Study I Flashcards
(933 cards)
1
Q
Member gets counseled on TRIPS
A
400 miles
2
Q
First symptom of syphilis?
A
sore
3
Q
When A PHS Officer PCS, who do you notify?
A
PSC(OPM-2) or CG-1121
4
Q
HHG limit for Dutch Harbor?
A
1,000 lbs
5
Q
What blood alcohol content causes a coma and death?
A
.40%
6
Q
What blood alcohol content causes “slightly” impairment?
A
.08%
7
Q
Members must obligate service within ___days of receipt of PCS orders.
A
05 days
8
Q
Travel advances are processed no more than ___ days before departure
A
30 days
9
Q
MBR does a PCS claim no later than __ days
A
30 calendar days
10
Q
New unit submits travel claim NLT __ days upon receipt or NMT __ upon mbr reporting
A
2 calendar days/32 calendar days
11
Q
“A” school for a period of less than __weeks are authorized to store their (HHG) at their current (PDS) in non-temporary storage
A
20 weeks
12
Q
Dependent travel and transportation allowances are not authorized when members are assigned to a school less than __ weeks
A
20 weeks
13
Q
A BAH rate protection request must be submitted and approved by ___
A
PSC (psd-fs)
14
Q
PCS travel order Form __
A
CG-5131
15
Q
Within __ working days after a member’s departure date, the detaching SPO shall mail/ship the SPO PDR
A
05 working days
16
Q
Unit must request tracking if no PDR within __ days upon MBR reporting
A
05 working days
17
Q
PDR correction documents should be sent/scanned to
A
PSC-PSD-MR
18
Q
Performance Qualifications Form
A
CG-3303C
19
Q
MBR affiliates with the reserves; SPO mails PDR within __ working days
A
02 working days
20
Q
The unit must send the Unit-PDR to the SPO within __ working days after a member is declared a deserter;
A
15 working days
21
Q
The SPO must send the Unit-PDR, and SPO-PDR to PSC-PSD-MR within __ working days after member is declared a deserter.
A
18 working days
22
Q
The unit must send the Unit-PDR to the SPO within __ working days after a member dies with a copy of the Personnel Casualty report
A
02 working days
23
Q
The SPO must send the Unit-PDR and SPO-PDR to PSC-PSD-MR within __ workings days after a member dies with a copy of the Personnel
Casualty report
A
05 working days
24
Q
PDRs must have adequate administrative and physical security as prescribed in Chapter __ of The Coast Guard Freedom of Information (FOIA) and
Privacy Acts Manual
A
Chapter 7
25
The Coast Guard Freedom of Information (FOIA) and
Privacy Acts Manual, COMDTINST
M5260.3
26
```
A suitable container must protect the files
comparably to a class __ file cabinet
```
7110
27
Destroy only by \_\_\_.
burning, shredding, or pulverizing
28
Record on Enclosure __ the release or disclosure of all PDR system information or documents that fall under the FOIA or Privacy Act
2
29
Disclosure log; Retain in PDR for __ years after the last disclosure or for the life of the record, whichever is longer.
5 years
30
which copies of DD214 go to PSC-PSD-MR
copies 2 & 8
31
Annual Reserve Retirement Point Statement form
CG-4175A
32
Original Pre-Separation Counseling Checklist
DD-2648
33
PDR Folder Form
CG-5354
34
Ensures member meets weight standards within __
days of PCS departure.
30 days
35
Members must obligate service
within __ days of receipt of PCS orders
5 days
36
PCS Entitlements Worksheet
CG 2003
37
The Centrally Billed Account
(CBA) shall be used and annotated on the orders
“Authorized use of the CBA” when the PCS delay
exceeds __ days
15 days
38
Who approves more than 02 POVs
CG-1332
39
BAH Rate Protection Worksheet
CG-2025A
40
SPO for PHS officers
PSC(OPM-2)
41
Unit reviews PDR within __ working days after mbr departs
5 working days
42
Travel voucher
DD 1351-2
43
Travel voucher continuation
DD 1351-2C
44
Firearms w/s
DD 2760
45
PATFORSWA Partial HHG limited to
600 lbs
46
PBP&E weight limit
2,000 lbs
47
Spouse PBP&E limit; pro gear
500 lbs
48
HHG scale; __ pounds per cubic foot
7 lbs
49
PPM advance
60%
50
SIT
90 days
51
SPO will file a copy of the SOCSS request in the member's PDR, section \_\_
section 2
52
SOCSS must be requested by what rank
E6 or above
53
Do not request a SOCSS completion status less than __ days of initial request
120 days
54
Application of Correction of Military Record
DD-149
55
DD-214 pay base date purposes (blocks)
blocks 12A and 12B
56
Interim PBD Adjustment
Member may get overpaid
57
Tie bar
3/16
58
Tie tack
3/4
59
Female over blouse bottom
shall not be visible
60
men's bulk of hair
1.5 inches
61
men's taper
.75 inches
62
French nails
white tip only; NTE 1/4 inches
63
wingless hair claw NTE __ inches in length and __ inched in width
3" length
1" width
64
women's hair bulk
3.5 inches
65
women's bun depth NTE
4 inches
66
braids/locks
0.5 inches with no more than 0.25 inches in between
67
Kodiak, AK homeported: WHEC, WMEC, WMSM
Sea Pay Level 5
68
TACLET
Sea Pay Level 3
69
EAGLE/PATFORSWA
Sea Pay Level 4
70
MAX TLE amount
$290
71
TLE days CONUS/OCONUS
10/5
72
Mutual tour length; min _ year/max __ years
1 year minimum
3 1/2 years max
73
Mutual; paygrade must be at least pay grade \_\_
E3
74
A School training request go to EPM\_\_?
EPM-2
75
Mutual; mbrs must have __ years of contract remaining
1 year
76
Mutual; must served __ months at current unit
06 months
77
Mutual requests are submitted to EPM\_\_?
EPM-2
78
HUMS TDY orders maximum of __ months
6 months
79
HUMS PCS orders maximum of __ years
2 years
80
Members advanced to pay grades E-7 through E-9 are required to obligate
for __ years of active duty
02 years
81
HUMS; MBRswho wish to extend their enlistment must route to EPM __ days prior to EOE
60 days
82
BAH Dependency Data Report, Form
CG-4170A
83
In charge of PCS assignments, non-rates, A-School
EPM-2
84
In charge of advancements, separations, retentions
EPM-1
85
In charge of EES
EPM-3
86
When doing mutual memo, Who does it need to go to?
EPM-2 thru current command and copy to new command.
87
Unilateral requests have a better chance of approval if they choose?
A district or general area
88
HUMS 3307
AT-02
89
Overseas 3307
AT-06
90
Icebreaker 3307
AT-04
91
Transfer to SELRES 3307
AT-10D
92
Transfer to IRR 3307
AT-10A
93
Chief E7-9 OBLISERV ADV 3307
AR-02
2 years OBLISERV
94
Reduction in rate 3307
AR-01
95
Withdrawal of ADV recommendation 3307
AR-04
96
Voluntary removal from CWO list 3307
AR-05
97
Voluntary Removal from CWO list -HARDSHIP 3307
AR-06
98
Voluntary removal from ADV list 3307
AR-07
99
Reduction in rate observation period complete 3307
AR-03
100
General Positive 3307
PD-06
101
General Negative 3307
PD-07
102
Weight probation 30 days extension 3307
PD-01A
103
Weight probation 6 months Abeyance 3307
PD-01B
104
Weight probation- semiannual 3307
PD-02
105
Weight Probation complete 3307
PD-03
106
Weigh probation non-semiannual 3307
PD-02A
107
Failed weight probation/NO PT 3307
PD-02
108
Weight separation 3307
PD-04
109
Alcohol/ Drug 3307
PD-13
110
Religious Accommodation 3307
PD-40
111
SRB 6/10 yr anniversary zone A&B 3307
SRB-02
112
SRB Zone A/B 3307
SRB-05
113
SRB Zone A/B near EAOS
SRB-01
114
Zone A SRB
17 months - 6 years
must OBLISERV for min 3 years
115
ZONE B SRB
6 years - 10 Years
must OBLISERV for min 3 years
116
Zone C SRB
10-14 years
must OBLISERV min of 3 years
117
Bonuses are taxed \_\_%
22% federal/state
118
Mbrs must contribute bonus monies to a TSP account not less than __ days prior to receipt of the bonus.
