acts

Libel refers to: Written information Spoken information Both A & B Neither A or B

Written information

Grace F. signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier she does not fully understand what she has signed. This could constitute a liability case for? Assault and battery Lack of accountability Improper documentation Invasion of privacy

Assault and battery

A durable power of attorney made for healthcare decisions is called a: Respondent superior Health-care proxy Res ipsa loquitur Hippocratic oath

Health-care proxy

A failure to exercise that degree of skill ordinarily employed under similar circumstances by members of their profession in good standing in the same community or locality is the legal definition of: Default Negligence Abandonment Assault

Negligence

If a SFA places the operative patient's well-being above all other factors, then the SFA is said to have a strong: Ethical sense Surgical conscience Moral judgment Set of values

Surgical conscience

_______________ techniques are used to resolve disputes in a rational way without anger or resentment. Peaceful dispute resolution Assimilation Arguing None of the above

Peaceful dispute resolution

When you pass the CSFA exam, the certification is described as: Formal process by which qualified individuals are listed in a registry Legal right granted by a government agency which complies with a statute that authorizes the activities of the profession Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard Perform according to the facility guidelines

Recognition by an appropriate body that an individual has met a predetermined standard

SFA Programs are accredited by: CAAHEP ARC-STSA NBSTSA ASA

CAAHEP

_____________ means understanding your own world views and those of the patient, while avoiding stereotyping and assumptions. Universality Culture competence Monoculturalism None of the above

Cultural competence

Which of the following is not a tort? 1. Invasion of privacy 2. Defamation 3. Assault 4. All of the above

All of the above

The Latin phrase "aeger primo" refers to: Patient first Do no harm Breathe It speaks for itself

patient first

____________ is defined as the threat of touching in an injurious way. Negligence Assault Malpractice Battery

assault

Which of the following ethical principles refers to "do no harm" Veracity Nonmaleficene Beneficence Fidelity

nonmaleficence

Body heat is lost by radiation by:

heat rays escaping to cooler surroundings.

The subcutaneous layer can be described as:

The ways in which the skin promotes loss of excess body heat is/are:

The function of skin includes:

The most common skin cancer:

basal cell carcinoma

Place the following layers of the abdominal wall in order from laparotomy closure: 1. Subcutaneous tissue 2. Muscle 3. Peritoneum 4. Extraperitoneal fat 5. Transversalis fascia 6. Skin 7. Deep fasica

Epidermis is distinguished by being ___________, whereas dermis is distinguished by being ____________.

composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous connective tissue

Which is NOT a characteristic of the epidermis?

When closing skin in surgery, this type of needle is preferred:

cutting

The lines of cleavage of Langer's lines are:

The prefix pertaining to fingernail is:

onych-

An autograft involves covering an injured area of skin with:

skin from an uninjured region of the patient's body.

Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as:

Hidradenitis

The force of integumentary injuries that results from the skin remaining stationary while the underlying tissues shift is known as:

Shearing

The nerve fibers in the dermis function to stimulate:

Muscles and glands in the dermis

Wound classification is assigned when: Incision is made Procedure is complete Drain is placed Cavity is entered

Procedure is complete

Wounds in which there is significant bacterial contamination, foreign bodies, or extensive tissue trauma are generally closed by which intention? Delayed primary Primary union Lag Granulation

Granulation

When a tissue defect decreases in size by wound contraction, it is designated as healing by: Primary intention Secondary intention Tertiary intention Delayed intention

Which statement concerning healing by second intention is FALSE? Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially Scar tissue formation is excessive Healing is delayed Granulation tissue fills in the wound defect

Collagen fibers hold wound edges together initially

Delayed wound healing may be related to: Blood type Gender Ethnicity Age

Age

The protrusion of bowel through the separated edges of an abdominal wound closure is called: Dehiscence Evisceration Wound disruption Secondary suture line

Evisceration

Serosanguineous drainage means: Purulent Green-tinged Blood-tingued Hemorrhage

Blood-tinged

An adult male is injured in an automobile accident at 2a.m. An exploratory laparotomy for possible perforated bowel is initiated at 5a.m. Which of the following is the BEST wound classification in this scenario? Clean Clean contaminated Contaminated Dirty and infected

Contaminated

Which can affect wound healing: 1. Diabetes 2. Nutritional status of patient 3. Anemia 4. Location of incision 5. Age of patient 6. Uremia

All of the above

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. what was the wound classification at the time of his emergency surgery? Clean wound, classification I Clean/contaminated wound, classification II Contaminated wound, classification III Infected wound, classification IV

