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2025 CQ Flashcards

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1
Q

Q.1.1 Where should Pilots look to verify their apps
are updated and current?

A

MyVersions app

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2
Q

Q.1.2. Which apps require data updates prior to the
start of a pairing?

A

AvioBook FLIGHT
Comply365
FD Pro
WSI
Pilotbrief Optima
Flight Suite

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3
Q

Q.1.3. What is required prior to selecting the LOAD
FMC prompt after receiving PWB Data?

A

Both Pilots need to review the ACARS XXXX
TAKEOFF DATA message by scrolling through the
pages

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4
Q

Q.1.4. During taxi, Dispatch notifies you of an error
in the current Weight and Balance Report. What is
required of you before departure?

A

If new TO DATA is not automatically received,
request it. Review/upload the new data, and
complete the Departure Plan Checklist.

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5
Q

Q.1.5. After changing an arrival in the FMC (STAR
and/or runway), what is required before selecting the EXEC key?

A

Select the LEGS page and review the waypoint
sequence.

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6
Q

Q.1.6. What is required of the Pilot Monitoring when
commanded to change flap position?

A

First, verify the airspeed is appropriate for a
configuration change. Repeat the command. Then,
move the flap lever and visually confirm it is
positively seated at the correct detent. Crosscheck
the flap gauge and LE FLAPS TRANSIT light to
ensure the flaps are extending properly.

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7
Q

Q.1.7. Barring charted or ATC assigned airspeeds,
what guidance is in the AOM for normal flap
extension sequence?

A

The normal flap extension sequence is flaps 5, then
flaps 15, then landing flaps.
Note: Although the normal flap extension sequence
is 15, then landing flaps, momentary selection of
flaps 25 is permissible as appropriate.

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8
Q

Q.1.8.In cold weather operations, what
considerations should be taken after landing on a
contaminated runaway; or if accumulation of
airframe ice is observed with flaps extended?

A

Flaps should not be retracted to less than flaps 15

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9
Q

Q.1.9. How long must the APU operate, once
stabilized, before being used as a bleed air source?

A

Two minutes

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10
Q

Q.1.10. How do you determine the appropriate level
of response when a Passenger smokes in the
lavatory and then is compliant with FA instructions to extinguish their cigarette?

A

Consult the smoking policies in the FOM and apply
the correct criteria while determining the appropriate response.

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11
Q

Q.1.11. Flight Attendants report the activation of a
lavatory smoke detector to the Flight Deck Crew.
What resource is available to determine if a Lavatory
Smoke Detector activation constitutes a fire
emergency on board?

A

AOM 5.6 Fire Protection and Smoke/Fumes on the
Aircraft.

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12
Q

Q.1.12. Is there a resource available to guide you
when a reset of the Lavatory Smoke Detector is
required?

A

The above discussion (AOM 5.6) has a hot link to
take you to the manual Lavatory Smoke Detector
Reset discussion in the reference below.

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13
Q

Q.2.1 Is there a policy regarding approach and landing with these conditions?

A

Yes. AOM 10.7.2

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14
Q

Q.2.2. If runway conditions are RCC 3-MED or less,
what is the recommended flaps setting?

A

Flaps 40.

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15
Q

Q.2.3 What is the policy regarding braking action
PIREPs?

A

Provide a PIREP when braking action advisories
are in effect, anytime actual braking action is less
than GOOD, or when braking action encountered is
less than reported.

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16
Q

Q.2.4 Is there a resource available to assist you in
determining which braking action PIREP to report after landing?

A

Yes. Review FOM Figures 12.1 and 12.2 under the
references below. Also, reference the TALPA hot
link in the SIP

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17
Q

Q.2.5 What is the purpose of Runway Condition
Codes (RCCs)?

A

RCCs are used for determining landing performance
calculations when more than 25% of the runway
surface area is contaminated. They are numbered 0
to 6.

