202v3 Flashcards
1
Q
Where does international airspace exist?
A
Over the high seas at any point greater than 12NM from baseline of coastal state
2
Q
When does a violation/ pilot deviation occur
A
USAF aircraft deviate from a flight rule
3
Q
The PIC will not accept an aircraft if the suspect the aircraft is not ____?
A
Airworthy
4
Q
Air crew will not fly within ___ of consuming alcohol to include after-effects, ___ of donating blood/plasma/ or bone marrow, ___ of compressed gas diving to include SCUBA.
A
12 Hrs, 72 Hrs, 24 Hrs
5
Q
How long is crew rest?
A
12 hours and the opportunity for 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep
6
Q
Aircrew must inform the ___ or ___ if they do not have crew rest
A
PIC or mission execution authority
7
Q
Does the PIC have to accept reduced crew rest if waived?
A
No
8
Q
What is the shortest duration crew rest can be waived to?
A
10 Hrs
9
Q
When does the FDP begin and end?
A
When aircrew member reports for official duty and At final engine shutdown after final flight of completed mission
10
Q
Can you conduct impromptu aerial displays/ flyovers?
A
No
11
Q
Can you allow passengers suspected of being under the influence of intoxicants to board USAF aircraft?
A
No, except in an emergency or if authorized by command and control authority
12
Q
Can you use tobacco in any form in-flight?
A
No
13
Q
PIC will prohibit the use of any Portable Electronic Device (PED) suspected of creating ___ with systems on the aircraft
A
Interference
14
Q
Can you have the cellular function of a PED while airborne? What about over foreign territory?
A
No to both
15
Q
Can aircrew rely on weather data downloaded in-flight to maneuver the aircraft?
A
No, primary navigation displays and on-board weather radar will be used
16
Q
Aircrew must ___ ___ all taxi and hold short instructions
A
Read back
17
Q
What will aircrew report immediately
A
Hazardous weather conditions
Wake turbulence
Volcanic ash
Large concentrations of birds/ wildlife near the airfield
Significant flight conditions
18
Q
When do you declare minimum/ emergency fuel?
A
When it becomes apparent the aircraft may land with less than the MDS-specific minimum reserve or emergency fuel
19
Q
Aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin pressure altitude exceeds ___
A
10,000ft MSL
20
Q
If cabin pressure exceeds ____ following an unintended loss of cabin pressure, aircrew and passengers must be evaluated by a flight surgeon/ aviation medical authority prior to flight
A
18,000ft MSL
21
Q
Decompression sickness may occur ___ after landing
A
12 Hrs
22
Q
4 conditions for position lights to be on
A
1) between sunset and sunrise
2) when towing an aircraft
3) when parking in an area likely to create a hazard
4) Anytime operating an aircraft/engine is running
23
Q
Anti collision lights must normally be turned on when?
A
Prior to engine start/ turned off after after engine shutdown
24
Q
Exception for anti collision lights
A
When power is unavailable prior to engine start
If they might adversely affect the performance/ duties or subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle
25
When must landing lights be on? When can they be turned off?
After takeoff clearance is received and aircraft is on the active runway
When commencing takeoff roll and an airport without an operating control tower
When below 10,000ft MSL
Can be turned off after exiting the active runway
Can be turned off when PIC deems it necessary for safety or mission accomplishment.
26
Can MAJCOMs authorize reduced aircraft lighting?
Yes, in restricted areas, warning areas, host-nation approved areas or designated airfields.
Also for formation flight if equivalent level of visual identification as single aircraft exists
27
Without MAJCOM approval, PICs will not conduct operations from runways unless outlined by ___ ___ or ___ ___ ___ ___.
Operable lighting or high-intensity runway reflective markers
28
An aircraft in___ has right away over all other traffic
Distress
29
When converging at the same altitude, who has the right away?
The aircraft to the others right
30
When aircraft are approaching each-other head on, each shall alter course to the ___
Right
31
An aircraft established on___ ___ has the right away over other aircraft on the ground or in the air, except when 2 aircraft are approaching to land. In this case the ___ aircraft has the right of way but shall not use it as an advantage.
Final Approach : Lower
32
Decent gradients in excess of ___ in IMC May induce Spatial D when descending at pilots description
10 degrees (1,000ft per NM)
33
The PIC will not navigate using TACAN unless valid ___ and ___ information are available.
Azimuth and Range
34
IFR aircraft will squwak ___ in absence of any ATC directions or regional air navigation agreements
2000
35
Aircraft operating VFR/ IFR in restricted areas, warming areas, or on a VR will squawk ___ unless otherwise assigned
4000
36
If operating with the TCAS on, pilots will select the TCAS mode the provides both ___ and ___.
