2025 Flashcards
(168 cards)
1
Q
COLA based on __%
A
8%
2
Q
SPB; least $ amount
A
$300 or if retired pay is lesser
3
Q
When retired pay is increased, SBP is __
A
increased by the same percentage
4
Q
SBP; widower must be married at least __ immediately before time of death or parent of a natural child from marriage
A
1 year
5
Q
the objective of the Work-life Subsistence Program is to
A
provide policy and support to over 1,200 Culinary Specialist: enable the successful and efficient operation of 360 CGDFs service wide
6
Q
The __ cannot issue a directive (policy)
A
XO/O5
7
Q
Who can authorize excess baggage
A
AO
8
Q
What does AO stand for
A
Authorizing/Order-Issuing Official
9
Q
Travel reimbursement must be IAW __ of the JTR
A
U3015
10
Q
What is the office of Personnel & Reserve Force Readiness
A
DOL-1
11
Q
Who overseas and directs Reserve mobilization/demobilization in conjunction with continency force management evolutions
A
DOL-1
12
Q
Addresses Reserve specific readiness, SELRES training, billets, AFC-90 funds
A
DOL-1
13
Q
Office of Resource Management
A
DOL-8
14
Q
Who provides funding for DOL enterprise, 5,400 personnel?
A
DOL-8
15
Q
Performs financial planning, programming, budgeting, AFC-30, and depot funding allocated to Bases
A
DOL-8
16
Q
Office of Procurement and Contracting
A
DOL-9
17
Q
Base support services (COCO-BSS), procurement policy, guidance, emergency, commerical and utility contracts
A
DOL-9
18
Q
Application of remission
A
CG-5489-1
19
Q
Application of remission (financial hardship exists)
A
CG-5489B
20
Q
Within __ days of overpayment, mbr completed application of remission
A
15
21
Q
Cutter __ feet or larger, mbr receives notice of overpayment, the unit may request suspension of collection. Must be submitted within __ days.
A
210’
60 days
22
Q
During WW2, which CG officer led a 16 mbr unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
A
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
23
Q
Battle streamers are attached to the __ replacing cords and tassels.
A
Coast Guard standard
24
Q
How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?
A
Possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard
25
Which of the following is a risk assesment pitfall?
Over optimism, misrepresentation, alarmism, indiscrimatoin, prejudice, inaccuracy, enumeration
26
The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR, Spread out
27
While wearing the Light Blue Shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges and __
Center of device is one (1) inch and parallel from the leading edge
28
Sexual assault is defined as __ characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent.
intentional sexual contact
29
How many levels of Interpreters are there?
4
30
How many levels of Linguist are there?
2
31
Interpreter 1 pay, 2 pay, 3 pay, 4 pay
Interpreter 1; $100
Interpreter 2; $125
Interpreter 3; $150
Interpreter 4; $200
32
Linguist 1 pay, 2 pay?
Linguist 1; $250
Linguist 2; $300
33
Weight probation non semiannual officer/enlisted
PD-02A
34
Weight probation complete, met weight standards
PD-03
35
Weight separation post probation
PD-04
36
Weight probation semiannual officer/enlisted
PD-02
37
Weight probation 30 day extension
PD-01A
38
Weight probation Abeyance 6 months
PD-01B
39
3307 missed vessel movement
PD-05
40
3307 positive and negative
Positive PD-06
Negative PD-07
41
3307 failure to pay debt
PD-10
42
3307 HUMS
AT-02
43
3307 Obligated service for advancement to E7-E9
AR-02
44
Obligated service for advancment to E7-E9
2 years
45
When is a mbr not entitled to basic pay
UA, excess leave, confinement
46
Point Start Date (PSD)
2/2
Feb 2
47
SWE Eligibility Date (SED)
2/1
Feb 1 (same year of SWE)
48
Terminal Eligibility Date (TED)
1/1
Jan 1 (next year)
49
Who authorizes excess baggage
Authorizing/Order-Issuing Officials (AO)
50
MBRs ordered PCS/TEMDUINS to A-School for __ are authorized HHG at current PDS in non-temp storage (NTS), shipment to new PDS is authorized
less than 20 weeks
51
Dependents are not authorized travel entitlements if A-school is ___ long
less than 20 weeks
52
BAH protection requests are sent to ___
PSC-PSD-FS
53
Insignia on garrison cover; enlisted
1-1/2 inch up and 2 inches right
54
What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Combination cap or Garrison cap.
55
Garrison Cover; Anchor Insignia
1-3/8 inches high
56
When is parking lot discussed
End of meeting/session
57
If your roommate confides that he/she has been sexually assaulted, what should you do?
Contact Sexual Assault Response Coordinator or Victim Advocate
58
CGBI link
.OSC.
59
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service
60
In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the _____.