Contaminated wound, classification III

A type of wound in which the alimentary, oropharyngeal, respiratory, or genitourinary regions are entered is classified as: Clean contaminated Clean Contaminated Infected

Clean contaminated

What cells are responsible for the synthesis and secretion of collagen and elastin? Proteoglycans Ground substance Fibroblasts Collagenases and elastinases

Fibroblasts

After tissue injury, the initial vascular and cellular response is the: Inflammatory phase Phagocytic phase Injury phase Epithelial phase

Inflammatory phase

Which of the following heals the quickest after injury? Bone Epithelium Muscle Tendon

Epithelium

Dense unsightly connective tissue or excessive scar formation that often is removed surgically is known as (a): Proud flesh Granuloma Keloid Pterygium

Keloid

Which of the following organisms normally found on the skin can cause wound infections? Bacillus botulinum Staphylococcus aureus Diplococcus pneumoniae Candida albicans

Staphylococcus aureus

Which of the following are the MOST important considerations when preventing wound infection in the surgical patient? 1. Pathogen transmittal 2. Portal of entry into the susceptible host 3. Anesthetic options for the patient's operative process 4. Invasion of the susceptible host

1, 2, and 4

The space caused by the separation of wound edges which have not been closely approximated by sutures is called: Dehisced space Palmar space Dead space Intervillous space

Dead space

The splitting open or gaping of a wound is called: Evisceration Dehiscence Herniation Eventration

Dehiscence

Which of the following techniques demonstrate a proven benefit in the prevention of postoperative wound infections? 1. Administering appropriate antibiotics within 1 hour of incision time 2. Maintaining suitable antibiotic coverage from 48-72 hours postoperatively 3. Irrigating the wound with normal saline 4. Irrigating the wound with sterile water

1 and 3

The most common cause of delayed wound healing in the operative patient is: Wound infection Adhesions Tissue loss Dehiscence

Wound infection

A common pathogen typically associated with decubitus ulcers is Staphylococcus: Proteus Epidermidis Pyogenes Aureus

Aureus

The three phases of wound healing include all of the following EXCEPT: Inflammatory phase Fibroplastic phase Chronic phase Remodeling phase

Chronic phase

A patient recently operated on for a ruptured appendix had a temperature of 103° F and returned to the OR for a debridement and washout of purulent drainage from his wound on postoperative day 3. What was the wound classification at the time of his debridement and washout surgery? Clean wound, classification I Clean/contaminated wound, classification II Contaminated wound, classification III Infected wound, Classification IV

Infected wound, Classification IV

Delayed primary closure would be the most appropriate would closure technique for which of the following procedures? Removal of perforated appendix Vagotomy and pyloroplasty for bleeding duodenal ulcer Repair of an incisional hernia 12 weeks after an elective left colectomy Repair of would dehiscence 1 week after elective left colectomy

Removal of perforated appendix

During healing by first intention, the first five days are the ___________ phase; up to the fourteenth day is the ______________ phase; and from the fourteenth day until wound is fully healed is the _________ phase. Fibroplasia (healing), maturation, inflammatory (lag) Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation Maturation, inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing) Fibroplasia (healing), inflammatory (lag), maturation

Inflammatory (lag), fibroplasia (healing), maturation

A 48-year-old tetraplegic with chronic sacral wound is scheduled for wound debridement. What is the purpose of doing a wound debridement on a chronic wound? The debridement will stimulate circulation and promote healing The debridement will prevent the growth of parasitic maggots The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection Debridement creates a nidus that nourishes and supports healing

The debridement will remove dead tissue that could support infection

Which of the following would affect normal wound healing? 1. Penicillin allergy 2. Peripheral vascular disease (PVD) 3. Adhesions 4. Latex allergy

Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)

There are many factors that influence surgical wound healing. Select the response below that reflects a factor with high influence over wound healing and is within the control of the surgical team. Use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine at the incision site Antibiotic sensitivity studies conducted on wound culture results Antimicrobial prophylaxis The patient's nutritional status

Antimicrobial prophylaxis

Fibroblasts multiple rapidly, bridging wound edges and restoring of body structures during the __________ phase of first intention wound healing. Lag Hemostatic Maturation Healing

Healing

Between which of the following postoperative days can dehiscence typically occur? First and third Fifth and tenth Twelfth and fifteenth Seventeenth and twentieth

Fifth and tenth

A wound that is known to be infected at the time of surgery and is left open to be closed at a later date is categorized as: First intention Granulation Delayed primary closure Second intention