30 days
119
While in a leave status members may submit requests for a HUMS to their \_\_
district commander
120
Loco parentis; at least __ years before mbr became 21
5 years
121
Sick leave more than __ days must be reported
02 days
122
Sick leave cannot exceed __ days and is granted by \_\_
30 days
CO
123
Retain all original travel orders, claims, and receipts for __ years and __ months
6 years and 3 months
124
ADOS; SPO fwds PDR if mbr is __ days+ away from home unit
60 days
125
DEMOB; RVS must submit CIW __ days prior to RELAD
45 days
126
RVS are issued DD-214 if served on consecutive active duty for __ days
90 days
127
DD-214 copies __ and __ are given to mbr
1 & 4
128
RSV medical coverage begins __ days before activation date
180 days
129
RSV remains AD for more than __ days; family is entitled to __ days of TAMP
30 days/180 days
Transitional Assistance Medical Program
130
RSV on AD more than __ days must complete PHA __ days prior to RELAD
```
30 days
10 days (PHA)
```
131
If sick/injured, RSV complete LOD within __ days and submits to \_\_
3 days
PSC-RPM-3
132
Multiple IDT past ___ hour RSVs get lunch and supper
1800
133
Unsuitable for Special Duty 3307
AT-03
134
Acknowledgement of
Separation Pay & Recoupment from Retired Pay
SEP-21
135
If member is being discharged under other than honorable conditions 3307
SEP-27
136
Career Development W/S
CG-2030
137
SWE for RSVs
October
138
SED for May SWE
1 Feb exam year
139
SED for October SWE (RSV)
1 July exam year
140
SED for Nov SWE
1 August exam year
141
TED for May SWE
1 January following year
142
TED for OCT SWE (RSV)
1 January following year
143
TED for Nov SWE
1 July following year
144
Total score (SWE/points)
200
145
SWE points
80
146
EES/performance SWE points
50
147
TIS points
20
148
TIS- points per year
1
149
TIG
10
150
TIG- points per year
2
151
TIG- points per month
0.166
152
Awards
10
153
Sea/Surf
30
154
Approved points will be entered into DA with the code __ for 1 point
ZZSWE1
155
Approved points will be entered into DA with the code __ for 2 points
ZZSWE2
156
Sea points per year
2
157
Sea points per year on WSML
2.333
158
Surf points per year
1
159
Surf points per month
0.83
160
Surf points max
15
161
SED E5
10 months
162
SED E6
15 months
163
SED E7
26 months
164
E8 SED
28 months
165
Rates that require normal hearing
AST, DV, IS, OS, IV
166
Rates for color blind mbrs
DC, YN, PA, CS, MST, SK
167
EES E6 and below; greater than __ days
92 days
168
EES E7 and above; greater than __ days
184 days
169
Admiral O-10
ADM
170
Vice Admiral O-9
VADM
171
Rear Admiral upper half O-8
RADM
172
Rear Admiral lower half O-7
RDML
173
High priority correspondence has a __ business day turn around,
10
174
Routine and general public correspondence has a __ business day turn around.
15
175
Business letter date
April 12, 1987
176
SSIC code; look in the __ manual
Life Cycle M5212.12
177
Subject line __ words or less ALL CAPS
10 words
178
symbol __ lines below last paragraph
2 lines
179
Short Business letter; no more than __ lines or less than __ words
8 lines
100 words
180
Sincerely; __ line below the text and __ inch to the right center
second line
1/4
181
MEMO Date
12 Apr 1987
182
how many lines between Sincerely and Name block
4 lines
183
Date within content
12 April 1987
184
ADV from E2-E5 must serve __ months in current paygrade to adv
Six months
185
E6-E9 must serve __ months to adv
24 months
186
ADV from E5-E6; E5 must serve
12 months
187
The total of all extensions of an enlistment may not exceed __ years
six
188
WLI, WYTL, ATOs; Sea Pay Level
Level 1
189
Career Sea Pay Premium not payable to \_\_\_
E-1 to E-3 or O-1 to O-3
but time still counts
190
Sea Pay Premium pay begins 1st day of __ month
37th
191
Sea Pay Premium rate $\_\_
$100
192
Sea Pay; Day not counted for pay purposes ___ but it is when determining entitlement termination when TDY
31st
193
Career Sea Pay Premium is subject to Federal and State Tax-NOT subject to \_\_\_
FICA Tax
194
Special Duty pay; __ levels, multiple of \_\_
5 levels/ $75
195
Special duty pay while TDY to a non-special pay unitl is payable through the __ day.
90th
stops on 91st day
196
Special duty pay stop ___ when PCS
date prior of departure
197
While hospitalized, Special duty pay cannot exceed __ months
12
198
Foreign Language Proficiency Pay NTE
$1,000
199
FSA $
$250
200
FSSA $
$1,100
201
FSSA application submitted every __ days
30
202
PPC __ monitors your final AD pay
PPC (SEP)
203
Complete a CIW at least __ days before planned departure
60 days
204
Retirement and SBP form
DD-2656
205
Submit retirement form __ days before retirement date
90 days
206
Age __ MEDICARE becomes primary and TRICARE becomes secondary. Select MEDICARE Part \_\_
65
B
207
Retired Allotment Authorization form (optional)
CG-7221
208
SGLI coverage continues __ day after separation
120 days
209
Allotments are not authorized for
CFC
210
SBP annuity amount is \_\_% of the base amount
55%
211
The annuity would be paid to the spouse for life, unless the spouse remarries prior to age \_\_
55
212
SBP coverage is protected against inflation, as it is increased by \_\_\_
COLA
213
SBP premiums from retired pay to stop when the member becomes age __ or __ months of premium payments
```
age 70
360 months (30 years)
```
214
SBP cost must not exceed \_\_% of retired pay
40%
215
SBP can be revoked or changed between __ and __ anniversary
2nd and third
one year window
216
SBP; spouse must complete part \_\_
part V (5)
217
Firearms; __ cannot be shipped with HHG
ammunition
218
Boat; HHG __ ft or less
14 ft
219
Trailer; HHG no more than __ ft
12 ft
220
MBRs have __ years to complete a move after retirement
3 years
221
PPM reimbursement= \_\_%
100%
222
\_\_\_ leadership competencies
28
double check
223
A school checklist
CG 2001
224
Post-partum mbrs can defer TDY assignments up to __ months following birth event.
12 months
225
RSV authorized up to __ months deferment from involuntary mobilization
12 months
226
E4 & above with less than 8 years must OBLISERV __ years to PCS
2 years
227
E4 & above with over 8 years of active duty are considered to be in a \_\_
career status
only 1 yr OBLISERV for PCS
228
\_\_ decision authority for any request to change tour length table
CG-133
229
\_\_ will publish approved tour length tables
PSC-EPM-OPM
230
MBRs who RILO/SILO must retire/separate no later than \_\_
1 Aug
231
\_\_ in charge of enlisted/officer PCS
EPM-2/OPM-2
232
mbrs must decide within __ working days for RILO/SILO
5 working days
233
SELRES members requesting RILO must notify RPM-2 within __ days of orders
30 days
234
\_\_ may grant tour extensions
EPM/RPM
235
BAH Dependency Data Report, Form\_\_
CG-4170A
236
During __ months of child birth; women are not assigned to cutters or OCONUS billets
6 months
237
Pregnant women are reassigned the latest by __ week of pregnancy
20th week
238
A-school orders are on hold for pregnant women for __ months after child birth
12 months
239
Post-partum member may elect TDY or voluntary mobilization orders within the __ months following a birth event
12 months
240
Married couples are not assigned to units with less than __ mbrs
60
241
OBLISERV for PCS will be executed within __ working days
5 working days
242
MBRs projected to adv to E7 must submit an e-resume within __ days
30 days
243
Hereby Detached
24 hours
244
Detached on or about
within 20 days
245
Detached as directed /detached when relieved
10 days
246
Procced without delay
48 hours/ 2 days
247
Proceed immediately
12 hours
248
Proceed on or about
10 days
249
Effective date of orders
Actual report date, minus travel days used, plus one day
250
Sea duty (pay); cutter must be __ ft or longer or all tugs
65ft
251
Sea pay CAT; 87' WPB/ 110' WPB
SEA Pay 2
252
BAH Protection w/s \_\_; sent to \_\_
CG-2025A; sent to PSC-PSD-fs
253
Family Separation Housing Worksheet
(CG-7220)
254
Overseas screening begins within __ calendar days
15 calendar days
255
upon Overseas approval; mbr sign part\_\_ within __ days
part VI
2 calendar days
256
Overseas screening command endorsement on part \_\_
part IV
257
Overseas unit send back screening within __ calendar days
5 calendar days
258
Overseas unit signs part \_\_
part V
259
PATFORSWA sends screening NLT __ prior report date
6 months
260
MBR must OBLISERV __ months for overseas
12 months
261
Point start date for May SWE
2 FEB?
(1st day following SED)?