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18
Q

Q.2.6 What is the significance of three RCC values
for a specific runway?

A

RCC values are reported for each third of a runway.
The most restrictive RCC value is used when
multiple RCC values are reported.

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19
Q

Q.2.7 How do you determine if your intended runway is grooved?

A

Refer to the Jeppesen -9A page for the specific
airport.

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20
Q

Q.3.1 What are some considerations while
executing the missed approach?

A

▪ Maximum airspeed on the RF Leg
▪ Lateral flight path tolerances
▪ Deleting the manually entered RNP value

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21
Q

Q.3.2 What effect does selecting TO/GA have on
the roll mode in this situation?

A

LNAV remains the active mode.

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22
Q

Q.3.3 What effect would selecting TO/GA have on
the pitch mode in this situation?

A

The F/Ds command 15º nose up pitch. After reaching
a programmed rate of climb, pitch commands the
target airspeed for each flap setting based on
maximum takeoff weight calculations. This may
exceed maximum airspeed for the RF leg.

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23
Q

Q.3.4 What effect would selecting TO/GA have on
the Autothrottle mode in this situation?

A

With the first push of either TO/GA switch, A/T (if
armed) engages in GA and advances thrust toward
the reduced go-around N1 to produce 1,000 to 2,000 fpm rate of climb, if the aircraft is below 2,000 ft RA

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24
Q

Q.3.5 How would you terminate the TO/GA mode
from the F/D when desired?

A

▪ If the aircraft is below 400 ft RA, both F/D
switches must be turned off.
▪ If the aircraft is above 400 ft RA, select a different
pitch or roll mode.
▪ Selecting either Autopilot to CMD (changes pitch
mode to LVL CHG).

