2024 - CQ Questions

Question 1

You are notified of smoke coming out of the aft galley oven, what immediate action and checklist do you call for?

Answer 1

Oxygen Masks & Regulators (if Required)… ON, 100%

Smoke Goggles (if required)… ON

Smoke, Fire or Fumes in passenger cabin or flight deck QRC

Question 2

Level at FL240, you notice the stabilizer trim wheel moving continuously

Answer 2

Question 3

At FL350, an intermittent warning horn sounds. What are the immediate action items? What checklist do you call for?

Answer 3

Oxygen Masks and Regulators… ON, 100%
Crew Communications… Establish

Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid Depressurization Checklist

Question 4

During departure you suspect the airspeed indications to be unreliable. What are the immediate action items? What checklist do you call for?

Answer 4

Autopilot (if engaged) … Disengage
Autothrottle (if engaged) … Disengage
F/D switches (both)… OFF
Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
Flaps Extended … 10 degrees and 80% N1
Flaps Up… 4 degrees and 75% N1

Question 5

Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component

Answer 5

15 kts

Question 6

Maximum operating altitude for takeoff and landing (ft)

Answer 6

8400 feet

Question 7

Minimum takeoff and landing temperature

Answer 7

minus 54 degrees C

Question 8

Operating Speeds: Maximum Operating Limit (AFM)

Answer 8

Observe Vmo/Mmo and Gear/Flap Placards

Question 9

Severe Turbulence Penetration Target Speed

Answer 9

280 KIAS/ .76M* whichever is lower

Question 10

With either one or both engine BLEED air switches ON, do not operate air condition in HIGH for ___________.

Answer 10

takeoff, approach or landing

Question 11

The engine anti-ice system must be ON during all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except __________.

Answer 11

during climb and cruise below -40 SAT

Question 12

Engine anti-ice must be ON prior to and during descent ______________.

Answer 12

in all icing conditions, including temperatures below -40C SAT

Question 13

[MAX] Engine anti-ice (EAI) must be __________ when not in actual or anticipated icing conditions.

Answer 13

turned off

Question 14

What is the earliest you can engage autopilot on takeoff?

Answer 14

1000 ft AGL

Question 15

When is the latest you would have to disengage the AP on a single channel approach?

Answer 15

50 ft AGL

Question 16

When must the AP be disengaged on an HGS AIII approach?

Answer 16

500 ft AGL

Question 17

Can you use aileron trim with the AP engaged?

Answer 17

prohibited

Question 18

What is the minimum warm-up time for operating the engines?

Answer 18

3 minutes

Question 19

What is the minimum cool-down time for shutting down the engines?

Answer 19

3 minutes

Question 20

What is the Maximum Time Limit for Takeoff Thrust?

Answer 20

5 minutes*

*10 minutes allowed in the event of the loss of thrust on one engine during takeoff

Question 21

What is the minimum engine oil temperature before setting takeoff thrust in the 737 MAX?

Answer 21

31C

Question 22

When must the Engine Start switches be in the CONT position?

Answer 22

Takeoff, Landing, Anti-ice operation, Hail, Sleet, Moderate to heavy rain

Question 23

When must the Engine Start switches be in the FLT position?

Answer 23

Operation in severe turbulence

Question 24

Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is

Answer 24

prohibited

Question 25

What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for a Bleed and Electric Load?

Answer 25

10,000 feet

Question 26

What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Bleed Only?

Answer 26

17,000 feet

Question 27

What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for Electric Only?

Answer 27

41,000 ft

Question 28

What is the Maximum Operating Altitude for the APU?

Answer 28

41,000 feet

Question 29

Ensure APU BLEED air switch is closed for 2 minutes ________ and for 1 minute __________.

Answer 29

after start. ... prior to shutdown

Question 30

APU bleed valve may be open during engine start but avoid engine power _________.

Answer 30

above idle.

Question 31

Except for engine start, the APU bleed valve must be closed when another source is pressurizing _________.

Answer 31

the left bleed air duct.

Question 32

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

Answer 32

20,000 ft

Question 33

Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is ____________.

Answer 33

prohibited

Question 34

Do not deploy speed brakes in flight _________.

Answer 34

below 1000 ft AGL

Question 35

In flight, do not extend the SPEED BRAKE lever _____________.

Answer 35

beyond the FLIGHT DETENT.

Question 36

Do not deploy the speed brakes with ____________.

Answer 36

more than Flaps 10 extended.

Question 37

In the 700W/900ER, manually overriding the Load Alleviation System ______________.

Answer 37

not authorized.

Question 38

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

Answer 38

-37C unless the actual fuel freeze point is known

Question 39

Allowable lateral imbalance between Main Tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be ___________.

Answer 39

zero.

Question 40

Fuel imbalance must not exceed 1000 lbs for ________________.

Answer 40

must not exceed 1000 lbs for taxi, takeoff, flight or landing

Question 41

Main Wing Tanks must be scheduled to be full if the Center Tank contains more than _______________.

Answer 41

1000 lbs.

Question 42

For ground operation, Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches not be positioned to ON unless the Center Tank fuel quantity exceeds

Answer 42

1000 lbs, except when defueling or transferring fuel

Question 43

Center Tank Fuel Pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available in the Flight Deck to monitor _____________.

Answer 43

LOW PRESSURE lights.

Question 44

For ground and flight operations, the corresponding Center Tank Fuel Pump switch must be positioned to OFF when the ___________________.

Answer 44

LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.

Question 45

If the Center Tank is empty position both Center Tank FUEL PUMP switches to ______.

Answer 45

OFF

Question 46

Ground operation of electric hydraulic pump requires minimum _____________.