262
Retirement certificate request are sent to PPC\_\_
PPC-SEP
263
Presidential letters requests go to \_\_
EPM-1/OPM-1
264
Retirement certificates should be ordered __ days prior to ceremony
60 days
265
Allow __ days for Presidential letter processing
90 days
266
Retirement request MEMOS are sent to \_\_
EPM-1/OPM-1
267
Regular retirement window
1 May - 1 October
268
E2-E3 ADV cert
CG 5530
269
E4-E6 ADV cert
CG 216
270
ADV certs for E7-E9 are mailed by PPC ADV within __ working days after the ADV message
4 working days
after message
271
Dependency Support Statement
CG 2020A
272
Dependency Statement of Support for Full time Student
CG 2020B
273
BAH protection W/S
CG 2025A
274
BAH married M2M w/s
CG 2025B
275
Allotment worksheet
CG 2040
276
Max Allotments
14
277
\_\_ discretionary allotments
\_\_ non discretionary allotments
6 discretionary
8 nondiscretionary
278
Debt allotments are started by PPC with code \_\_
T
279
Reserve retirement transfer request w/s
CG 2055A
280
Retired w/pay code
RET-1
281
Retired awaiting pay code
RET-2
282
RSV retirement letter; ___ will notify rsv mbr within __ year
PPC-RAS
1 year
283
RSV mbr must make an RCSBP election within __ days upon letter
90 days
284
How many points for single/multiple IDT
1 point
2 points
285
How many points for ATP
1 point
286
How many points for RMP
1 point
287
How many points for FHD
1 point
288
How many points for membership
15 points
289
How many points for AD
1 point per day
290
Reserve points cannot exceed __ points per year or __ points per leap year
365
366
291
Retired due to disability code
RET-3
292
Retired with 20 years of active service code
RET-4
293
Retired due to voluntary separation incentive code
RET-5
294
Extraordinary Heroism increased retirement pay
10%
295
Awards requiring approval by the Coast Guard Military Board of Awards must be received by CG ___ at a minimum of __ days
PSC-PSD-ma
60 days
296
\_\_ and __ cannot be shipped with HHG
mini fridge and baby crib
297
Aviation service date begins\_\_
1st date of flight school
298
Aviation officer does not meet 4 hr flight per month; can roll over hours in the last __ months
5 months
299
Flight officer hospitalized; ACIP runs NTE __ months
3 months
300
Special duty pay cannot exceed __ months when hospitalized or missing
12 months
301
Special duty pay stops on the __ day of TDY
91st
302
Special duty pay stops __ when PCSing
stops 1 days prior of departure
303
General/Special Courts-Martial; Action date shall be __ days after the reported date
14 days
304
Yellow Ribbon Program (YRRP) to support Reservists and their families facing long-term deployments (\_\_ days or more)
90 days or more
305
Delay En Route ; Officers/Enlisted
20-Officers
60- Enlisted
306
Emergency leave; Officers/Enlisted
30-Officers
60-Enlisted
307
RSV on 30 days or more get what? RSMA/RBMA or SMA/BMA
SMA/BMA
308
Sick leave more than __ days must be reported
2 days
309
Sick leave cannot exceed \_\_
30 days
310
Emergency leave will commence on date of departing ___ CONUS
debarkation
311
Returning from emergency leave date of \_\_
embarkation
312
Non-Chargeable Rest & Recuperation leave
15 days
313
To receive non-chargeable rest & recuperation leave; you must serve on a land billet for __ months or \_\_days
12 months or 270 days
314
PDMRA; __ days per month earned. Must serve 30 days per month
2 days
315
Hostile Fire/Imminent Danger Area; Leave carry over
120 days
316
Ship or Aircraft; Leave carry over
60-120 days
317
A member on voluntary appellate leave is not entitled to __ or \_\_
Transportation/HHG
318
Maternity leave
84 days
319
Secondary caregiver
21 days
320
MBR must enroll child into DEERs within __ days of birth
30 days
321
Prenatal; __ days
30 days
322
SGLI advance payment?
8284
323
SGLI claim form?
8283/8283A
324
Minimum Temp SEP; __ months
MAX is __ years
6 months
3 years
325
Retirement OCONUS/CONUS
2 years OCONUS
1 year CONUS
326
Officers must submit a retirement letter __ years and __ months
2 years and 6 months
327
Intervention is considered but without high value placed on your own desires
Accommodating
328
The conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.
Competing
329
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
330
Steps of Risk Management
| (IADIS)
Identify Hazards
Assess Hazards
Develop Controls & Make Risk Decisions
Implement controls
Supervise and evaluate
331
What step of RM is STAAR
Step 3
Develop Controls
332
What does STAAR stand for
Spread out
Transfer
Avoid
Accept
Reduce
333
What step of RM is PEACE
Step 1
Identify Hazards
334
PEACE
Planning
Event Complexity
Asset Selection
Communications
Environmental Conditions
335
Records ideas in meetings; stays out of content discussion
Scribe
336
Captures info for non attendees at meetings
Recorder
337
What is another form of parking lot or board?
ISSUES, DECISIONS, ACTIONS (IDA)
338
When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility a _______ may be used
Thru Line
339
What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?
Plus/Delta
340
How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there?
4
341
Action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?
80 hours
342
Consensus discussions are part of what step in meeting evaluation?
Step 2
343
The round robin process is part of what step in meeting evaluation?
Step 1
344
Ground Rules established in step __ of Facilitate a meeting
step 3
345
There are __ items in an agenda
10
346
IDPs are conducted within __ days of new mbrs reporting
30 days
347
Appealing marks; Active Duty/Reservists
15 Calendar days-AD
45 Calendar days-RSV
348
AD MBRs must be counseled NLT __ days after the marking period
21 days
45 days for RSV
349
Supervisor routes EES NLT than __ days to Marking Official before the end of the period
9 days
350
Marking Official routes EES NLT __ to Approving Official after the end of the period
5 days
351
EES must be updated in Direct Access NLT __ days after marking period
30 days
| (mbrs who are within 1st 4 years)
352
End of marking period for E-7
September
353
End of marking period for E-8
February
354
End of marking period for E-9
June
355
Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days
Approving Official
356
Scholarships and school liaison programs within the Office of Work-Life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab?
Family Support
357
Office of Work-Life
CG-111
358
Suicide prevention steps and meaning
3 steps, ACE- Ask, Care, Escort
359
When can you make an unrestricted report of sexual assault?
Upon the 3rd party report
360
Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request?
Health promotion manager
361
The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
landscape
362
When would a reserve member be eligible for substance abuse screening?
On IDT or ADT drill status
363
What would be the minimum number of Victim Advocates assigned to a unit with 250 members?
2
364
Dismissing\_\_\_ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk
SUICIDAL IDEATIONS
365
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
366
Tuition Assistance questions can go to;
ETQC-SMB-TAG@uscg.mil
367
ETQC registrar services include;
JST, CST, ACE
368
Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT Waiver Request Guide be found?
ETQC; Voluntary Education Services; Course Support and Testing
369
The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the \_\_\_\_\_.
Forever GI Bill
370
The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to _____ months of education benefits
36 months
371
Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT & Apprenticeship Training programs receive _____ of the applicable Monthly Housing Stipend
100%
372
Program is to provide developmental incentives
Advanced Education
373
Subject Matter Experts
Rating Knowledge Manager
374
How many firearm safety rules
1. Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
2. Always maintain proper muzzle control
3. Keep the finger off the trigger until on target and ready to shoot
4. Know your target and what is beyond it
375
The _____ and ASVAB tests are different version of the same battery of tests
AFCT
Armed Forces Classification Test (AFCT)
376
ADV to E4/E5 withheld due to UNSAT must complete\_\_ months of SAT
6 months
377
\_\_ ratings; there is no direct path from E-3 to E-4
Investigator (IV) and Diver (DV)
378
List of striker rating found on \_\_\_
ALCOAST messages
379
Where are "A" school rating requirements listed?
Coast Guard PSC website
380
"Bad" stress?
Distress
381
"Good" stress
Eustress
382
The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor
Stress
383
A stress management tool
Stressmap
384
The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management.
Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)
385
Tool; Promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tolls to help build resilience of Sailors, families, and commands.
Operational Stress Control
386
How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?