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25
Q.3.6 When initiating a go-around, the Pilot rotates smoothly toward what pitch attitude before following flight director guidance?
15°
26
Q.3.7 What happens to the Autopilot when TO/GA is selected?
Autopilot (if engaged) disengages
27
Q.3.8 What happens to the IAS/Mach display when TO/GA is selected?
The IAS/Mach display blanks
28
Q.4.1 MASTER CAUTION FLT CONTROL A LOW PRESSURE HYD PUMPS ENG 1 LOW PRESSURE HYD PUMPS ELEC 2 LOW PRESSURE. What is your assessment?
Loss of System A Hydraulics
29
Q.4.2 MASTER CAUTION FLT CONTROL A LOW PRESSURE HYD PUMPS ENG 1 LOW PRESSURE HYD PUMPS ELEC 2 LOW PRESSURE. What other indications can help confirm the situation?
HYDRAULIC indications on MFD, A autopilot disconnected if in use
30
Q.4.3 What major systems are affected with a Loss of System A hydraulics?
Autopilot A, normal landing gear extension and retraction, ground spoilers, engine 1 thrust reverser normal hydraulic pressure, normal nose wheel steering
31
Q.4.4 What Non-Normal Checklist is applicable for a system A Hydraulic Loss?
QRH - LOSS OF SYSTEM A
32
Q.4.5 With Loss of System A - What does PWB take into account when computing performance data?
The PWB Landing Module allows performance corrections based on the specific non-normal condition that impacts performance. Non-normal conditions are grouped by system, appear in the same order as the QRH, and are titled the same as in the QRH.
33
Q.4.6 Can you continue to your destination with a Loss of System A?
Yes, unless you lose another hydraulic system.
34
Q.4.7 What should you consider when in the terminal area with a Loss of System A?
When the gear has been lowered manually, it cannot be retracted. The drag penalty with gear extended may make it impossible to reach an alternate field.
35
Q.4.8 What is your assessment of the problem? MASTER CAUTION FLT CONTROL B LOW PRESSURE HYD PUMPS ENG 2 LOW PRESSURE HYD PUMPS ELEC 1 LOW PRESSURE
Loss of system B hydraulics
36
Q.4.9 What major systems are affected with a LOSS of SYSTEm B hydraulics?
B autopilot, yaw damper, trailing edge flaps and leading edge devices normal hydraulic pressure, autobrake, normal brakes, engine 2 thrust reverser normal hydraulic pressure, 2 spoilers each wing.
37
Q.4.10 With a Loss of System B hydraulics, Why do you plan a flaps 15 landing?
To improve go-around capabilities.
38
Q.4.11 What would you do if you also had STANDBY HYD LOW QUANTITY combined with a Loss of System B hydraulics?
Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport.
39
Q.4.12 What should you consider prior to extending the flaps with a loss of system B hydraulics?
Leading edge devices cannot be retracted after extension with alternate flap extension system. The drag penalty with leading edge devices extended may make it impossible to reach an alternate field.
40
Q.4.13 Before pushback, which hydraulic system System A must be depressurized (both pumps OFF and LOW PRESSURE lights illuminated)?
System A
41
Q.4.14 The aircraft must not be towed forward unless both engines are shut down and which hydraulic system is depressurized?
System A
42
Q.4.15 How can the standby hydraulic pump be activated?
Manually: By moving either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD or ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM. Automatically: Inflight or on the ground with a loss of system A or B, under specific conditions, or Force Fight Monitor (FFM) activation.
43
Q.4.16 What is the significant difference in capability between an engine-driven pump and an AC electric motor-driven pump?
An engine-driven pump supplies six times the fluid volume than the related electric motor-driven hydraulic pump.
44
Q.4.17 What does an illuminated OVERHEAT light on the Electric Hydraulic Pump indicate?
The associated electric motor driven pump is overheated, or the hydraulic fluid used to cool and lubricate the corresponding electric motor driven pump is overheated.
45
Q.4.18 For which components does the standby hydraulic system provide back up for Systems A and or B?
• Thrust reversers • Rudder • Leading edge flaps and slats (extend only) • Standby yaw damper
46
Q.5.1 You are at 4,000 ft, configuring for landing as Pilot Flying, and call for “Flaps 5.” The Pilot Monitoring repeats the command, and then moves the flap handle from “UP” to the F5 position. The PM monitors the Flap Position Indicator, but soon says “Uh oh, the flaps are stuck.” What is your priority?
MATM, including if the Non-Normal flap condition has any effect on aircraft controllability
47
Q.5.2 You are at 4,000 ft, configuring for landing as Pilot Flying, and call for “Flaps 5.” The Pilot Monitoring repeats the command, and then moves the flap handle from “UP” to the F5 position. The PM monitors the Flap Position Indicator, but soon says “Uh oh, the flaps are stuck.”. Is your phase of flight relevant?