Traffic Advisories (TAs) and Resolution Advisories (RAs)
37
T/F. Pilots will respond to all RAs regardless of ATC instructions, right of way rules, cloud clearances, or other VFR/ IFR flight rules, as directed by TCAS unless doing so would jeopardize safe operations
True
38
When responding to an RA do you need to alter flight path completely?
Only to the extent necessary to comply with the RA
39
When responding to an RA should you return to an ATC clearance?
Yes, Notify ATC of deviation as soon as practicable
40
For simulated instrument flight, a safety observer who is able to clear outside at all times is needed. This safety observer can either be an ___ or a ____?
Aircrew member or chase aircraft
41
T/F. By filing a flight plan, the PIC certifies that they have checked weather observation and forecasts.
True
42
Priorities in order for obtaining weather information.
1) MAJCOM approved sources
2) Regional Weather Squadron (OWS)
3) Other DOD/ military approved weather facilities or services
4) Other US Gov weather facilities or services
5) Foreign weather facilities or services
43
Does prevailing visibility or RVR take precedence as a visibility report?
RVR
44
Aircrew will use what kind of RVR when available?
Static RVR
45
What is critical DME?
DME facility that when not available results in navigation service which is not sufficient for DME/DME/IRU operations along specific route or procedure
46
In the NAS only ___ ___ is required for all unpublished or random RNAV routes
Radar Monitoring
47
Pilots won’t ___ a flight plan or ___ ___ ___ that requires navigating direct to a navigational fix unless the primary navigation equipment on board the aircraft is certified for the appropriate RNAV capability
File or accept a clearance
48
T/F. Without the appropriate RNAV capability, pilots will respond “unable” to ATC when given a clearance.
True
49
4 ways RNAV systems may be used when a facility is identified as required.
1) determine aircraft position relative to a distance from conventional NAVAID
2) navigate to/ from conventional NAVAID
3) hold over an conventional NAVAID or DME navigational fix
4) Use of a procedure identified as “NA”
50
Do not depart IFR unless
Weather at destination +/- 1 hr from ETA is at or above lowest compatible approach minimums
51
Can you depart IFR if the weather meets requirements, but a TEMPO TAF line during your ETA is below requirements?
Yes
52
For a straight in or side-step approach, weather minimums must meet ___ minimums
Visibility
53
For a circling approach, weather minimums must meet ___ and ___ ___ minimums.
Ceiling and prevailing visibility
54
When must you file an alternate?
1) No compatible approaches
2) +/- 1Hr of ETA including TEMPO is less than 2,000’ and 3SM
3) Forecasted winds are outside of aircraft limitations including TEMPO
4) Denial of RVSM will prevent you from reaching destination
55
Do not depart IFR unless weather at the alternate is what?
+/- 1Hr if ETA including TEMPO is at least 1000’ and 2SM or 500’ and 1SM above lowest compatible approach minimums whichever is greater.
56
Does an alternate need to have a compatible approach to be selected?
No, only if +/- 1Hr of ETA including TEMPO permit a descent from minimum en route altitude, approach, and landing under basic VFR
57
What disqualifies an airport as an alternate?
1) All compatible approaches require an unmonitored NAVAID
2) The airfield doesn’t report weather observations
3) Alternate Not Authorized (ANA) on all compatible approaches
4) Any note disqualifying the airfield or all compatible approaches in the “A IFR Alternate Minimums” Section
58
What symbol informs pilots that a specific approach cannot be used to qualify the field as an alternate due to an unmonitored NAVAID or lack of weather reporting services?
“ANA” = Alternate not Authorized
59
Are VFR flight plans automatically closed upon landing?
No
60
The PIC will ensure sufficient fuel on board to ____ plus ____ ?
Final landing, destination or alternate
Plus
Fuel reserves
61
When an alternate airport is required, when must you carry enough fuel for an approach and missed approach at the intended destination and when must you carry enough fuel for an approach only?
1) If visibility only weather criteria is used at destination
2) If both ceiling and visibility criteria are used
62
What is reserve fuel?
Usable fuel to increase total planned flight time by 10% up to 45mins or 20mins. Whichever is greater
63
Calculate fuel consumption rates that provide ___ ___ at ____
Best endurance
10,000ft MSL
64
Aircraft Approach category is equal too ___ ___ multiplied by 1.3 or ___ ___ 1.23, whichever is greater
Stall Speed
Stall Speed in the landing configuration
65
What is the lowest level of automation?