CGSUPRT
387
Signals of Distress after a Critical Incident
5. Emotional Response; Cognitive Response; Behavioral Response; Physiological Response; Spiritual Distress Response
388
Intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?
Zero Tolerance
389
Zero drinks is the only option for someone diagnosed with severe \_\_\_
SUD
Substance Abuse Disorder
390
Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?
0,1,2,3 model
391
Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?
Rethinkingdrinking.gov
392
Binge drinking for men is \_\_drinks in __ hours
5 drinks/2hours
393
Binge drinking for women is __ drinks in __ hours
4 drinks/2 hours
394
Binge drinking BAC
0.08
395
"Sloppy Drunk"; double vision/staggering
0.16%
396
Stupor/Blackout, unable to walk, drunk
0.30%
397
Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is \_\_\_
Alcohol use disorder
398
Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks of drinking alcohol?
Women have less water in their bodies than men
399
What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?
1.5 ounces
400
How many grams of pure alcohol is in a "standard" drink?
14 grams alcohol
401
How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?
5 ounces wine
402
How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?
12 ounces beer
403
BAC percentage for a 150 pound male who consumed 3 oz. of 40% alcohol over one hour?
0.05%
404
BAC for DUI
0.08%
405
A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential _____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.
AUD
Alcohol Use Disorder
406
A member diagnosed within the first _____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abusive or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.
180
407
CG tobacco use statement
The use of any tobacco product in public detracts from a sharp military appearance and is discouraged.
408
Self-inflicted death with evidence, either explicit or implicit, of intent to die
Suicide
409
A self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior for which there is evidence, either implicit or explicit, that the person did not intend to kill himself/herself?
Suicide related behaviors
410
Any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence, either explicit or implicit, that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
411
Self-harm with no injury is reported as
Self Harm Level 1
412
Self-harm with injury is reported as
Self Harm Level 2
413
Self-harm with death is reported as
Self Harm Level 3
414
Complete Suicide-Related Behavior Incident Report
CG-1734
415
Any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide-Related Ideations
416
A self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior where
intent is unknown
Undetermined Suicide Related Behavior
417
Dismissing _____ as “manipulation” is one of the surest ways to increase suicide risk.
Suicidal ideations
418
In one survey, more than half of 26,000 students across 70 colleges and universities reported having at least one _____ at some point in their lives.
suicidal thinking
419
Any interpersonal acts of imparting, conveying, or transmitting suicide-related thoughts, wishes, desires, or intent; not to be construed as the actual self-inflicted behavior or injury known as?
Suicide Related Communications
420
Proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behavior.
Suicide Plan
421
Systematic formulation of a program of action that will potentially lead to suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
422
Mnemonic for recognizing warning signs and circumstances associated with suicidal behavior?
IS PATH WARM
423
IS PATH WARM
Ideation, Substance abuse, Purposelessness, Anxiety, Trapped, Hopelessness, Withdrawal, Anger, Recklessness, Mood Changes
424
\_\_\_\_\_ is not an easy thing to do, but it is essential for suicide prevention
Ask
425
What mnemonic is used as an aid for what to do when you suspect someone is thinking of suicide?
ACE
ASK, Care, Escort
426
During which step of suicide prevention may the at-risk member attempt to make a joke or attempt to deflect the direct question?
ASK, step 1
427
During the _____ step of suicide prevention you should actively listen.
Care, step 2
428
During which step of suicide prevention should you remove or take possession of any means that could be used for self-injury?
Escort, step 3
429
During which step of suicide prevention is it important to not promise confidentiality?
Escort, step 3
430
During which step of suicide prevention should you encourage the person to seek help?
Escort, step 3
431
You may express optimism that the person will be helped and will feel better if it seems appropriate and genuine during which step of suicide prevention?
Care, step 2
432
During which step in suicide prevention will you adopt an attitude that you are going to help the person, and that this will save his or her life?
Escort, step 3
433
If you ask a person "Are you thinking about killing yourself?" and they make a joke of the question, what should you do?
Ask again
434
Who can you contact to acquire contact information for specific sources of help for suicide prevention?
Regional Work-Life Office
435
Which form of birth control is both reversible and can be used as emergency contraception?
Copper IUD & Emergency contraceptive pill
436
STDs can be passed by __ but not common
Heavy petting
437
Which is the most reliable way to avoid STD infection?
Abstinence
438
Personal Fitness Plans, Form and when are they due
CG-6049
April & October. EVERYONE has to do it!
Submit to supervisor.
439
Moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week?
150 minutes of aerobic activity (2 hours/30mins)
Moderate
440
Muscle-strengthening activities for a minimum of how many days per week?
2 or more days per week
441
All active duty members must engage in fitness activity as outlined in their Personal Fitness Plan a minimum of _____ per week.
180 minutes
442
It is strongly recommended that the fitness plan include __ minutes of
cardiorespiratory activity
150 minutes
443
It is strongly recommended that the Personal Fitness Plan include _____ minutes per week of strength training.
30 minutes
444
Effects of physical activity are cumulative, exercise sessions may vary in length, with a minimum of _____ minutes, in order to be beneficial.
10 minutes
445
In general, physical activity sessions should be spread out over at least how many days per week?
3 days
446
Physical activity should produce a training effect, as measured by a \_\_level of intensity
medium to vigorous
447
The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the expected \_\_
Risk exposure
448
What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?
PEACE & STAAR (GAR 2.0)
449
Since all Coast Guard missions and operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the Risk Management process is \_\_\_\_\_.
continuous and adaptive
450
Where are the steps of Risk Management (RM) described?
Risk Management Fundamentals
451
What are units encouraged to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as-needed-basis, when new missions/activities are introduced to the unit?
RAM (Risk, Assessment, Matrix)
452
What is a function of physiological and psychological factors that support the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?
RFA (Risk Factor Assessment)
453
\_\_\_\_\_ is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
Risk
454
\_\_\_\_\_ is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity.
Risk Management
455
How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
3. Assess exposure, severity, & probability
456
Which is an action taken during the first step in the Risk Management (RM) process?
Identify Hazards
457
What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?
PEACE/STAAR analyses
458
What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?
PEACE model
459
What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?
GAR 2.0 (PEACE/STAAR)
460
At a minimum, units must include all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?
PEACE
461
What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?
STAAR
462
Real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?
GAR 2.0
463
Be aware of assigning driving duties for MBRs who have been on duty for the past __ hours
8 hours
464
MBRs must not exceed __ hours of driving plus duty
14 hours
465
The Coast Guard Employee Hazard Report Form
CG-4903
466
Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV, must \_\_\_\_\_.
complete a driving improvement course
467
The process (or steps) involved in managing one's personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments, for an individual or family?
Personal Financial Management
468
Prudent day-to-day management
of personal finances.
Personal Financial Readiness
469
The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?
7
470
Commands with at least _____ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist
25
471
What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?
10%
before age 55
472
The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into _____ categories, based on level of compliance.
3
473
If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the _____ icon in the top-right corner of the "Skills" Tab
blue "get more information" (i)
474
A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins \_\_\_\_\_.
The day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsatisfactory conduct mark was awarded. OR
date of release from confinement
475
The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report \_\_\_\_\_.
may not be appealed
476
Who is the appeal authority
First Flag Officer
477
Successful in establishing an active two-way
link with another individual or group.
Effective Communication
478
What are the common barriers to effective communication?
Physical/Distance, Ambient Noise, Distracting Movement, & Language
479
Four Types of Listening
Inactive, Active, Selective, Reflective
480
There are __ Leadership competencies
28
481
Mbrs who RILO must retire NLT
1 August
482
Mbrs must decide to accept orders or SILO withing ___ working days
5
483
How many responsibility levels in each leadership component
5
484
The ability to influence others to obtain their obedience, respect, confidence, and loyal cooperation
Leadership
485
What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?
Date of Birth
486
In which section of your payslip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?
Middle section
487
What information is found in the Net Pay Distribution block of the payslip?
Direct deposit information
488
Which section of the payslip will show information unique to each member?
Remarks
489
You will not render a salute if the person to be saluted does not approach within _____ paces.
6 paces
490
Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?
Commanding Officers and officers senior to the CO, visiting officers, officers making inspections
491
Salute officers of \_\_\_
Armed forces, National Oceanic & Atmospheric Administration, public health service and foreign armed services
492
TAX Data and marital status found in section __ of pay slip
Section 1
493
The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has _____ articles.
6 articles
494
All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct \_\_\_\_\_.
while in combat or in captivity
495
The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?
Two.
