2024 FD DES Prep Flashcards
(131 cards)
1
Q
When a VOR frequency is tuned, each dot on the deviation scale represents how much deflection?
A
5 degrees
2
Q
When a localizer frequency is tuned, each dot on the deviation scale represents how much deflection?
A
1.25 degrees
3
Q
Each mark above and below the center mark on the glide slope scale represents how much deflection?
A
0.25 degrees
4
Q
______ are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction
A
Restricted Area
5
Q
How large is the “Oceanic” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?
A
4.0 NM
6
Q
How large is the “En Route” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?
A
2.0 NM
7
Q
How large is the “Terminal” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?
A
1.0 NM
8
Q
How large is the “Approach” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?
A
0.3 NM
9
Q
On an ELA chart, blue and green airport symbols represent what?
A
Airports with published instrument approaches
10
Q
On an ELA chart, what do the tick marks around the airport symbol mean?
A
Civil airport
11
Q
How much coverage for ground based navigation signal does a MOCA cover between two segments of a route?
(Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)
A
25 statute / 22 NM of a VOR
12
Q
What height buffer is calculated into the OROCA for the Fort Drum AO?
A
1000 ft non mountainous
2000 ft mountainous
13
Q
When flying a DME arc approach procedure, pilots must remain within _____ NM’s of the desired DME arc.
A
+/- 1 NM
14
Q
What does the white “H” in a black circle in the VOR freq block indicate?
What does the white “T” in a black circle indicate?
How do you contact JOESBORO FSS?
A
Hazardous inflight weather advisory service available (HIWAS)
Transcribed weather broadcast (TWEB)
Pilot transmits on 122.6 and recieved on VOR 116.0
15
Q
What is the FAF for a precision approach?
A
Glide slope intercept
16
Q
What are the three individual services a Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range/Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) provide?
A
- VOR Azimuth
- TACAN Azimuth
- TACAN distance (DME)
17
Q
What is the Category A Circling approach area radii?
A
1.3 miles
18
Q
What are the five types of routes that are displayed on an instrument approach plate?
A
- Feeder routes
- Initial approach
- Intermediate approach
- Final approach course
- Missed approach
19
Q
If a procedure turn or holding pattern in lieu of procedure turn is depicted on the approach plate, is it mandatory?
A
Yes
20
Q
Does an MSA guarantee NAVAID reception?
A
No
21
Q
TRUE/FALSE
If a crew member or mission parameter change increases the resultant risk, the PC or AMC will get reapproved as required, but does not need to be rebriefed?
A
FALSE
22
Q
Who is responsible for the acceptance of risk when passengers are not restrained during flight?
A
The passengers chain of command
23
Q
For seats out operations, who gives the approval and how is it documented?
A
The first one-star in the passenger’s chain of command.
It may be documented verbally but will be documented via memorandum as soon as practical.
24
Q
How far out can a commander excuse an aviator from his/her APART requirements when scheduled for retirement or separation? And may the aviator perform crew duties during this period?
A
6 months from date of scheduled retirement or separation
No
25
After departing from an uncontrolled non military airfield, what must you do?
Advise flight service station or other competent authority of departure time
26
You can NOT use an airfield as alternate on IFR flight plan if?
1. WORST weather is within 400’ and 1SM of approach minima at ETA through one hour after ETA
2. NAVAID is unmonitored
3. Radar is required
4. If a GPS approach was used as a primary plan and GPS is the only available instrument approach
5. There is no surface airspace (B, C, D, E)
6. If alternate not authorized is published on the approach plate
27
Aviators shall avoid overflight of National Security areas below _______ feet AGL.
2,000’ AGL
28
TRUE/FALSE
Army aviators are authorized to off-tune from the approach aid in order to identify an approach fix.
TRUE
29
EFB Batteries must be at what level to be used for flight?
10% for each hour of flight and no less than 50%
30
If operating in IMC conditions, and either EFB fails, what should you do?
Exit IMC as soon as practicable
31
When do all personnel aboard Army aircraft have to wear life preservers?