“Hand Flying”
66
If ATC responds “Aircraft calling approach, standby”. Has two way radio communication been established?
No
67
In Class C airspace ATC provides separation for VFR traffic from VFR traffic, IFR traffic, or both?
VFR aircraft from IFR only
IFR aircraft from both VFR and IFR
68
RVSM airspace is what?
Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum
FL290-FL410
Reduces required vertical separation from 2000’ to 1000’
69
What basis are non RVSM aircraft handled on?
Workload permitting basis
70
Non RVSM aircraft are separated by how much altitude?
2000’
71
When safe, practical, and in accordance with aircraft flight manual operation procedures, what should you limit your vertical speed to within 1,000ft of assigned altitudes?
1,500’ per minute
72
RAs can be delayed up to ___ sec to allow TCAS to detect a level off?
5 seconds
73
What are the UHF and VHF emergency frequencies?
UHF: 243.00MHz
VHF: 121.50MHz
74
On vector the responsibility to remain VMC rests with whom?
The Pilot
75
Where can procedures for filing a composite flight plan be found?
FLIP General Planning ch.4
76
On a composite flight plan while maintaining VMC and after cleared to operate IFR, what must you do to the VFR flight plan/ VFR portion of the flight?
Request ATC “close VFR flight plan” or cancel VFR portion w FSS
77
What is VFR on top?
Pilot on IFR, but in VMC May request VFR on top in lieu of assigned altitude. Permits Pilot to select a FL or altitude of their choice
78
Are we allowed to fly VFR on top?
No
79
If VFR in the ADIZ aircraft must have operable ___ and maintain what?
Transponder
Two way radio communication
80
VFR traffic in the ADIZ must depart within ___ of the estimated departure time?
5 mins
81
Declared distances are marked where?
Approach plates or Airfield Diagram with the “Inverse D” symbol
82
4 Declared Distances
TORA: Takeoff Runway Available
TODA: Takeoff Distance Available
ASDA: Accelerated Stop Distance Available
LDA: Landing Distance Available
AF will not use TODA for takeoff calculations
83
May controllers use the shorthand to issue altimeter settings?
Yes, but confirm correct units of measure when setting altimeter
84
What are the 3 types of altimeter settings?
QNH: Aircraft height in MSL
QNE: Aircraft height above “standard datum plane”
QFE: Aircraft height in AGL
85
What is a transition altitude and what is it in the NAS?
Altitude near an airfield at or below which vertical position of the aircraft is determined from altimeter setting
NAS: 18,000’MSL
86
What is the transition altitude in the NAS?
FL180 unless QNH altimeter setting is below 29.92
(FIH section B for more info)
87
What are the lower and upper limits of the QNH altimeter setting before the altimeter is considered extreme?
28.00 and 31.00
88
The amount of error in flight colder than International Standard Atmosphere is ~___ feet per 1000ft for each degree C difference from the ISA
4ft
89
What is the definition of mountainous area?
Changing terrain where elevation changes exceeds 3,000ft in 10NM
90
Are radar minimum vectoring altitudes corrected for cold temperatures?
No
91
Where can you find the cold weather temperature correction table?
FIH in accordance with Table 4.4 (202v3)
92
When departing an aerodrome with a temperature less than ___ deg C, aircrew will temperature correct for all altitudes.
0 deg C / 32 deg F
93
Do you apply temperature corrections to ATC assigned altitudes?
No
94
Will pilots advise ATC when applying altitude correction on any approach segment except final approach?
Yes
95
Between 0 deg C and -30 deg C on a typical IAP, pilots will correct which altitudes?
All altitudes inside the FAF or below 1,000’ AGL
96
FAA cold restricted airports are identified by what icon on an IAP?
Snowflake icon
97
Do FAA cold temperature procedures differ from the USAF cold temperature procedures?
Yes, main difference are temp limits and which approach altitudes are corrected
4.53 202v3
98
Do not take off if weather is below what?
Lowest compatible approach minimums
99
T/F: you can takeoff with frost adhering to the wings?
False
100
Do ATC climb gradients account for low close in obstacles?
No
101
All USAF and USN climb gradients begin ___ feet above DER unless otherwise published
0’
102
What symbol on an IAP notifies the pilot that departure procedures exists?
“Trouble T”
103
Obstacles within ___ SM of DER which require greater than 200 ft/NM are published under the “Takeoff Obstacle Notes”
3SM
104
What constitutes a low close in obstacle?
Obstacles that require a climb gradient >200ft/NM for a very short distance only till the aircraft is 200ft above DER
105
Diverse departure obstacle area is limited to how many NM in non mountainous terrain and in mountainous terrain?