Bulletins and Alerts
496
Which FPCON applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists?
BRAVO
497
Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?
BRAVO; Measure 14
498
Which FPCON applies when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture?
NORMAL
499
Which FPCON requires that the implemented security measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely?
ALPHA
500
Which FPCON requires weapons to be issued to guards?
CHARLIE; Measure 35
501
Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?
Stearns Model I600 (Standard Navy)
502
Two types of boat frames
Transverse & Longitudinal
503
Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?
1/4 inch
504
Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?
Cannot extend below the top of the
upper lip or beyond the corners of the mouth
505
Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for personnel
Commanding Officers or Officers-in-Charge
506
Coast Guard birthday
04 August 1790
507
The Revenue Cutter Service began with _____ cutters at a cost of $1000 each
10
508
In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve over the next several decades into what agency?
Steamboat Inspection Service
509
The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _____ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.
1831
510
The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?
28 January 1915
511
United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?
01 April 1967
512
United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?
01 March 2003
513
Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first \_\_\_\_\_.
Secretary of Treasury
514
Who was the Coast Guard's first aviator?
LT Elmer Stone
515
Who was the first Commandant of the United States Coast Guard?
Ellsworth Prince Bertholf
516
On June 19, 1911, Ellsworth Price Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the \_\_\_\_\_.
Revenue Cutter Service
517
Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1942?
Douglas Munro
518
Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?
Point Cruz, Guadalcanal
519
SM1 Douglas Munro was in charge of 24 Higgins boats during an amphibious invasion at Point Cruz, \_\_\_\_\_.
WWII
520
What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?
USRC Harriet Lane
521
The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _____ during World War I.
German U-boat torpedo
522
An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish _____ duties for the United States Coast Guard.
Captain of the Port
523
Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the United States Coast Guard during which military conflict?
WWI
524
During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?
6
525
During WWII, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
526
Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.
Captain Quentin R. Walsh
527
During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted \_\_\_\_\_, which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the Viet Cong
Operation Market Time
528
During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam to support maritime interdiction operations?
26
529
Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991.
Persian Gulf
530
In which year did the United States Coast Guard conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurrican Katrina?
2005 Aug 29
531
The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since World War II, following \_\_\_\_\_.
World Trade Center attack 9/11/01
532
In 2010, United States Coast Guard reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for _____ days
87 days
533
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?
Bronze Star with Combat “V”
534
Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT (PC 10) in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?
DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal
535
How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?
26
536
The Coast Guard Ensign consists of _____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white.
16
537
The _____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws.
Coast Guard Ensign
538
The _____ provided a symbol of authority on Revenue Cutters, as neither officer nor crew had uniforms.
Coast Guard Ensign
539
The _____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters
Coast Guard Ensign
540
On 1 August 1799, Secretary of the Treasury, Oliver Wolcott, issued an order specifying the design of the \_\_\_\_\_.
Coast Guard Ensign
541
During parades and ceremonies, the Coast Guard Standard is adorned with \_\_\_\_\_.
43 battle streamers
542
The design of the _____ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack.
Coast Guard Standard
543
The _____ is the upper left corner of the Coast Guard Ensign
Union Jack
544
This flag is used during parades and ceremonies
Coast Guard Standard
545
What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?
Battle streamers
546
Battle streamers are attached to the \_\_\_\_\_, replacing cords and tassels
Coast Guard Standard
547
Individual units may only display those _____ that they have earned
battle streamers
548
Only _____ may display a complete set of battle streamers
Major Headquarters
549
The United States Coast Guard adopted battle streamers in 1968, following the practice established by the \_\_\_\_\_.
Marines
550
The United States Coast Guard is authorized a total of _____ battle streamers.
43
551
The _____ is flown on the bow of a vessel, only while at anchor or moored in port
Union Jack
552
The _____ is the canton of the United States Flag
Union Jack
553
The presence of the _____ indicates that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.
Commissioning Pennant
554
The _____ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings
CG Seal
555
The _____ is used on official documents and records of the Coast Guard
CG Seal
556
The first Coast Guard Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in \_\_\_\_\_.
1927
557
The Coast Guard _____ was ordered to be used on the Coast Guard Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.
CG Emblem
558
The historical significance of the Coast Guard _____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service.
CG Shiled
559
When was the Coast Guard Motto adopted?
Between October 1896 and May 1897
560
The earliest recorded use of the phrase “Semper Paratus” appeared in a newspaper article in the city of \_\_\_\_\_, praising the Revenue Cutter Ingham
New Orleans
561
What language did Semper Paratus originate from?
Latin
562
The music for Semper Paratus was written by \_\_\_\_\_.
Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck
563
What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAZMAT?
SDS
Safety Data Sheets
564
If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?
Manufacturer or supplier
565
The standard GHS format for a safety data sheet includes _____ sections, in a specified order.
16
566
Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container. As a result, you must consult the _____ to prevent improper use or handling
Precautionary statement
567
GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of \_\_\_\_\_.
hazard information
568
What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?
4 years & retire after.
569
Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOCG and MCPO-CGR?
O-6 or higher
570
Your _____ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program and scholarships
Family Resource Specialist or Regional work life staff
571
Form for Family medical Special Needs Program (SNP)?
DD 2792
572
One purpose of the _____ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment.
FAP
Family Advocacy Program
573
Members can call _____ 24 hours a day, 365 days a year, to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor
EAP contractor
1-800-222-0364
574
Appeal marks within __ days
15 (AD)/45(RSV)
575
Last day of the marking period; E1-E2
January & July
576
Last day of the marking period; E3
February &August
577
Last day of the marking period; E4
March & September
578
Last day of the marking period; E5
April & October
579
Evaluee must provide supporting docs __ days prior to the end of the marking period
14 days
580
The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ____ days after the evaluation report period ending date
5 days
581
The supervisor routes marks to marking official NLT __ days prior to the end of the marking period
9 days
582
What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?
Conduct
583
What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the Coast Guard evaluates its enlisted members called?
Competencies
584
How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?
4
585
Which factor type in the EER measures the member's ability to bring credit to the Coast Guard through personal demeanor and professional actions?
Military
586
Which factor type in the EER measures a member's ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support others performing work?
Leadership
587
Performance Standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of _____ in each competency.
2, 4, or 6
588
Enlisted Evaluation Report Form
CG-3788 (A-G)
589
Coercing or encouraging another member to fully or partially disrobe is an example of \_\_\_\_\_.
Hazing
590
Which directive requires a commanding officer to "prohibit unit introductory initiations or hazing of personnel"?
United States Coast Guard Regulations 1992, COMDTINST M5000.3
591
If a person knowingly and voluntarily submits to hazing, \_\_\_\_.
Implied Consent
592
A romantic relationship involving a former recruiter and a prospective member are prohibited until what point?
After 365 days
593
Violating policy on limited personal use of government office equipment and services is punishable under which article of the UCMJ?
Article 92
594
What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?
$10
595
(PDE), award points are earned up to what point?
SED (SWE Eligibility Date)
596
(PDE), Time in Rating (TIR) and Time in Service (TIS) are computed up to what point?
SED (SWE Eligibility Date)
597
Sea Time points
2 points per year; or 0.166 points per month
598
Surf Time Points
1 point per year; or 0.083 per month
599
Members assigned PCS on National Security Cutters (WMLS) on or after 1 January 2016 will receive credit for each full month of sea duty, not to exceed \_\_\_points per year.
2.333
600
(PDE) you will receive credit for all sea/surf/award points for your first advancement on or after what date?
1JAN2010
601
What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eResume?
Click Return to previous page
602
Once you have chosen all desired Job Basket boxes for an eResume, what should be your next step?
Check Job Basket box; Click Save to Job Basket
603
You have submitted an eResume but immediately notice that the Job Ranking Preferences are incorrect. How should you make corrections?
Update next day
604
You have submitted an incorrect eResume in Direct Access (DA). What can you do to delete your eResume?
Cannot delete
605
Individual Development Plan (IDP) form
CG 5357
606
A tool to facilitate a conversation that the supervisor, and mentor if desired, uses to discuss professional and personal goals
IDP
Individual Development Plan
607
A first term enlisted member's Individual Development Plan (IDP) must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within _____ days of reporting to the unit.
30 days
608
What does the Risk Management (RM) process rely on to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage potential hazards?
Effective teamwork and communication
609
(RM) process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?
PEACE model
610
How is risk defined within Risk Management (RM)?
The possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard.
611
Develop Controls is the first action in which step of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Step 3
612
Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the _____ approach.