When the aircraft does not have single engine capability and is flown beyond glide distance of the shore
32
When will life rafts be on board for flights in Army aircraft?
When aircraft is flown more than 30 minutes or 100NM from shore
33
How are two way flight routes deconflicted?
Time or altitude separation
34
What are the standard distances to be used for SP’s and RP’s?
3-8 km
35
Ensure the heading to the RP is within ____ degrees of the LZ landing direction.
30 degrees
36
What is the time format for “Hard Times”?
hh:mm:ss
37
For planning, how much separation is required between CH47’s in a:
-light PZ
-heavy PZ
-heavy PZ at night?
-100m
-200m
-250m
38
What does REDCON 1 and 2 mean?
REDCON 1- engines 100%, APU off, mission freqs ready, weapons safe and clear, ready for takeoff
REDCON 2- engines off, APU on, weapons installed, MSN freqs/internal, crew at or in aircraft-15 minutes
39
How many hours can be logged in a 24 hour period of D/NG/combination of D and NG?
D- 8 hours
NG- 6 hours
D+NG- 7 hours
40
Lines 1-9 MEDEVAC request
1- location of pickup
2- radio frequency, call sign, and suffix
3- number of pt’s by precedence
4- special equipment required
5- number of pt’s by type
6- security of site
7- marking method at site
8- pt nationality and status
9- CBRN
41
If the supported unit has already named LZ’s and PZ’s, should you use the standard naming convention per the Aviation Handbook?
No
42
When will RCM’s recently graduating IERW conduct an Instrument Flight Evaluation (IFE)?
Prior to designation of RL2, unless in an austere environment-in which case they will complete IFE upon return to home station.
43
Is the neck cord required to be used with NVG’s while flying?
Yes, unless HUD is being worn
44
Each RL 1 crewmember will receive ____ no-notice evaluation(s) per year outside of their APART period.
1
45
At what level should the cockpit internal lighting be adjusted to?
Lowest usable intensity that allows for unaided viewing of the instruments
46
MBOs and FMAAs must sign the original RCOP within ____ hours of verbal briefing.
48 hours
47
In reference to the RCOP, what is a bona fide absence?
A short period of time when the commander is not readily available to exercise mission command, provide guidance, and issue final mission approval within a timely manner
48
BN Commander must be notified of training flights that depart ______ NM radius of WSAAF.
200 NM
49
What is the cold weather bag requirements per the 10th CAB supplement?
-cold Wx gloves
-fleece cap
-FREE/GORTEX top and bottom
-balaclava/scarf/neck gaiter
-one pair extra socks
50
How long is a “rest period”?
10 hours
51
How long is a reset day? How often should they be scheduled?
24 hours, every 14 days
52
How long can the company commander extend the duty day and flight hours?
Duty day-2 hours
Flight hours- 1 hour
53
What are the response times associated with REDCON 1-5?
REDCON1: immediate
REDCON2: 15 minutes
REDCON3: 30 minutes
REDCON4: 1 hour
REDCON: greater than 1 hour
54
What are the disk separations for tight, close, loose, and extended?
Tight:1-2 disks
Close: 3-5 disks
Loose: 6-10 disks
Extended: greater than 10 disks
55
Which aircraft in a multiship flight initiates a lead change?
Lead
56
For planning purposes, how heavy will each combat troop be estimated to be?
300lbs
57
What are the weapon control statuses?
(3)
Weapons hold
Weapons tight
Weapons free
58
How many hours of hood/weather will be flown in a semiannual period? How many need to be flown in the aircraft?
3.0 in a semiannual
1.5 in the aircraft
59
Except for takeoff and landing, night unaided flight will not be performed below _____ feet AHO.
200’ AHO
60
Who may conduct and certify LAO flights?
Any PC knowledgeable in the area
61
What are the five major areas that R5201 is divided into?
Alpina, Matoon, Bowling Alley, Reedville, Weaver
62
When weather drops below _____’ and __ SM, you are no longer legal to fly in R5201.
500’ and 2SM
63
How often will VFR local weather briefs be updated?
