2025 CQ Questions Flashcards

(86 cards)

1
Q

Which areas of the aircraft have fire extinguishing capability?

A

The engines, APU, and cargo

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2
Q

What fire protection functions are available without battery power?

A

The main wheel well and lower cargo compartments have fire detection without the battery but require AC power

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3
Q

Can you discharge the fire bottles using only battery power?

A

Yes, you can discharge the fire bottles using only battery power because it uses the hot battery bus for engines a few and lower cargo compartments and that is all the fire extinguishing that exists

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4
Q
A
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5
Q

How is the fire warning be silenced?

A

By pressing either the fire worn lights or pushing the bell cut out switch on the fire protection panel

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6
Q

How is an engine fire extinguished?

A

by discharging either fire bottle left or right by pulling and turning the fire engine fire switch on the side of that bottle which uses the squibs to discharge that bottle into the engine. The fire extinguisher bottle contains halo with a nitrogen precharge located in the left main wheel well

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7
Q

which systems are affected by pulling an engine fire switch and how are they affected?

A

The engine fuel shut off valve and spark fuel, shut off valve, the engine, bleed air valve and on side packed valve the associated hydraulic fluid shut off valve, the generator control relay and breaker the thrust reverser for the related engine and it arms one discharge squib on each engine, fire extinguisher bottle and allows. The engine fire switched to be rotated for discharge

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8
Q

How is a dual loop failure of an engine fire detection system indicated?

A

FAULT light

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9
Q

how many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the APU?

A

One

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10
Q

Does the APU have automatic fire extinguishing?

A

No, it is only manual

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11
Q

What happens when pulling the APU fire switch?

A

It closes the APU fuel shut off valve, the APU bleed air valve, the APU air inlet door, the APU generator control relay and breaker the APU fire switch can then be rotated for discharge and it arms, the AP fire extinguisher bottle squib

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12
Q

where is the APU fire ground control panel located?

A

In the right main wheel well

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13
Q

What does placing the fire detection test switch to “FAULT/INOP” test?

A

It tests the systems ability to detect a fault or an operative equipment within itself.

You should see the FAULT / APU DET INOP lights when the system test is working properly

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14
Q

what does placing the fire detection test switched to OVHT/FIRE test?

A

It tests, the overheat and fire detection loops on both engines the fire loop on the APU and the fire detector in the wheel well.

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15
Q

What is indicated by the illumination of the “detector fault” light in the cargo fire panel?

A

The illumination of the detector fault light indicates one or more detectors in the selected detection loops in either cargo compartment has failed

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16
Q

what fire protection and extinguishing equipment is available in the lower cargo compartments?

A

two halo fire suppression bottles, a high rate discharge bottle and a low rate discharge bottle when the discharge switch is pressed the high rate discharge bottle discharges into the selected compartment and a 15 minute timer, begins at the end of the 15 minutes. The low rate discharge bottle is released automatically into the selected compartmentfor 180 minutes this week sequence provides 195 minutes of fire suppression.

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17
Q
A
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18
Q

how is fueling accomplished?

A

single point pressure fueling station located on the right wing

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19
Q

What does an IMBAL alert on the fuel quantity indicator indicate?

A

Main tank fuel quantities deferred by greater than 1000 pounds for 60 seconds

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20
Q

what does the LOW alert on the fuel quantity indicator indicate?

A

Below 2000 lbs fuel on a main tank

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21
Q

What does a CONFIG alert on the fuel quantity indicator indicate?

A

misconfiguration of the fuel system boost pumps

1600 lbs or more fuel in the center tank with both center tank boost pumps OFF and engine running

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22
Q

What does INSUFFICIENT FUEL on the fuel quantity indicator indicate?

A

FMC fuel predicted to be less than 2000lbs

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23
Q
A
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24
Q

Limited over water

A

Limited over water equipment operations restricted to within 50 miles of the shore geographic exceptions are noted in the FOM