25NM
46NM
106
For Omnidirectional departures, pilots may turn in any direction upon reaching ___ft above DER
400ft
107
What is VCOA
Visual Climb Over Airport
Visual climbing turns over the airfield
108
Can pilots construct their own VCOA?
No
109
What is the VCOA ceiling?
250ft above highest obstacle w/in visual climb area
110
What is the order of aircraft in priority?
1) Balloons
2) Gliders
3) Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft
4) airships
5) Fixed-Wing or Rotary
111
What are prohibited uses of RNAV systems?
1) Substituting for a NAVAID providing lateral course guidance during the final approach segment of a VOR/TACAN/NDB
2) Lateral navigation on localizer-based courses without referencing the raw localizer data
3) Use of procedure identified as “NA” without NOTAM exception
112
What are the aircraft categories and the approach speed range for each?
A: <91 KIAS
B: 91-120 KIAS
C: 121-140 KIAS
D: 141-165 KIAS
E: >166 KIAS
Helicopters = A
113
VFR weather requirements in Class A
Class A is IFR only
114
VFR weather requirements in Class B
3SM Clear of Clouds
115
VFR weather requirements in Class C
3 SM
500’ below
1000’ above
2000’ horizontal
116
VFR weather requirements in Class D
3 SM
500’ below
1000’ above
2000’ horizontal
117
VFR weather requirements in Class E
Below 10,000ft MSL:
3 SM
500’ below
1000’ above
2000’ horizontal
Above 10,000ft MSL
5 SM
1000’ below
1000’ above
1 SM horizontal
118
VFR weather requirements in Class G
Below 10,000ft MSL:
3 SM
500’ below
1000’ above
2000’ horizontal
Above 10,000ft MSL
5 SM
1000’ below
1000’ above
1 SM horizontal
119
What is the transition level?
Lowest altitude available for use above the Transition Altitude. (FL180 in the NAS unless altimeter is below 29.92)
120
When can you turn after an IFR takeoff?
400’ above DER unless required by a published procedure or ATC
121
What are the IFR departure methods?
MSSDOOD
M: MAJCOM- Certified
S: Specific ATC departure instruction
S: SID
D: Diverse Departure
O: ODP
O: Omnidirectional
D: Diverse Vector Area
122
What are the types of ODP departures?
RNAVS
R: Reduced Takeoff Runway Length (RTRL)
N: Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums
A: Any combination of these
V: Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA)
S: Specific Routing
123
How far out can a localizer be used?
NAS:
•18NM within 10 deg of centerline
•10NM for remainder of coverage
ICAO:
•25NM within 10 deg of centerline
•17NM between 10 deg and 35deg of centerline
•10NM outside of 35 deg of centerline
124
Within how many degrees must a localizer be aligned with the runway?
NAS: 3 deg
ICOA: 5 deg
125
What is a localizer offset by more than standard called?
NAS: Localizer-Type Directional Aid (LDA)
ICAO: Instrument Guidance System (IGS)
126
What is the difference between a flyover waypoint and a flyby waypoint?
Flyover: Standard waypoint symbol enclosed in a circle. Cannot lead turn.
Flyby: Standard waypoint symbol. Can lead/ anticipate turn.
127
When shall pilots obtain an ATC clearance?
1) Before departing under IFR
2) As soon as practicable after departing IFR
3) Before entering controlled airspace
128
The PIC will operate above non-congested areas including open water and sparsely populated areas no lower than ____ AGL?
500’ AGL
129
The PIC will operate over open water and sparsely populated areas no closer than ____ ?
500ft to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure
130
The PIC will operate over congested areas or groups of people at an altitude no lower than _____
1000ft above the highest obstacle within a 2000ft radius
131
What is the lowest altitude the PIC may operate over National Park Service monuments, seashores, lakeshores, recreation and scenic riverways, US Fish and Wildlife Service refuges and US Forest Service wilderness and primitive areas?
2000ft AGL
N/A for MTRs and special-use airspaces
132
NAS only: The PIC will not exceed ___ at or below ____ within ____ of the primary airport in Class C or D airspace unless authorized by ATC or by T.O.
200 knots
2500ft AGL
4NM
133
What is required to fly in IMC near a thunderstorm?
Weather Radar
134
Above what altitude s are man made obstacles depicted on aeronautical charts?
200ft AGL
135
What does VFR MSA provide?
500ft clearance above highest obstruction to flight within 5NM of the route centerline, to include the aircraft turn radius
136
What does an ERAA provide?