Fly of the trouser
61
When wearing the women’s overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall _____.
not be visible under the SDB Coat
62
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?
2 years
63
Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?
Wash and Wear Blue Dress Trousers/Slacks
64
Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned.
Battle streamers
65
Who is your point of contact for information relating to the Coast Guard Scholarship Program?
Family resource specialist
66
What form is used to enroll my dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program (SNP)?
DD Form 2792, 2792-1
67
Where can you refer members for information about childcare?
Child development services
68
Which mobile app can be used to find a unit Ombudsman using the “Ombudsman Locator” feature?
USCG HSWL Mobile App
69
What is the third stage of conflict?
Escalation
70
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define Conflict
71
What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?
Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person
72
Incapacitated member can only stay __ months after EOE
6 months
73
What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?
Stage 2 Confrontation
74
What is the final stage of conflict?
Stage 5 Resolution
75
What training code(s) direct PDCs to ensure members can complete an EPQ or RPQ correctly without assistance, prompting or the use of any job or memory aid?
Training Code 1: Train to Memory
76
In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?
Stage 3 Escalation
77
What is another form of parking lot or board used in a meeting?
IDA; Issues, Decisions, and Actions
78
Where is IDP counseling documented?
IDP/EDP must be kept by the supervisor and documented appropriately at the unit level.
79
For first-term members reporting to a new duty station, supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within _____ days of reporting.
30 days after reporting date.
80
The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared _____.
Landscape; The body of the citation cannot exceed 12 lines of text, using Times New Roman, 11 to 12-pitch, bold font
81
A _____ concisely and accurately identifies an issue needing to be studied, understood, or brought to the attention of the next higher authority in your chain of command.
Problem statement
82
The Discipline and Conduct manual stipulates that coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of _____.
Hazing
83
What types of cost data should a manager gather in order to make an effective argument for a policy change?
Excessive costs
84
_____ is necessary to reduce extra workload and person-hours incurred by the implementation of a policy.
Reassessment
85
Developing policy requires in-depth examination of the problem, and establishment of _____, which when followed, will lead to the desired improvements or changes to the existing policy.
Succinct steps
86
When communicating with program managers to effect change, it is important to give complete and accurate _____.
Data and information
87
In order to make an effective argument for change, managers must _____ with others.
Collaborate
88
In reviewing current unit and Coast Guard policy, there are _____ points managers need to do, in order to make an effective argument for change.
Sell
89
In order to make an effective argument for policy change, managers must _____ and obtain as much data as possible.
Study the issues
90
The process of effecting policy change involves _____ steps.
9
91
While our instinct is to describe the changes needed in order to make things better, managers need data and other information to _____ the positive changes.
sell
92
With any new or changed policy, the issue of _____ necessary to accomplish the mission becomes paramount.
resources
93
While presenting policy draft recommendations, the person presenting the argument should also point out the _____ if new or changed policy does NOT occur.
Resources expended
94
When bringing a problem to a decision maker, you should be prepared to present what?
recommendations
95
Which step in the process of effecting change includes "market to the right audience"?
4
96
Each new policy has a(n) _____.
Originating authority
97
The basis for creating new policy is a _____.
Problem statement
98
The _____ can NOT issue a directive (policy).
XO
99
What is the best process to review a new policy or change?
Use concurrent clearance
100
To build support for a proposal for a new or changed policy, stakeholders should understand the positive impacts linked to _____.
1. Mission effectiveness and efficiency
2. Human and financial resources
3. Answering the WIIFM (What’s in it for me?) question, understanding that the “me” are all the stakeholders.
101
Who is the program manager for all new Coast Guard wide directives and policy?
Commandant (CG-61)
102
In regard to implementation of policy changes, what is the process to request resources in future fiscal years?
Resource proposal process.
103
104
When socializing potential changes, the _____ must sell new policy and changes to current policy.
Program managers
105
A(n) _____ is each command's tool to establish procedures and processes to be followed to carry out command and Coast Guard policy.
SOP
106
Implementation of change or new policy could be slowed or stopped if significant barriers to _____ are evident and not halted.
Change or resistance
107
What type of analysis is used to identify strengths of the change, verses threats pushing against the change implementation?
SWOT
108
To help mitigate resistance/barriers to change, generate a _____ diagramming factors, stakeholders, and risks associated with the barriers to the change.
Force-field analysis
109
CGMA Childcare Grant ___ per child
$150
110
BNA %
150%
111
OCONUS Screening; has mbr received NJP in past __ months or sex/criminal offense past __ months
NJP- 36 months
Sex/criminal- 24 months
112
OCONUS Screening; any record of alcohol within past __ years
10 years
113
Dependent OCONUS Screening; any sex/criminal offense past __ months or record w/ alcohol past __ years
24 months
10 years
114
OCONUS Screening; has mbr failed two or more weigh-ins within the past __ months
36 months
115
TDY HHG Weight Allowance for E7, E8, E9
E7; 400 lbs
E8; 500 lbs
E9; 600 lbs
116
NTS Weight Allowance E7, E8, E9
E7- 13,000 / 11,000
E8- 14,000 / 12,000
E9- 15,000 / 13,000
117
MBR is non-receipt of pay; notifies P/A immediately. P/A verifies information and sends e-mail to PPC Customer Care within __ business days
2 business days.