Transfer
| (STAAR Model)
613
In the first step of the Risk Management Process Cycle, "Why" analysis is used in which action?
Action 3
614
Which of the following is the foundation of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Identify Hazards
615
The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?
Spread Out
| (STAAR)
616
What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task in a different way?
Avoid
617
Within the Risk Management (RM) process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?
Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions
618
What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?
STAAR
619
STAAR means
Spread out, Transfer, Avoid, Accept, Reduce
620
What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for Risk Management (RM) controls?
First use design and engineering solutions to achieve minimum risks
621
In which step of the Risk Management Process Cycle does a member establish accountability?
Step 4/Implement Control; Action 2
622
Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the Risk Management (RM) process?
Make Implementation Clear, Establish Accountability, Provide Support
623
Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?
Step 3
624
How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?
3 Actions
625
In step 5 of the RM process, ensure changes requiring further RM are identified, is part of which action?
Action 1; Monitor
626
In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?
Feedback
627
Coast Guard leaders communicate effectively in which of the following ways?
Formal and Informal settings
628
The anticipated level of expertise for first-line supervisors for the effective communications leadership competency includes which of the following?
Writes succinctly and produces written materials that are clear and articulate. Listens attentively. Observes body language.
629
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in Influencing Others?
Gains cooperation, while showing respectful understanding of others’ positions.
630
What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a senior manager in Influencing Others?
Influences others deftly and fosters understanding of USCG missions. Develops alliances w/others & finds common ground. Facilitates win-win situations.
631
Which element of successful leaders is associated with the leadership competency "Taking Care of People"?
Leading Others
632
Which leadership competency is being displayed by a First-Line Supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thoughtful advice?
Leading Others-Mentoring
633
What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?
Define Conflict
634
What is the third stage of conflict?
Escalation
635
What is the first stage of conflict escalation?
Disagreement
636
Which stage of conflict escalation is the point of contention where a peer-to-peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive?
Stage 3
637
Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?
Stage 4
De-escalation
638
The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is \_\_\_\_\_.
Collaborating
(High-Cooperativeness/Assertiveness
639
In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires.
Competing
640
In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.
Accommodating
641
In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want.
Compromising
642
What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?
Facilitate
643
The service stripe is placed at a ______ angle on the SDB jacket.
45 degrees
644
What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4-E6
Scarlet
645
What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E7
Gold
646
What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?
Double Windsor
647
When wearing the women’s overblouse with the Service Dress Blue (SDB), the bottom of the overblouse shall \_\_\_\_\_.
not be visible
648
What does the women's long sleeve light blue shirt have?
Fly front covering the bottom closure, a soft stand-up collar with stays, two button cuff closure, shoulder epaulets, a pleated patch pocket with button flap closure on each front panel.
649
What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?
Sleeves may be shortened, altered to provide athletic fit.
650
Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?
Synthetic moisture wicking t-shirts
651
What is required for wear with all uniforms?
Headgear
652
What shirt(s) are women authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform?
Women’s shirt, Overblouse, or men’s shirt.
653
When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS) uniform, men are required to wear \_\_\_\_\_.
Black Oxford shoes
654
When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve (TBSS), what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?
Pumps or flats
655
What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Combination or Garrison cap
656
What is not authorized to wear with the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform?
Ribbons
657
Oxfords are not authorized \_\_\_\_\_.
with skirt
658
The women's shirt and women's slacks align with the belt so that the \_\_\_\_\_.
belt clip faces to the right
659
In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the \_\_\_\_\_.
fly
660
Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?
AF Skirt
661
What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?
Black, Navy blue; gold or silver wire
662
You can wear a maximum of _____ ring(s) per hand.
one ring
663
Prohibited watch color?
Diamond covered, neon, white and bright colors.
664
Engagement/wedding ring sets or _____ are counted as one ring
class ring sets
665
According to COMDTINST M1020.6K, fitness trackers are \_\_\_\_\_.
watches
666
COMDTINST 1020.6K stipulates that _____ rings are not authorized.
thumb rings
667
Which is correct for the insignia on the garrison cover when worn by an enlisted member?
E1-E3 wear 1 inch insignias
E7-E9 wear 1 & 3/8 inch anchors
insignia is 1&1/2 inch up and 2 inches to right
668
E7-E10 ball cap insignia
1.25 inches
669
While wearing the Light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges & \_\_\_\_\_.
center of device is one inch and parallel from the leading edge
670
When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s left pocket.
Minatare devices
671
When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve (TBLS) uniform, _____ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket.
Qualification insignia and name tag
672
CG Military Medals and Awards manual
M1650.25E
673
Which award has the highest precedence?
Medal of Honor
674
Which of the following awards would be excluded if you wanted to wear the highest three?
•Humanitarian Service Medal Ribbon
•Coast Guard Arctic Service Medal Ribbon
•Sea Service Ribbon
•National Defense Service Medal
•Commandant’s Letter of Commendation Ribbon
Commandant's Letter of Commendation
National Defense Ribbon
Coast Guard Artic Service Medal Ribbon
675
What level of compliance does a yellow color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Compliant; approaching limits of standard
676
What level of compliance does an orange color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Non-Compliant; Not currently compliant
677
What level of compliance does a green color indicator within CGBI indicate?
Compliant; within standard
678
\_\_\_\_\_ are just one of the tools to assure compliance and to keep the workplace free of serious recognized hazards.
Unit Workplace inspection
679
How long must CG-113 assurance assessments be retained?
Until deficiencies have been corrected & for at least 5 years following the end of the calendar year
680
What is the minimum frequency for formal occupational safety and environmental health inspections for all work spaces?
Annually
681
The purpose of form CG-4903 is to \_\_\_\_\_.
Anonymously report hazards
682
How many Administrative remarks entry types are there?
9
683
A member has requested to be removed voluntarily from the advancement list. Which CG-3307 template would you use?
AR-07
684
3307 inappropriate relationships. Which template would you use?
PD-12
685
Which template would you use to prepare a General Negative CG-3307?
PD-07
686
If a member is not available for signature on a CG-3307, you should
State the reason
687
What should you do if a member refuses to sign a CG-3307?
Write "member refuse to sign" and date
688
Where are copies of all form CG-3307 sent for electronic imaging into the EI-PDR?
PSC-BOPS-MR
689
What is the Thomas-Kilmann definition for conflict?
“Any situation in which your concerns or desires differ from those of another person.”
690
What stage of conflict is it when members actually make overt communications in an attempt to convince the other party of a better solution?
Stage 2
691
In which stage of conflict should peers look for assistance in managing the conflict or look to using a tool for reaching and addressing the concerns of the parties?
Stage 3; Escalation
692
What is the final stage of conflict?
Stage 5; Resolution
693
How many stages are there in conflict?
5 stages
694
When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility, _____ lines may be used.
Thru lines
695
What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both within the Coast Guard and within the framework of the Federal Government?
CG Memorandum
696
Where is the SSIC placed on a memorandum?
right side above the date
697
SSIC can be found in what manual
Life Cycle Manual
698
Where does the signing official place his/her signature on a memorandum?
From line
699
Every memorandum must include a \_\_\_\_\_.
date
700
What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?
Endorsements
701
Where is # placed to indicate the end of the memorandum?
centered two lines below the last paragraph
702
Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memorandum be found?
Standard Distribution List
703
During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?
Scribe
704
During a meeting, who has responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non-attendees can follow the group's train of thought?
Recorder
705
What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting?
Gives input, listens, uses good team process skills
706
What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?
Timekeeper, Scribe, Recorder, Co-Facilitator, Participant, Subject Matt Expert
707
Time spent planning your meeting will ensure \_\_\_\_\_.
better outcome
708
Which step of meeting facilitation are ground rules established?
Step 3
709
Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run, and how decisions will be made?
Step 3- Ground Rules
710
When should the parking lot items from a meeting be discussed?
End of the session
711
What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?
Place where important but not relevant topics are posted.
712
What is another form of parking lot or board?
IDA
Issues, Decisions, Actions
713
Action plans should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?
80 hours
714
Consensus discussions are part of what step in facilitating a meeting?
Evaluate
715
The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facilitation?
Evaluate
716
What type of meeting evaluation process involves making a chart?
Plus/delta
717
How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there during the Evaluate the Meeting phase?
4
718
Who has appeal authority for evaluation report?
First Flag Officer
719
Within the EES, each competency is defined in terms of _____ performance standards
three
| (low, middle, high)
720
Who is responsible for timely processing of an EER so that it may be reviewed by an evaluee no later than 30 days following the report period?