Yes. You are on approach and not in a clean configuration. You need to execute a missed approach and coordinate for airspace to continue corrective action(s).
48
Q.5.3 You are at 4,000 ft, configuring for landing as Pilot Flying, and call for “Flaps 5.” The Pilot Monitoring repeats the command, and then moves the flap handle from “UP” to the F5 position. The PM monitors the Flap Position Indicator, but soon says “Uh oh, the flaps are stuck.” What is a risk with the go-around specific to this non-normal condition?
Moving the flap handle with suspected leading edge device or trailing edge flap damage may cause additional damage.
49
Q.5.4 After you announce you’re on the missed approach to Tower, they switch you to Departure. Departure asks the reason for the missed approach, and then clears you to fly the “published missed,” including holding. The holding pattern is 15 NM away. Is there anything you can be doing during this time?
QRH for Trailing Edge Flap Disagree. Also, assess any future impact of the Non-Normal (the QRH can help you with that assessment)
50
Q.5.5 As you read through the QRH, you assess that there is not any flap asymmetry, and that the flaps are stuck between flaps 2 and flaps 5, which leads you to step 5: Plan to extend flaps to 15 using alternate flap extension. Before you continue with that step, what are some considerations regarding impact now and in the future?
Extra time to complete the alternate flap extension, limitations associated with it, unfamiliarity with a flaps 15 landing, landing distance considerations
51
Q.5.6 As you go through the rest of the QRH, what other things would you discover that may have an impact on the rest of the flight?
▪ Alt flap extension time to F15 is approximately two minutes ▪ Drag penalty with LEDs extended will impact fuel burn ▪ Icing conditions considerations ▪ PWB entry of the specific non-normal condition ▪ 230K max airspeed limitation ▪ The need to be watchful for any flap asymmetry during alt flap extension
52
Q.5.7 Once you have taken care of all of the ▪ Brake cooling corrective actions and are ready to begin the ▪ Communication to Company approach, and as time allows, what are some other (Dispatch/TechOps/Station Ops) things that you need to consider?
▪ Brake cooling ▪ Communication to Company approach, and as time allows, what are some other (Dispatch/TechOps/Station Ops) ▪ Communication to Flight Attendants ▪ Communication to Passengers ▪ Logbook Entry ▪ Is an Irregularity Report/Immediate notification required? (Not under Flight Controls: under SYS MALF)
53
Q.5.8 What does illumination of the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light indicate while in flight?
NG and MAX: The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position, and the flap lever setting is more than flaps 10, or the radio altitude less than 800 ft. MAX: Thrust levers are above idle with the speed brake extended beyond the ARMED position.
54
Q.5.9 What does illumination of the Assist ON light indicate in the B737MAX?
The Elevator Jam Landing Assist function is activated.
55
Q.5.10 What does illumination of the SPOILERS light indicate in the B737MAX?
Spoiler system fault
56
Q.5.11 What is the purpose of the Elevator Jam Landing Assist System in the MAX aircraft?
To assist the Pilots while on approach and landing during manual flight in an elevator jam condition. ▪ When the Autopilot is disengaged ▪ Flaps are 1 or greater ▪ The Elevator Landing Assist switch is selected ON
57
Q.5.12 What does illumination of the SPEED TRIM FAIL light indicate when the MASTER CAUTION recall is activated and extinguishes when the MASTER CAUTION is reset?
Failure of a single FCC channel.
58
Q.5.13 What does the Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
Low hydraulic system (A or B) pressure to ailerons, elevator, and rudder.
59
Q.5.14 What does the FEEL DIFF PRESS indicate?
When either hydraulic system or elevator feel pitot system fails, excessive differential hydraulic pressure is sensed in the elevator feel computer.
60
Q.5.15 Do not extend flaps above what pressure altitude? Why?
20,000 ft; to prevent excessive structural loads from increased Mach at higher altitude.
61
Q.5.16 What is the Alternate Flap duty cycle?
Alternate flap duty cycle in flight is one complete cycle, then five minutes off. A complete cycle is movement from position 0° to 15° and back to 0°. The ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch must be in the OFF position for 15 seconds before reversing the direction of flap movement.
62
Q.5.17 Can the LE devices be retracted by the standby hydraulic pump?
No.
63