Every 2 hours or during fuel stops
64
Are armed aircraft authorized to refuel at OASIS?
While at OASIS, are radio transmissions authorized?
No.
Only emergency transmissions to reduce the risk of electrical arcing.
65
Severe weather is defined as what conditions?
Drum 95-1
Tornadoes
hail (>=1/2 inch diameter)
And/or
Surface winds >=45knots
66
Severe thunderstorm is defined as what conditions?
Drum 95-1
Convective winds >= 45 knots
And/or
Hail >= 1/2 inch diameter
67
How many hours in advance can a WEATHER WATCH be reported?
12 hours
68
Is a weather warning issued before a weather watch?
Yes/no
No
69
Who has priority during the first hour of official sunset at WSAAF?
How is this communicated to TWR?
Night unaided aircraft
Adding “uniform” to your call sign
70
How far from centerline does wake turbulence extend during heavy aircraft operations?
(03/21 Or 15/33)
2500’
71
What is SVFR minima for WSAAF?
Day- 300’ 1/2 SM
Night- 500’ 1 SM
Traffic Pattern/ALL- 500’ 1 SM
72
What is a BASH?
Bird/Animal Aircraft Strike Hazard
Reduces hazard of aircraft collision with an animal or bird
73
What states are included in the local flying area?
(9)
New York
New Hampshire
New Jersey
Vermont
Maine
Massachusetts
Rhode Island
Connecticut
Pennsylvania
74
You are flying at 500’ AGL. By how much should you avoid towns and villages?
1 NM
75
How far in advance should you submit a PPR for flight into the Cantonment Area Helicopter Landing Zones?
2 working days in advance
76
What are the primary entry points into R5201?
CP HUBBARD
CP STERLINGVILLE
CP WARD HILL
77
What are the primary CPs used for reentry into the Class D from R5201?
CP BIRCH
CP DOOLINS
78
Describe the flight of route for the Ward Hill Transition?
Fly direct CP SHANK, climb 1400’ MSL, DCT CP WARD HILL
79
What are the responsibilities of the PC when flying under gun target lines?
(7)
-coordinate with range control and firing artillery unit prior to flight
-provide range control with a/c tail number and dates of execution
-maintain positive radio control with Drum Radio during mission
-do not fly under hun target lines without range control clearance
-maintain 1000 m from artillery firing line
-do not fly above 100’ AHO
-will not violate area “ECHO” (area in front of firing line plus 45 degrees either side of line up to 350 meters)
80
Above what altitude can you predict that your unaided night vision will begin to decrease?
4,000’
81
Smoking three cigarettes in quick succession has what effect on the body in regards to altitude physiology and night adaptation?
20% loss of night vision
Physiologic altitude of about 5,000’ at sea level
82
Drinking four ounces of alcohol will cause the body to mimic the physiological effects of being at _________’ MSL.
8,000’ MSL
83
What are the four stages of hypoxia?
Indifferent
Compensatory
Disturbance
Critical
84
What is the most common somatogyral illusion?
Leans
85
As a FAC 1 aviator, how many hours will you fly semiannually?
How many sim hours will be logged annually?
45 hours flown semiannually
18 hours sim time
86
What are the three common standards for ALL tasks?
- do not exceed aircraft limitations
-perform crew coordination actions IAW ATM
-apply appropriate night and environment task considerations
87
What reduces the effectiveness of threat system employment and “denies the enemy the shot?”
Aviation tactics
88
What are the five phases of the kill chain?
Exposure
Encounter
Engagement
Endgame
Effect
89
What is used to verify the identity of an Isolated Personnel?
ISOPREP
90
What is the average scale of a VFR sectional?
1:500,000
91
With IRSS installed, how much weight should be added to the climb and descent charts?
2,000lbs
92
What are the operational defects for the ANVIS 6?
-flashing, flickering, or intermittent operation
-edge glow
-emission points
-shading
93
You are flying in a low contrast environment with low illumination under NVGs over tall grass and having a difficult time maintaining a hover.
What is the most likely visual illusion you will experience in this scenario?