Delayed primary closure

A 62-year-old man had surgery 6 days ago for a ruptured diverticulum. He is back in the OR for a debridement and washout. The patient's fever has subsided, and the drainage is clear. The surgeon will schedule the patient to return to the OR in 3 days for: One more final debridement and washout Packing with antibiotic-impregnated gauze before final closure Sutured closure of the peritoneum and muscle fascia layer and secondary closure with granulation of the subcutaneous and skin layers Delayed primary sutured closure

Delayed primary sutured closure

Another name for adrenaline is: Ephedrine Epinephrine Lidocaine Levophed

Epinephrine

The Sellick maneuver is performed: 1. To occlude the esophagus to prevent regurgitation 2. To visualize the tracheal lumen 3. To assist patient ventilation

1 & 2

Your surgeon ask you to dilute 2% lidocaine so you can use 0.5% lidocaine for a local. How many cc of sterile water should be added to 1 ml of 2% lidocaine to create 0.5% lidocaine. 1 cc 2 cc 3 cc 4 cc

3 cc

Epidural anesthesia is administered: Anterior (deep to) to the lumbar or sacral nerve roots Into the space between the spinal canal and the dura mater covering the nerve roots Into precisely the same subarachnoid space as spinal anesthesia, but in the sacral area Directly into the cerebral spinal fluid at any point from the ventricles in the brain, to the cauda equina

Into the space between the spinal canal and the dura mater covering the nerve roots

Which Which of the following is the correct order of the pathway of pain? Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the epidural space, through the paravertebral space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain Through the paravertebral space, to the nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain Through the epidural space, nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain

Nerve endings in a wound, to the nerves, through the paravertebral space, through the epidural space, through the subarachnoid space, to the spinal cord, to the cerebral cortex of the brain

Biotransformation of amides takes place where? Liver Kidneys Spleen Bloodstream

Liver

One ml is equal to: 12 cc 10 cc 5 cc 1 cc

1 cc

The most widely used local anesthetic is: Carbocaine Marcaine Prilocaine Lidocaine

Lidocaine

A vasoconstrictor that, when added to a local anesthetic agent, extends its life is: Ephedrine Epinephrine Aramine Ethrane

Epinephrine

The generic name for Marcaine is: Xylocaine Bupivaciane Oxytocin Lidocaine

Bupivaciane

Which of these needles would have the largest diameter? 16 18 25 27

The type of anesthetic technique in which medication is injected under the skin to anesthetize the nerve endings and nerve fibers is call a(n) _______ anesthetic Topical Local Epidural Spinal block

Local

Which of the following is a parenteral medication route? 1. Intramuscular 2. Subcutaneous 3. Intravenous

All of the above

Which All of the following statements is FALSE concerning hypodermic needles? Hypodermic needles may be used to withdraw medication from a vial, to inject medication into tissue, or to withdraw body fluids. Most needles used in the operating room are disposable and the hub is color coded by size. The diameter of hypodermic needles is indicated by a gauge number which means the diameter of the needle and range from size 12 to 30. The larger the diameter of the needle, the larger the gauge; the smaller the diameter of the needle, the smaller the gauge.

The larger the diameter of the needle, the larger the gauge; the smaller the diameter of the needle, the smaller the gauge.

When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine, what strength does the drug become? 0.25% 0.5% 0.75% 1.0%

0.25%

A standard syringe is calibrated in _______________________. Cubic centimeters Units Hundredth of a cubic centimeter None of the above

Cubic centimeters

In what locations is lidocaine with epinephrine contraindicated? 1. Penis 2. Fingers 3. Toes

All of the above

One of the many proprietary names for lidocaine is? Xylocaine HCL Mepivicaine 3% Polocaine Marcaine

Xylocaine HCL

All of the following are reasons to include a vasoconstrictor EXCEPT: 1. Lower blood flow to injection site 2. Increase anesthetic blood levels 3. Increase duration of local 4. Improve field of vision

2. Increase anesthetic blood levels

What portion of the nerve do local anesthetics work? Neuron Dendrites Nerve membrane Myelinated sheath

Nerve membrane

Which of the following instruments would NOT be found on a resection and recession? 1. Jameson muscle hook 2. Castroviejo caliper 3. Castroviejo trephine 4. Stevens scissor

Castroviejo trephine

The ________ is a cylindrical instrument used to increase the inside diameter of a tubular structure. a. chisel b. dilator c. stricture d. curette

dilator

T or F: Pronged retractors are usually selected for retraction of shallow/subcutaneous tissue.

True

Strong dissecting scissors such as curved ______ scissors are used on fascia and large tendons.