Q.5.18 How do you control pitch and roll in manual reversion?
Ailerons and elevators in manual reversion are mechanically actuated without hydraulic assist. The stabilizer trim can be controlled electrically via the electric trim switch or manually via the stabilizer trim wheel.
64
Q.6.1 On approach to a wet runway the ANTISKID INOP light illuminates. How would you initially assess the situation?
▪ A system fault is detected by the antiskid monitoring system ▪ Refer to the QRH ▪ Previously computed PWB performance data is invalid
65
Q.6.2 What guidance is there regarding all non- normal situations that would help you in this scenario?
Carefully consider time available to complete all required corrective actions to include the QRH. If sufficient time does not exist prior to beginning the final approach, execute a go-around.
66
Q.6.3 Why is the PWB performance data no longer valid after an ANTISKID INOP light has illuminated?
Antiskid is inoperative and manual speedbrake deployment is required.
67
Q.6.4 What braking considerations are required with an ANTISKID INOP?
The possibility of a tire blowout due to manual braking necessitates careful consideration of the QRH Landing Procedure Review.
68
Q.6.5 Which system normally provides hydraulic power for landing gear retraction, extension, and nose wheel steering?
System A
69
Q.6.6. Is antiskid protection available with alternate braking?
Yes, antiskid protection is available with both Normal and Alternate Braking systems.
70
Q.6.7 What protections are provided by the antiskid system?
▪ Skid ▪ Locked wheel ▪ Touchdown ▪ Hydroplane
71
Q.6.8 What is the purpose of the loose tread impact fitting?
To prevent a spinning tire with a loose tread from retracting into the wheel well and potentially causing damage to wheel well components.
72
Q.6.9 Which system provides hydraulic power for normal brakes?
System B
73
Q.6.10 If hydraulic system B is low or fails, how will pressure be supplied to enable braking?
Review the reference below to understand alternate braking capabilities.????Brake Accumulator pressure.
74
Q.7.1 What are the considerations when choosing between the CAT I, SA CAT I, and SA CAT II approaches?
▪ CAT I minimums are too high ▪ SA CAT I minimums don’t require AIII mode (as with the SA CAT II), therefore gusty winds won’t generate an APCH WARN, but any decrease in visibility will cause a go-around. ▪ SA CAT II minimums increase the likelihood of visually acquiring the runway but gusty winds may increase risk of an APCH WARN.
75
Q.7.2 Is the SA CAT II approach required to be hand flown below 1,000 ft AGL?
Yes, because the HGS is required
76
Q.7.3 Is a “LOOK SEE” authorized with these approaches?
Yes. The only approach for which a LOOK SEE is not authorized is a CAT III.
77
Q.7.4 You are now preparing to depart using RWY 28 in BWI. The current RVR is reported as 6/5/3. Are you legal to take off?
No. Since the 10-9A page lists the required RVR at 5/5/5, you may not take off with the rollout RVR below 500.
78
Q.7.5 What is the primary reference during a HGS takeoff?
Normal outside references (i.e., the runway surface).
79
Q.7.6 If normal outside references are the primary reference during a HGS takeoff, Would that ever change?
If the Pilot loses outside references (e.g. due to heavy fog), use HGS guidance as the primary reference.
80
Q.7.7 When must the Captain disengage the autopilot and autothrottle during an HGS approach?
The autopilot and autothrottle must be disengaged no later than 1,000 ft above TDZE.
81
Q.7.8 When is use of the HGS required for takeoff and/or landing?
▪ Takeoff: Visibility below 500 RVR. ▪ Landing: Less than 1800 RVR, depending on the approach or “SOUTHWEST HGS ONLY” is published on the approach plate.
82
Q.7.9 Who initiates the 1,000 ft above TDZE call on an HGS AIII approach?
The FO initiates the call. For approaches requiring the AIII mode, call, “1,000 ft, AIII mode.” For all other HGS approaches, call, “1,000 ft.”
83
Q.7.10 When does the FO’s instrument monitoring responsibility end on an AIII approach?
When slowed to taxi speed or 500 ft AGL on a go- around.
84
Q.7.11 Where do we find the correct runway distance when inputting HGS data for landing?
Enter the runway length from the PWB landing data. If runway length exceeds 13,500 ft enter “13500.”
85
Q.7.12 What is the correct callout when an APCH WARN illuminates during an AIII Mode approach?
A callout from the FO stating “Approach Warning, Go-Around.”
86
Q.7.13 What is the appropriate HGS mode during low visibility takeoffs?
Primary - PRI
87
Q.7.14 How do you remove all symbology on the Combiner display on the MAX aircraft?
Select CLR HGS on the MCDU display on the HGS DATA page.

SWA (4 decks)

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