Answer 46

1675 lbs in respective fuel tank.

Question 47

The STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light is armed when? ____________ illuminated when? _______________

Answer 47

The A/P is engaged. The A/P is not trimming the stabilizer properly.

Question 48

If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, what will the FD command?

Answer 48

Glideslope and LOC; no windshear guidance will be provided until TO/GA is pressed.

Question 49

After the VOR/LOC and G/S are both captured, the APP mode can be exited by:

Answer 49

pushing the TO/GA switch, disengaging A/P and turning off both F/D switches, retuning a VHF NAV receiver

Question 50

The bank angle selector (rotate) sets maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in what modes?

Answer 50

HDG SEL and VOR modes

Question 51

The Speed Trim improves flight characteristics during manual flight operations at ____,____,____, and _____.

Answer 51

Low Gross Weight, Low Airspeed, Aft CG, High Thrust

Question 52

How many degrees of control wheel displacement initiates spoiler deflection?

Answer 52

When the control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees (1.6 units), spoiler deflection is initiated.

Question 53

What happens when a FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD?

Answer 53

It activates the Standby Hydraulic System and opens the Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve (allowing Standby Hydraulic System pressure to the Standby Rudder PCU)

Question 54

In the MAX, the rudder pressure will return to normal system operating pressure when:

Answer 54

An engine failure is detected or with both engine operating, airspeed is reduced below approx. 132 kts.

Question 55

In the MAX, a SPOILERS (amber) Light, indicates the Spoiler Control Electronic Unit has discovered what?

Answer 55

A Spoiler System Fault

Question 56

The STANDBY PWR OFF (amber) light when illuminated, indicates one or more of the following busses are unpowered: ________ or ________ or _________

Answer 56

AC Standby Bus DC Standby Bus Battery Bus

Question 57

When does the BAT DISCHARGE light (amber) illuminate?

Answer 57

When excessive battery discharge is detected on the main battery or auxiliary battery

Question 58

When will the Generator DRIVE (amber) light illuminate?

Answer 58

When there is an Engine shutdown, IDG failure, IDG disconnected by activation of the DISCONNECT switch, or IDG auto-decouple due to high oil temperature (182 C)

Question 59

How long will two fully-charged batteries provide standby power?

Answer 59

Two fully charged batteries have sufficient capacity to provide standby power for a minimum of 60 minutes.

Question 60

What does the BUS TRANSFER switch, in the AUTO (guarded) position, allow?

Answer 60

Allows for the BTBs to automatically maintain power to AC transfer busses from any operating generator or external power

Question 61

The Center Switch on the EFIS control panel must be in which mode for the VSD to display?

Answer 61

MAP

Question 62

The AOA Disagree Alert (amber) indicates the left and right AOA values disagree by more than _____ for more than _____ continuous seconds.

Answer 62

10 degrees, 10 seconds

Question 63

When does the ALTITUDE DISAGREE (amber) alert appear?

Answer 63

When the CA and FO altitude indications disagree by more than 200 ft for more than 5 continuous seconds.

Question 64

A vertical (amber) bar extending up from the top of the Minimum Speed Bar indicates what on the PFD?

Answer 64

Minimum maneuvering speed (Vmvr)

Question 65

How is the HGS controlled on the MAX?

Answer 65

MCDU

Question 66

The purpose of the PTU is to provide Hydraulic System B fluid at a flow rate of (approximately 6.5 GPM) and pressure sufficient to provide normal rates of operations for the _____ and _____ in the event of a Hydraulic system B EDP output pressure drops below a specified value.

Answer 66

Autoslats LEDs

Question 67

When is the automatic operation for Standby Hydraulic System initiated?

Answer 67

When flaps are extended, airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60 kts, and loss of System A or B while FLT CONTROL switch positioned to ON - OR - the main PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips

Question 68

What pressurizes both System A and System B hydraulic reservoirs?

Answer 68

Regulated Bleed Air

Question 69

When do the letters RF (white) appear?

Answer 69

REFILL (RF) indication is displayed (white) when hydraulic quantity is below 76%. Valid only when aircraft is on ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

Question 70

How do you display the Hydraulics in the MAX?

Answer 70

MFS SYS Button

Question 71

The Alternate Brake System is power by _________.

Answer 71

Hydraulic System A

Question 72

With RTO selected, if the takeoff is rejected prior to wheel speed reaching 90 kts: _______ and ______.

Answer 72

autobraking is not initiated the RTO autobrake function remains armed

Question 73

How is braking available if both Hydraulic Systems A and B are lost?

Answer 73

Trapped hydraulic pressure in the Brake Accumulator (Hydraulic System B) can still provide several (6) brake applications or parking brake application for eight hours.

Question 74

In the MAX, what are the positions of the Landing Gear Lever?

Answer 74

Up, Down

Question 75

What kind of brake discs does the MAX have?

Answer 75

Carbon

Question 76

The DC Fail (amber) light, when illuminated, indicates _________.

Answer 76

DC power for the related IRS is not normal.

Question 77

What are indications of a left FMC failure?

Answer 77

FMC alert light illuminates. The MENU page appears on both CDUs. VTK appears on the left navigation display. LNAV and VNAV will disengage, but can be reengaged if Autopilot B is in use or is selected.

Question 78

LNAV will engage when _______.

Answer 78

laterally positioned within 3nm of the active route leg.

Question 78

In the MAX, the FMC Alert light includes which new indication?

Answer 78

Runway Disagree

Question 79

In the MAX, what fuel indications are on the Fuel Progress Page 5/5?

Answer 79

1. APU Fuel Used 2. Totalizer 3. Calculated