Mayo

The Babcock clamp is an atraumatic, noncrushing clamp used to manipulate the bowel or________ tubes. a. intestinal b. tissue c. kocher d. fallopian

fallopian

An old wound with a mature scar will need: Blunt dissection Sharp dissection A culture prior to dissection Will need a drain postoperatively

Sharp dissection

Fibrous connective tissue requires heavy scissors, such as the ________ scissors for cutting. a. Curved Mayo b. Stevens tenotomy c. Metzenbaum d. Castroviejo

Curved Mayo

When doing a laparoscopy, this instruments would be best suited to grasp a loop of bowel. Grasper Dolphin tip dissector Debakey Aggressive tip

Debakey

A solid knife used to cut the sternum during chest surgery is a: Langenbeck Lebsche Hurd Lambert-Berry

Lebsche

The SFA is getting ready to perform skin closure of an incision. Which of the following forceps should generally be used during skin closure? Russian Bonney Adson DeBakey

Adson

T or F: When a clamp is attached to tissue, it should be held by the tip to prevent accidental unlocking.

False

Which of the following conditions is MOST common when insulation failure occurs in laparoscopic surgery? Hypothermia Wound infection Tissue injury Adhesions

Tissue injury

Surgical instruments that are not considered in the category of clamps, retractors, or cutting instruments, but are used in most procedures, are typically included within the category of: a. specialty instruments. b. microsurgical instruments. c. accessory and ancillary instruments. d. endomechanicals.

accessory and ancillary instruments

The ___________, which has a T tip with fine serrations at the tip, often is used to clamp or grasp adipose tissue. a. Allis clamp b. Doyen c. bulldog d. Satinsky

Allis clamp

Forceps used to grasp lung tissue is a/an: Crile Adson Duval Walton

Duval

Fomon, Cottle, and Aufricht retractors are all considered which of the following kinds of instrument? Neuro CV ENT Ortho

ENT

The Heaney clamp is used specifically in ________ surgery to grasp the uterine ligaments. a. orthopedic b. gynecological c. urological d. general

gynecological

When should the SFA check the overall integrity of laparoscopic instruments to ensure insulation failure does not occur? Before usage Weekly After usage Monthly

Before usage

When passing sutures for deep ligation with a tonsil hemostat, how far from the tip is most "optimal" for the suture to be clamped? At back of the jaw from maximum security At the half-way point of the jaw The suture should exit the jaw of the clamp at the very tip 2 mm from the tip

The suture should exit the jaw of the clamp at the very tip

T or F: It is easier for the SFA to vary the position of the retractor and force of retraction with hand-held retractors.

True

A ________ is a grasping instrument with sharp pointed tips, generally used to manipulate or grasp tissue such as the thyroid or cervix.

tenaculum

A self-retaining neurosurgical retractor that is used in maintaing traction on brain tissue is the: Beckman-Adson Cloward Leyla-Yasargil Jansen

Leyla-Yasargil

The typical suction tip used in lumbar spine surgery is known as the: Poole suction tip Renton suction tip Frazier suction tip Yankauer suction tip

Frazier suction tip

_____________ finish is used on laser surgery instruments. a. Titanium anodizing b. Highly polished or mirror c. Satin d. Black chromium

Black chromium

T or F: The hand is often the best retractor; it is softly padded and responsive through tactile sense.

True

"Straight-up" skin retraction during dissection serves to: Decrease skin perforation and/or thermal damage from cautery Maximize trans-illumination of the surgical site Minimize risk to deep vascular structures Minimize post-op bleeding

Decrease skin perforation and/or thermal damage from cautery

In which procedure would a Murphy-Lane bone skid be used? Laminectomy Menisectomy Hip prosthesis Bankart procedure

Hip prosthesis

A frazier tip suction held to the back of a Cottonoid pattie are likely used to clear the operative field in which of the following: Laparoscopic surgery Endoscopic surgery Open abdominal surgery Microsurgery

Microsurgery

The Babcock clamp is a(n) ________, noncrushing clamp used to manipulate the bowel or fallopian tubes. a. cutting b. grasping c. atraumatic d. retracting

atraumatic

T or F: Before repositioning any retracting device, the SFA should inform the surgeon.

True

____________ reduces glare but is also prone to staining. a. Silver finish b. Black chromium c. Satin finish d. Highly polished or mirror finish

Satin finish

Only partially __________ clamps and smooth tissue forceps are used in the lungs, spleen, liver, or thyroid. a. double-action rongeur b. single-action rongeur c. atraumatic d. occluding

occluding

Which of the following instruments is NOT an example of a rongeur? Kerrison Hudson Leksell Lempert

Hudson

204 Flashcards

(140 cards)