Approving Official
721
How well the supervisor clearly communicates the member’s past performance and methods in which to improve are primary to \_\_\_\_\_.
ensuring future success
722
Ensure counseling reports are completed and signed NLT __ days for enlisted/\_\_ days for reservists
21 days enlisted
45 days reservists
723
An Individual Development Plan (IDP) is mandatory for \_\_\_\_\_.
First term enlisted members and junior officers
724
Supervisors conduct the first formal IDP review and counseling session within _____ days of reporting.
30 days
725
An Individual Development Plan is \_\_\_\_\_.
A tool to facilitate a conversation that the
supervisor, and mentor if desired, uses to discuss professional and personal goals
726
Where is IDP counseling documented?
Kept by supervisor and documented at the unit level
727
As a general rule, military members are not entitled to \_\_\_\_\_.
Cash awards, gratuities, gift certificates, or coupons
728
The individual citation for the Meritorious Service Medal and below (not including the LOC) will be prepared \_\_\_\_\_.
“Landscape” orientation
one-inch side and top margins, and at least a two-inch bottom margin where a gold seal, two inches in diameter
729
Requests for exceptions to policy for awards will be \_\_\_\_\_.
a MEMO sent to CG PSC-PSD-ma
730
Which enclosure can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member?
Enclosure 24
731
Awards Manual #
M 1650.25E
732
Which mobile app can you refer members to for information about the Coast Guard support programs and services to members and their families?
Espyr
733
Which mobile app can be used to find a unit Ombudsman using the “Ombudsman Locator” feature?
HSWL mobile app
734
Which Office of Work-Life program is responsible for ensuring that necessary financial information and resources are available to Coast Guard personnel and their family members?
PFMP
Personal Finance Management Program
735
Where can you access a comprehensive list of recovery assistance resources for sexual assault survivors?
SAPRR
Sexual Assault Prevention Response and Recovery
736
Where can you print the two-page document from Office of Work-Life Programs, Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) to provide financial counselling resources?
CGMA
737
Which Office of Work-Life Program can you refer members to who are seeking a business opportunity for their spouse by providing child care in a home environment?
Spouse employment program
738
At which Office of Work-Life Program site can you find a list of EAPCs?
CG-111
Employee Assistance Program
739
Which Health, Safety, and Work-Life staff has the overall objective to support the well-being of active duty, reserve and civilian employees and family members?
MWR
740
Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers information on psychological first aid?
CISR
Critical Incident Stress Response
741
Which Office of Work-Life Program site allows you to download the ACE card?
Suicide Prevention Program
742
Which Work-Life Program site offers a link to download parental leave policy flyers?
Parent Resources
743
Where can you find information on the Ombudsman Program, which has served as a vital link between the Coast Guard commands and families?
Work-life CG-111
744
What is the purpose of the Sea Legs, found at the Work-Life site?
Supports smooth transition into military life.
745
What is the purpose of the Critical Incident Stress Response (CISR) program?
Intended to help individuals exposed to critical incidents to identify and cope with their responses to these events. The focus of CISM is to provide “psychological first aid”
746
What is the National Suicide Prevention Lifeline number?
1-800-273-TALK (8255).
747
What is the telephone number for the SAPS Duty Line?
757-628-4329
748
What acronym should you use to respond to a member who is contemplating suicide?
ACE
749
What are members of the Substance Abuse Prevention Team called?
Substance Abuse Prevention Specialist
SAPS
750
What is the objective of the Work-Life Subsistence Program?
Provides guidance to CSs on how to provide nutritious, well-balanced meals to all authorized personnel to enable mission execution.
751
Scholarships and school liaison programs within the Office of Work-Life (CG-111) are located under which dropdown tab?
Family Support
752
Discussions of individual personal finances with a Personal Financial Manager (PFM) are \_\_\_\_\_.
Confidential
753
You can download a PDF version to provide members with the SAPRR program's "How Do I report a Sexual Assault?" from what source?
CG-114
Sexual Assault Prevention Response & Recovery
754
What program can you refer members to improve communications between the command and Coast Guard family members?
Ombudsman
755
Where can you refer members for information about child care?
Child Development Services
756
How can you view information for Nicotine Replacement Therapy (NRT) provided to TRICARE beneficiaries?
Tobacco Cessation Program
TRICARE Website
Tricare.mil/quittobacco
757
How can you find answers about how ALCOAST 292 changed reporting requirements?
CG114
Sexual Assault Prevention Response & Recovery
758
Which Office of Work-Life Program site offers the Coast Guard Nutrition Video Series by LCDR Trocchio?
Personal Wellness
759
The Unit Health Promotion Resources site provides a link to which directive, which includes physical fitness responsibilities for all CG AD and SELRES personnel?
CG Health Promotion Manual
760
Tobacco Cessation services available at what web site?
YCQ2.org
you can quit 2
761
Who can offer unit-wide tobacco cessation education and training upon request?
Health Promotion Manager
762
How can you access tobacco cessation resources available through EAP?
CGSUPRT.com
YouCanQuit2.ORG
763
Within 1 year of quitting smoking, risk of heart disease is reduced by \_\_%
50%
764
Within __ years of quitting smoking, cancers or cancer is reduced
10-15 years
765
It is Coast Guard policy to _____ tobacco products
discourage
766
What would be the minimum number of Victim Advocates assigned to a unit with 250 members?
three
767
"Sexual assault" is defined as \_\_\_\_\_, characterized by use of force, threats, intimidation, abuse of authority, or when the victim does not or cannot consent.
intentional sexual contact
768
Bonuses are taxed \_\_%
22%
769
In a mutual request, how many sets of marks are needed?
past 2 sets
770
If mbr OCONUS and wanna do a TEMPSEP, how much time they have to have at that unit before they can?
2 years
771
What reimbursable is not authorized for TDY?
Laundry
772
Manual for mutual transfers
10008
773
Intervention is considered but without high value placed on your own desires?
Accommodating
774
Expediting conflict?
Competing
775
Expediting conflict?
Competing
776
Who records the information in a meeting?
Scribe
777
Who records the information in a meeting?
Scribe
778
Used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity. GAR 2.0
PEACE
planning, event complexity, asset, communications, environment
779
outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk.
STAAR
spread out, transfer, avoid, accept, reduce
780
Landlord foreclosed on, what is member NOT entitled to?
SIT
781
SIMPLE
Salutation, inquire, meaningful, paraphrase, listen, expectations
782
SIMPLE
Salutation, inquire, meaningful, paraphrase, listen, expectations
783
PCS Per Diem
$155
784
PCS Per Diem
$155
785
PPM reimbursement
100%
786
Max weight for shipping POV
20 tons
787
CPO/SCPO/MCPO ADVANCEMENT CERTIFICATES
PPC ADV
788
MAX TLA days
60
789
Liquidation period for advance pay
1-12 months; CO can approve 24 months max
790
Liquidation period for advance pay
1-12 months; CO can approve 24 months max
791
RSV; Advance pay is authorized when ordered to active duty for more than ___ days
140 days
792
Advance pay is authorized within ___ days of departure from OLD PDS and within ___ days upon arrival of new unit
30 (90 max with CO approval)
60 (180 max with CO approval)
793
Who can approve liquidation for over than 12 months
CO
794
Who can approve liquidation for over than 12 months
CO
795
Advance BAH months
3 months
796
DITY move counseling checklist
DD-2278
797
Admin correspondence with audit from GAO?
Keep 5 years then destroy
798
Admin correspondence with audit from GAO?
Keep 5 years then destroy
799
Waiver application
CG 5489-2
800
CO of unit sends remission application to PPC (mas) within __ working days
05 working days
801
MBRs on cutters __ ft or larger may submit request suspension of collections within __ days to PPC
210'
60 days
802
Waiver application (CG 5489-2) claims exceeding \_\_\_
$10,000
803
Waiver application (CG 5489-2) claims exceeding \_\_\_
$10,000
804
Dependency w/s support statement (21yo)
CG 2020A
805
Application for correction of military records
(PRRB Application); must be recieved within __ year
DD 149
1 year
806
PRRB will consist of at least ___ members
three ad hoc
807
PRRB will consist of at least ___ members
three ad hoc
808
An application for review of a discharge must be received by the DRB within\_\_ years of the date the former member was separated from the Coast Guard.
15 years
809
The normal filing limit for applications to the BCMR is __ years from the date of discovery
3 years
810
If memo endorsement is time sensitive, where do you send copies?
Originator and all Thru people
811
Administrative discharge board mbrs; how many?
Ranks?