Questions is how long does ADMIN wait? Trick Questions, ADMIN may process immediately but no more that 2 days
118
MBR is only allowed to have 1 current allotment for the following
Montgomery GI Bill
MGIB Additional Amount
Loan Repayment CG Mutual Assistance
Navy Mutual Aid Insurance
119
You must give notice of loss/damaged HHG within ___
Within 180 Days
120
You must file a claim of loss/damaged HHG ___ from delivery date
9 months
121
HHG Damage Form
DD Form 1840
122
Honorable Discharge Certificate
DD Form 256 CG
123
Allotments must not be submitted more than __ months in advance
2 months
124
Allotments must stop prior to __
mid-month payroll
125
There are __ discretionary allotments and __ nondiscretionary allotments
8 discretionary
5 discretionary
126
Not included in the computation of lump sum leave, reenlistment bonus or severance pay
Special Duty Pay
127
AVIP is only paid to officers who are in __ or __
DIFOPS
DIFPRO
128
Delayed POV; what is the max for rental car?
$30 for seven days
$210
129
CWO's first request for retention after 30 years cannot exceed __ years.
4 years
130
Critical Skills Training Bonus: you must agree to extend __ years minimum
4 years
131
HUMS: Members who desire to extend their enlistment will submit request __ days prior to EOE.
60 days prior
132
HUMS: Commanding Officers will notify EPM mbr's ineligibility to reenlist __ days prior to EOE/Separation
60 days prior
133
Exceptions to Checkage of Pay and Allowances: Excess leave cannot exceed __ days
30 days
134
Regular Liberty cannot exceed __ days
3 days
135
Emergency Travel OCONUS: Alternate OCONUS locations are approved by __
CG-1332
136
Application for corrections of military records and limitations
DD form 293
within 15 years
reviewed by DRB
137
Peronnel Records Review Board, PRRB: application and timeframe
DD Form 149
within 1 year
138
Study UA and TLE computation
Study UA and TLE computation
139
MBRS stright from bootcamp who go to A school and are separated receive __ discharge
honorable
140
MBRS with more than __ years who are not recommended for reenlistment have the right to a board
8 years
141
MBRs who have less than __ years and are not recommended for reenlistment may appeal through __ and get a probationary extension up to ___
8 years
EPM-1
1 year
142
Officer Honorable Discharge: Acceptance of ____ resignation
unqualified
143
Officer Under Honorable Conditions (General): Acceptance of __ resignation and for ___
qualified
good of the service
144
Officer discharge under Other than Honorable Conditions
Voluntary separation/retirement in lieu of board
Dropped from Rolls
Acceptance of resignation to escape dismissal
145
How many types of Officer Separations
6;
Secretary's acceptance of resignation
Dismissal
Revocation
Dropping from Rolls
Discharge
Removal
146
HHG for dependent college
350 lbs
147
Advanced pay is payable to somone deployed to hostile/danger area for more than __ days or vessel __
365/1year
changed homeport
148
Advanced Pay is payable to RSV serving on AD for __ or greater
140 days or greater
149
Member can receive advance pay __ days before PCS and within _ days after reporting
30 days before PCS
60 days after reporting
150
CO may authorized advance pay __ days before PCS and within __ days after reporting
90 days before PCS
180 days after reporting
151
__ months of advanced pay must be approved by CO
2-3 months
152
Max liquidation of advance pay; __ months
12 months
153
CO may authorize max liquidations up to __ months
24 months
154
What can be advanced anytime during member's tour
BAH/OHA
155
Max amount of BAH and OHA
BAH is 3 months
OHA is 12 months
156
Rehire: What does SPO need to verify
State Withholding Tax
157
Cutter __ or larger: mbr may request suspension of collection within __ days
210'
60 days
158
Remission form __: mbr submits within __ days
CG-5489-1
15 days
159
Remission form (financial hardhip)
CG-5489B
160
CO endorses CG-5489-1 within __ business days
5 business days
161
CO completes part __ of CG-5489B
Part II
162
Remissions, CG-5489-1, are sent to __ for processing and sent to ____
PPC MAS
CG 1332
163
Remission status updates are sent to __
CG 1332
164
Waivers are for erroneous payments exceeding __
$10,000
165
Waiver Form __: member completes within __ years
CG-5489-2
5 years
166
CO endorses waiver within __ business days
5
167
PPC MAS fowards waiver to CG 1332 within __ business days
3
168