Vection
94
What is the weapon system displayed?
SA-24/MANPAD (surface to air missile)
95
Who is the approval authority for a unique load?
High risk approving authority
96
Which hoist hooks are approved for personnel lift operations?
(1, 2, or 3)
2 and 3
97
How much of a torque increase can you expect to encounter in a 60 degree bank without losing altitude?
100% increase in TRQ
98
_______ provides supplemental, corrective, or exact amolification to the general mission tasking of the specific Air Tasking Order (ATO) period. They often include ROE and combat identification criteria for air defense. Include additional guidance, directives, or information that aircrews require such as host-nation restrictions, base defense zone procedures, and special weapons systems control procedures and combat search/rescue procedures.
Special instructions
SPINS
99
Identify the weapon system
SA-8 Gecko
100
What is the difference between VFR On Top and VFR Over The Top?
VFR on top- IFR clearance that allows aviators to fly at VFR altitudes of their choice but does not imply cancellation of IFR clearance
VFR over the top- strictly a VFR flight plan, that allows aviators to maintain legal cloud clearances while operating strictly under VFR, no IFR flight plan needed.
101
What is SEAD?
Suppression of Enemy Air Defense
102
A(n) _________ is the movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain.
Air assault
103
During a flight you hear a radio call: “ANGELS 7”
What does this mean?
The aircraft making the call is at 7,000’ MSL
104
What are the three doctrinal methods of defeating enemy weapon systems?
-Threat Avoidance
-threat suppression/destruction
-employment of ASE
105
A(n) ___________ is the air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment including airdrops and landings that are organized, loaded, and transported to facilitate accomplishment of a tactical mission with the potential threat of enemy forces.
Air movement
106
This airspace has a concentrated employment of numerous and varied weapons and airspace users. It has defined dimensions and is usually controlled by the maneuver commander.
High-density airspace control zone (HIDACZ)
107
A(n) ______ is a tactical grouping of one or more serials with each serial containing a number of aircraft.
Lift
108
Is turning off ASE systems considered an EMCON action?
NO
109
What does EMCON mean?
Emission Control
110
62-mm tracers burn out at about ____meters and should be considered the max effective range for area targets using the M240H.
900 meters
111
What are the four doctrinal types of personnel recovery operations?
-immediate
-deliberate
-unassisted
-externally supported
112
What does TOWRICO stand for
Take off when ready in chalk order
113
Identify the threat.
SA-22 Greyhound
114
Identify the threat
SA-18 Grouse
115
______________ is a recurring order implementing the airspace control plan. It provides specific coordination measure details, such as approved ACMs and selected FSCMs, as designated by the airspace control plan.
ACO- Airspace coordination orders
116
________ is a method used to task and disseminate to components, subordinate units, and C2 agencies projected sorties, capabilities, and forces to targets and specific missions.
ATO- Air Tasking Order
117
Identify the threat.
SA-19 Tunguska
118
Identify the threat.
SA-13 Gopher
119
Identify the threat.
ZSU 23-4 Shilka
120
Identify the threat.
SA-6 Gainful
121
Identify the threat.
SA-7 WEG
122
The _________ is the first meeting between the AATF Staff, fires, and supporting aviation unit.
IPC-Initial Planning Conference
123
What type of drag is most prominent at high airspeeds?
Parasitic
124
______ is the airspeed range providing the best power margin for maneuvering flight.
Bucket speed
125
Is height above touchdown (HAT) used for straight-in or circling approaches?
Straight-in approaches
126
What does the brevity term GIMBAL mean?
M240H has reached azimuth and elevation limits
127
What does the brevity term CHERUB mean?
X00’s of feet AGL
128
What does the brevity term WINCHESTER mean?
No ordnance remaining
129
What does the brevity term REMINGTON mean?
No ordnance remaining except force-pro or weapon system ammo
130
What does the brevity term LAME DUCK mean?
Aircraft in a minor state of emergency
131
What does the brevity term NO JOY mean?
Aircrew does not have visual contact with target or bandit