1) Positive IMC terrain clearance during emergency situations
2) 1000ft (2000ft in mountainous terrain) above the elevation of the highest obstruction to flight within 22NM either side of planned route.
137
What provides inbound course guidance for holding patterns?
VOR, TACAN, NDB, Localizer, or RNAV systems
138
Can you use TACAN station passage as a fix for holding or for a high altitude IAF?
No, only for low altitude IAF (below FL180)
139
What is maximum holding airspeed?
NAS:
• Below 6,000ft MSL = 200KIAS
• B/w 6,000 - 14,000ft MSL = 230 KIAS
• Above 14,000ft MSL = 265 KIAS
Exceptions:
1) USAF Fields = 310 knots
2) Navy Fields = 230 knots
3) Helicopter Approaches = 90 knots
140
What route should you fly in the event of two way radio failure and VMC is not encountered?
AVEF
A: Assigned route in the last ATC clearance
V: Vector, direct route from point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance
E: Expected, as told by ATC previously
F: Filed route in the flight plan
141
What speed should procedure turns be flown?
200 KIAS or less to remain within protected airspace
142
What are the exceptions if no supplemental O2 is used?
1) Do not operate above 14,000ft MSL cabin altitude
2) Do not exceed 1 hour between 10,000ft - 12,500ft MSL cabin altitude of any portion of the flight is conducted in IMC, at night, employing weapons, conducting airdrop, air refueling, or performing high-G maneuvers
3) Do not exceed 30 mins between 12,500ft - 14,000ft MSL cabin altitude
143
What altitude should you fly in the event of two way radio failure and VMC is not encountered?
AME
A: Assigned altitude in last ATC clearance
M: Minimum altitude for IFR ops
E: Expected altitude as told by ATC
144
NAS only: What is the maximum airspeed permitted in climb-in-holding?
310 knots or as published
145
At what point on an approach should you begin a side-step maneuver?
As soon as possible as the runway environment is in sight, typically within the FAF.
146
What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach?
1) Arrival
2) Initial
3) Intermediate
4) Final
5) Missed Approach
147
With what weather does the ILS critical area have to remain clear of vehicles and aircraft when an aircraft is in between the FAF and the airfield?
800ft ceiling and 2SM visibility
148
What must you do prior to starting the initial descent?
1) Review instrument procedures
2) Review weather
3) Check heading and attitude systems
4) Coordinate lost comms procedures, if applicable
149
Where can you find radar minimums?
In the front of the Terminal Procedures Publication
150
When can you descend from the procedure turn fix altitude (published or assigned)?
Once crossing over or outbound and abeam the procedure turn fix
151
NAS only: What is a contact approach?
1) A procedure that may be used by the pilot in lieu of conducting an instrument approach to an airfield
2) May be requested when clear of clouds with at least 1 mile of flight visibility and can reasonably navigate to the field in these conditions
152
What aircrew flight equipment is required for night operations?
1) An operable flashlight
2) Aircrew will wear and use authorized clothing and equipment
153
For the 45/180 method, how far outbound do you go and which way do you turn after completing the 45 deg turn?
1) 1 min (Cat A and B)
2) 1 min 15 sec (Cat C/D/E)
3) Turn opposite of the initial 45 deg turn
154
What is a limiting radial and what do you do if you reach one?
1) Published if the distance from the holding fix to the VOR/DME station is short (airspace conservation is critical)
2) If reaching the limiting radial prior to the limiting outbound distance, follow the radial until a turn inbound is initiated at the limiting outbound distance
155
When can you jettison fuel and what must you do?
1) Only in an emergency or when required for mission accomplishment
2) Provide ATC or FSS with intentions, altitude, location, and completion time
156
When do we begin timing for holds?
1) Outbound timing begins over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later
2) If abeam position cannot be determined start timing when the turn to the outbound heading is completed
157
What is an MSA?
1) Minimum Sector Altitude
2) Provides 1000ft of obstacle clearance within 25NM of facility/fix
3) Can be divided into a maximum of 4 sectors
158
If executing a side-step maneuver and have to go missed, should you execute a missed approach to the side-step runway or the runway to which the approach was flown?
The runway to which the approach was flown
159
What fixes can ATC radar be used to identify?
Only those labeled with “RADAR”
160
If weather decreases below lowest compatible approach minimums after beginning descent, receiving radar vectors for an approach, or established on any segment of the approach prior to the MAP, what can you do?
Continue the approach and land of all criteria for landing are met, or go missed
161
T/F: Military aircraft have to comply with regulations and rules for “civil aircraft operations”
False
162
Can USAF pilots participate in LAHSO operations?
Yes, only passively without MAJCOM training