Three. CDR, and one commissioned officer and one senior enlisted.
812
Administrative discharge board mbrs; how many?
Ranks?
Three. CDR, and one commissioned officer and one senior enlisted.
813
MBRs with service __ years or more are entitled to an administrative discharge board
8 years or more
814
An officer being separated shall schedule any necessary physical examination so it is
completed at least __ days before the effective date of separation
60 days
815
If an officer has had a physical examination within __ of separation or release, a physical examination is not required before separation
one year
816
All physical examinations for separations are good for __ months
12 months
817
Physical examinations are documented on SF __ and sent to PSD-mr
88
818
Members being discharged for enlistment expiration or being released from active duty, the physical examination shall be given at least ___ before separation from active duty.
six months
819
Sign form __ disagreeing or agreeing to findings of separation examination
CG-4057
820
When cancelling separation orders, mbr must stay active for __ years; must be submitted __ months prior
2 years;
3 months prior
821
Retirement administrative absence used in what order?
Permissive duty- 20/30
Processing Point-12-15 working days
Terminal Leave
822
RSV; within __ days of receipt of your 20-year letter, you MUST make an election concerning RCSBP. If not, auto enrollment in option \_\_
90 days;
Option C
823
SBP annuity
55%
824
SBP coverage is protected against inflation, as it is increased by any ___ Adjustments.
COLA
825
If your spouse remarries before age \_\_, the monthly SBP annuity will be
stopped.
55
826
3307; Weight probation NON-SEMI ANNUAL
P&D 02A
827
3307; Weight probation - SEMI annual
P&D 02
828
3307; Weight probation met
P&D 03
829
Reserve officer points; good standing
50 points
830
Reserve good conduct points
70 points
831
Point start date for May/Nov SWE
First day after the SWE Eligibility date
2FEB/2AUG
832
When should a SOCS be requested for a RSV going on EAD
MBR has more than 15 years of service
833
What are the two tabs on the ASQ
Questionnaire & Occupational Data
834
ASQ must be completed from __ to \_\_
1 August - 31 October
835
RILO no later than \_\_
1 August
836
OCONUS retirement; if mbr is within __ months of rotation, retain and later transfer to nearest debarkation
6 months
837
How many types of Mobilizations
4
Full, Partial, Presidential recall, Domestic response
838
Short/Long term ADOS
less than 180 days -short
more than 180 days - long
839
PSC-RPM required \_\_working days to process all
types of RMP requests.
10 working days
840
RMP with pay is not authorized for what?
Retirement seminar
841
Reservists exempt from 60 day leave rule when EAD how many days or less?
365
842
Reserves are entitled to subsistence allowance when doing what?
COR
843
Authorized knot for Tie
Double Windsor
844
How many hours is a multiple IDT?
8 hours
845
If a memo is 2 or more pages, what must appear on all pages?
Subject line, date, and SSIC
846
What is a suspense copy of correspondence?
Non-record material
847
A member must sign a SRB 3307 if they are __ years or less?
10
848
What is not on a PCS reporting worksheet?
Member’s medical record
849
When does the CO not complete an advancement checklist?
When member is advanced via EPAA
850
Where do you send 2020D?
PSC-PSD-MR
851
Where is the NTS kept when member goes to “A” school?
Current PDS location NTS
852
When mbr transfers, how long does SPO have to mail out PDR?
5 working days
853
SBP payments are no longer required when a member reaches 70 years old or?
Make 30 years of payments
854
When does emergency leave begin?
Port of debarkation INCONUS
855
When is leave paid out?
First regular end month payment
856
How many years of service is max where you cannot request CIR?
5 years
857
If at a C school and fail weigh in, what happens?
MBR continues training but no credit until within compliance
858
When assigned diving duty, mbr can be paid diving duty and how many hazard pays?
2
859
How long is the tour for an officer at a land unit at Dutch Harbor if they don’t extend?
1 year
860
How many days after report will PPC recoup travel advance?
30
861
How many IRR TRAPAY categories?
4- JEPH
862
TRAPAY category for prior enlisted?
C
863
How long can ADOS orders be requested for?
12 months
864
Full mobilization; duration of war or emergency and for __ months thereafter
6 months
865
Partial Mobilization; no more than __ months
24 months
866
Presidential Recall; no more than __ consecutive days
365
867
Domestic Response; no more than __ days in __ months or \_\_days in __ years
60 days in 4 months
120 days in 2 years
868
The Commandant can direct a member who has at least how much time left on their contract to non-restricted duty?
18 month-good to go
13.5- restricted
869
When sending a SOCS to PPC Customer Service, what is the preferred method?
E-mail
870
PB&E weight limit; unless OCONUS/COT
2,000 lbs
871
PB&E spouse limit
500 lbs
872
TDY weight limit W3?
600 lbs
873
RSV; participation points per year
15
874
FHD$
$50
875
If you fail weigh-in, what can you still do?
ADT-AT
876
How long is PCS departing worksheet kept in PDR?
3 years
877
Who creates and sends out Chief certificate?
PPC ADV
878
For exception or waiver to an award, how to approve?
PSC-PSD-ma
879
What TPAX stands for?
Travel Preparation and Examination system
880
SGLI runs for __ days after cancellation
120
881
Allotment form
CG-2040
882
Reserve officer retiring, where does request go?
RPM-1
883
When sending out DD-214, which copy gets sent to eipdr?
Page 2
884
Max number of SLA for at imminent danger pay area
120
885
Mbr away from home port for at least __ days may SLA up to 120 days
60 days
886
Commandant contingency operation; max SLA
90 days
887
SLA requests submitted to \_\_\_; NLT \_\_\_
PPC (mas);
1 December
888
Application to sell SLA
CG-2046
Must have more than 120 days
889
Complete form to sell SLA between ___ and \_\_\_
1 OCT - 30 NOV
890
CG-2046 send copy to
PSD-mr
891
Which payslip will show any restoration of leave credited
April
892
Records Transmittal and Receipt
SF-135
893
Agreement to Transfer to the National Archives
SF-258
894
Shipment of records should be accomplished within __ calendar days
90
895
Each box labeled __ and \_\_
Accession Number and Box Number
896
File Plan w/s
CG-6022
897
Retirement request MEMOS sent to
EPM-1/OPM-1
898
HHG weight for overseas furnished gov't quarters
\_\_ w/deps; without deps __ of weight limit
2000 lbs w/deps;
10% without deps
899
MBR going overseas in bachelor quarters weight limit
2000 lbs
900
TDY weight limit for E-7
400lbs
901
Type of discharge when an officer resigns so they can avoid a dismissal for the good of the service
Discharge under other than honorable
902
How many types of officer discharges
6
903
How many reasons for discharge
14
904
Drugs will give you what type of discharge
misconduct
905
How many types of 3307s
9
906
CWO4 TDY weight limit
800 lbs
907
How many ways can a CSB be paid out?
5 ways
908
All officers in the IRR must obtain __ points to remain in an active status. SELRES must obtain at least __ points
50
909
Max weight for UB PATFORSWA
600 lbs
910
Max sick leave
30 days
911
Within how many months does the overseas physical have to be completed
6 months
912
Medical/Hospitalized; ACIP will run for __ months
3 months
913
IF mbr wants an interim payment while awaiting SOCSS; what do you tell them
They may get over paid
914
6/10 yr SRB 3307
SRB-02
915
How many leadership competencies
28
916
E7 must maintain __ in the 7 leadership competencies for a good conduct
3
917
Retirement certificate number
CG 3887
918
When do you not use the Commanding Officer advancement checklist
When advancing off EAPP/ERPP
919
Accelerated SGLI form
SGLV 8284
920
Deserter form
DD 553
921
Do not request SOCS status within __ days
120 days
922
SGLI runs for __ days after separation
120 days
923
Who authorizes RMP per year
CG 131
924
RSV cannot have __ or more unexcused absences
9
925
Who grants emergency leave? __ days for Enlisted __ days for Officers
District Commanders and COs;
60 days Enlisted/30 days Officers
926
Who approves emergency leave MEMO
PSC pf
927
When do you submit SOCS
Change in component; error; break in service
928
4 types of IDT
Single, multiple, RMP, FHD
929
Lifecycle for ADMIN correspondence with audit by GAO
5 years and destroy
930
Lifecycle of directives; transfer to FRC when __ years old; Send to NARA when __ years old
5
20
931
PPC must process remission request within how many working days
3 working days
932
Remission request form
CG 5489-1
933
MBR on a cutter \_\_ft has up to __ days to request a remission
210
60