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25
extended over water
Operations are permitted beyond 50 miles, but must remain within 60 minutes of an adequate airport
26
Flight attendants notify of smoke in the galley oven. What are your immediate actions and checklist?
Oxygen masks regulators on Smoke googles if required on Smoke fire fumes in pax cabin or FD QRC
27
At FL240 you notice the stabilizer trim wheel moving continuously nose down. what actions and checklist?
control column hold firmly ap if engaged disengage at if engaged disengage control column and thrust control ac pitch attitude and thrust electric stab trim reduce control column forces if runway stops after ap disengage do not re-engage ap or at if runaway continues, stab trim cutout switches both cutout if runaway continues trim wheel grasp and hold
28
At FL350 an intermittent warning horn sounds.
oxygen masks and regulators on 100% crew communications establish cabin alt warn or rapid decompression qrc
29
during departure you suspect the airspeed indications are unreliable
ap, at, fds OFF set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust reduce flaps extended, 10 degrees and 80% N1 flaps up, 4 degrees and 75% N1
30
Maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing
15 kts
31
Maximum operating altitude? Maximum takeoff landing altitude?
FL410 8,400 feet
32
min takeoff landing temp
-54 degrees
33
one or both Bleed air switches ON do not operate packs in HIGH for?
takeoff approach or landing
34
maximum operating speed
observe vmo mmo gear and flap placards
35
severe turbulence penetration target speed
0.76 mach or 280
36
ground ops of hyd pumps requires min
1675 lbs fuel in respective fuel tank
37
38
engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight ops when icing exists except Engine anti ice must be ON prior to or during descent
during climb and cruise at temps below -40 SAT in all icing conditions including-40 SAT
39
When must engine start switches be in the CONT mode?
takeoff landing anti ice, hail, sleet, moderate to heavy rain
40
min oil temp before setting takeoff thrust in max
31 C
41
Ensure APU Bleed air closed for 2 min ____ and for 1 min _____
after start prior to shutdown
42
Except for engine start, the apu bleed valve must be closed when another source is pressuring the ____
left bleed air duct
43
Do not deploy the speed brake with more than flaps ____ extended
10
44
min fuel temp
-37
45
For ground operations center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned ON unless _____, except when defueling or transferring fuel. Center tank fuel pumps must not be on unless_____.
Center tank fuel quantity exceeds 1,000 lbs personnel are available in the FD to monitor the low pressure lights
46
When does the Master Caution light illuminate for a single/simple fault?
Master Caution recall
47
The PSU supplies oxygen per seat row for how many minutes?
12 minutes
48
When do the overwing emergency exit doors locks engage?
with 3 of 4 doors closed either engine started and aircraft in air or thrust increased
49
What is the function of the Electric Air Compressor?
For the Potable Water system when normal pressurizing is insufficient powered by main bus 1
50
with both landing lights ON and taxi light ON, the taxi light function is ______
overridden by the landing light function
51
The AUTO FAIL on pressurization panel
Loss of DC power Controller fault Outflow valve control fault Excessive diff press Excessive rate of of cabin pressure change High cabin altitude
52
Wing Body Overheat
an overheat
53
Thrust must be limited to idle with the ____ light illuminated
dual bleed
54
Bleed trip off light
excessive bleed air temps or pressures the trip/reset button can reset it if conditions permit
55
The MAX pneumatic system uses ____ and _____ stage bleed air.
4th and 10th
56
SELCAL indications
two tone chime selcal white light
57
which radio defaults to DATA?
VHF3
58
RTP displays _____ when selected radio is not available
FAIL FAIL
59
On the MAX where is the SELCAL light?
On the lower half of the audio panel
60
with IGN R selected, what is the power source?
AC Standby BUS
61
What would remove an amber ENG FAIL light?
The engine recovers above 50% N2 or if we CUTOFF the start levers or pull the fire lever
62
What does THRUST crew alert on engine display indicate?
The engine thrust is more or less than the commanded thrust. The N1 will indicate AMBER as well
63
The thrust mode display (green) indicates R-TO. What mode is active?
reduced takeoff
64
In the MAX, how long should you wait after the APU GEN OFF BUS (blue) light extinguishes before positioning the battery switch to OFF?
5 min
65
66
During a FAULT /INOP test the failure of the FAULT light to illuminate indicates _____.
the fault monitoring system is inoperative
67
If the OVHT DET switch is positioned to A or B, the system operates
as a single loop detector
68
Rotating the engine fire switch in one direction
electrically fires a squib discharging the extinguisher into the related engine
69
How long do we have fire suppression after the cargo DISCH light is pressed?
195 minutes total
70
The MAX has how many wheel well fire det loops?
TWO
71
FUEL LOW amber
main tank fuel quantity is less than 2K for 30 seconds
72
What could cause a progressive fuel imbalance?
Crossfeed valve left open, no center tank fuel feed, with main tank fuel pumps operating within normal pump output pressure tolerances
73
Opening the crossfeed valve in flight
allows fuel from main tank with operating fuel pumps to provide fuel to both engines
74
IMBAL amber
1000 lbs
75
FUEL FLOW (amber)
Engine fuel flow is abnormally high diff between actual and FMS rate exceeds predetermined value by 5 min
76
COWL ANTI ICE (amber)
Overpressure in cowl anti ice ducting
77
which leading edge devices are on the wing anti ice system?
three inboard leading edge slats
78
79
TAI (amber)
Cowl anti ice valve failed to move to the position selected by the anti ice switch
80
Positioning the wing anti ice switch ON in flight _______?
opens both control valves sets icing conditions stall warning logic
81
On MAX, how is engine core anti ice controlled?
Automatically via EEC
82
TCAS pitch command on PFD keep aircraft ______ the area with red lines
outside
83
Predictive Windshear automatically turns on for takeoff
by advancing thrust levers beyond 53 degrees
84
GPWS provides Bank Angle alert when roll angle exceeds
35, 40, 45 degrees
85
turbulence on radar panel
WX+T
86
MAINT (amber)
a system fault exists that must be reviewed by maintenance