Flashcards in 220-901 B Deck (81):
1. Which of the following IP addresses would a technician see if a computer running Windows is connected to a multifunction network device and is attempting to obtain an IP address automatically but is not receiving an IP address from the DHCP server?
If the computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server, Windows will take over and apply an Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA). This address will be on the 169.254.0.0 network. All of the other addresses could possibly be obtained from a DHCP server. 172.16.10.10 is a Class B private IP address. 192.168.0.10 and 192.168.10.10 are Class C private IP addresses.
80 mm and 120 mm are common sizes for which type of PC component?
A) Case Fans
C) Heat Sinks
D) Memory Modules
A) Case Fans
What is the maximum number of devices that can be daisy chained to USB?
USB can handle up to 127 devices, though this number is outside the realm of normalcy for most individuals! An IEEE 1394 (FireWire) chain can have up to 63 devices. 24 is the number associated with the ATX 12 V 2.0 (and higher) power connection to a motherboard. It is also one of the amounts of pins you might find on a dot matrix printhead. 255 is a commonly used number when it comes to maximums (for example, the highest number of an octet in an IPv4 address), but it doesn’t apply to USB in this case.
An exclamation point next to a device in the Device Manager indicates which of the following?
A) A driver is not properly installed for this device
B) The Device is disabled
C) The driver is not digitally signed
D) The device driver needs to be upgraded
A) A driver is not properly installed for this device
If you see an exclamation point in the Device Manager, this indicates that the device does not have a proper driver. If the device is disabled, it will have a down arrow. If a driver was not digitally signed, the device might show up in the Unknown Devices category until it is installed properly. If a device has a working driver, then upgrading it will be up to you, but you won’t necessarily be notified that the driver needs to be upgraded.
Beep Codes are generated by which of the following?
As the power-on self-test (POST) checks all the components of the computer, it may present its findings on the screen or in the form of beep codes. The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) stores information such as time and date and BIOS/UEFI passwords. RTC stands for real-time clock; it is the device that keeps time on the motherboard. Windows generates all kinds of error codes but not beep codes. The beep codes come from the POST, which happens before Windows boots.
A laptop you are troubleshooting will not display any video through the laptop's screen or through external monitors. Which of the following should be replaced?
B) Video Card
B) Video Card
If the laptop can’t display on the LCD or on an external monitor, that tells you that the video card is most likely faulty. The laptop would need to be opened to replace this. In some cases, it is integrated to the motherboard, requiring an entire motherboard replacement. If the inverter fails you would still see a dim display (which can be aided by using a flashlight) and the external monitor should work fine. If the LCD fails, you would not see anything on the display, but the external monitor again would function fine. Incorrect drivers can give a variety of problems, such as unattainable maximum resolutions or a garbled screen. However, the display should show something in that case, and should work fine in Safe Mode, in which new drivers could be installed.
Which of the following indicates that a printer is network ready?
A) An Rj11
B) A usb connector
D) An SCSI connector
The RJ45 jack enables a connection to a twisted-pair (most likely Ethernet) network. Printers with a built-in RJ45 connector are network-ready. So are printers that are Wi-Fi enabled. RJ11 ports are used by modems and dial-up Internet connections. If a printer has this, then it is a multifunction printer acting as a fax machine. USB is the standard port for a printer. This allows it to connect to a PC or to a print server. SCSI connectors are not often found on today’s printers; regardless, they would indicate a local connection, not a network connection.
You just turned off a printer to maintenance it. Which of the following should you be careful of when removing the fuser?
A) Fuser being hot
B) Fuser being wet
C) Fuser being fragile
D) Fuser releasing toner
A) Fuser being hot
The fuser heats paper to around 400° Fahrenheit (204° Celsius). That’s like an oven. If you need to replace the fuser, let the printer sit for 10 or 15 minutes after shutting it down, and before maintenance. The fuser is not wet or fragile, and it does not contain toner—that is contained by the cartridge.
Which of the Following Connectors is used for musical equipment?
D) Display Port
Musical Instrument Digital Interface: MIDI is used to create a clocking signal that all devices can synchronize to.
Which of the following tools is not used as often as a Phillips screwdriver but is sometimes used to remove screws from the outside of a computer case or from within a laptop?
A) Monkey Wrench
B) Torx Screwdriver
C) Channel Lock
B) Torx Screwdriver
The Torx screwdriver (also known as a Torx wrench) is a special tool used to remove screws from the outside of a case; often, proprietary computer manufacturers use these screws. It can also be used to remove screws (albeit smaller ones) from a laptop. The standard is the size T-10 Torx screwdriver. But you might also use a T-8 and even a T-6 on laptops.
Which of the following is the primary advantage of selecting a 64-bit operating system over a 32-bit operating system?
A) The ability to use software based Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
B) The ability to use unsigned drivers
C) The ability to access more than 4gb of RAM
D) The ability to run multiple 16-bit programs in separate memory spaces
C) Access more than 4 gb of RAM
If you want to access more than 4 GB of RAM, you will need a 64-bit operating system. 32-bit OSes are limited to 4 GB of RAM, and in some cases 3.25 GB. Many computers today, especially custom computers such as virtualization systems and gaming computers, require more than 4 GB of RAM so a 64-bit operating system is the only choice. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a security feature in today’s operating systems; it stops a program from executing code in a forbidden area of memory. Most of today’s 32-bit or 64-bit systems offer this. Unsigned drivers are based on the operating system itself; whether that particular OS is 32-bit or 64-bit will not be a factor. You must be an administrator to allow the use of unsigned drivers. 32-bit operating systems can run older 16-bit programs, but 64-bit operating systems will have problems running 16-bit programs even in compatibility mode.
Moving you'r CPU's speed beyond its normal operating range is called?
Which of the following is the most important piece of information needed to connect to a specific wireless network?
C) MAC address
D) Admin password
The service set identifier (SSID) is the most important piece of information required to connect to a wireless network; it is the name of the wireless network. The wireless channel number isn’t necessarily needed; the wireless access point (WAP) might auto-negotiate the channel. Also, MAC address filtering is not enabled by default, so the MAC address might not be needed. (In fact, this would be entered by the admin at the wireless access point, not from the client computer.) The administrator password is needed only if you wanted to make configuration changes to the wireless access point. For example, if you wanted to implement MAC filtering, you would have to log in to the WAP with an admin password to configure it.
Which of the following statements describes why the display on a laptop gets dimmer when the power supply from the AC outlet is disconnected?
A) Laptop cannot use full brightness when on battery power
B) Power management settings on the laptop are configured for power saving
C) To operate properly, laptop displays require an alternating current power source
D) Security settings on the laptop are configured to dim the display
The power management settings on the laptop can cause the display to automatically dim when the AC adapter is unplugged. In fact, this is the default on many laptops in order to conserve battery power. These can be configured within Power Options in Windows. You can certainly set the display to full brightness when on battery power—it just isn’t recommended. Laptops can operate properly when connected to the AC power adapter or when using the battery only. The display brightness of a laptop isn’t affected by any security settings.
Which of the following statements describe advantages of using the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Select the two best answers.)
A) IP addresses can be managed from a central location.
B) The network speed can automatically adjust based on the type of traffic being generated.
C) The hosts file on the computer can be validated for proper entries.
D) Media access control addresses can be changed.
E) Computers can automatically get new addressing when moved to a different network segment.
A) and E)
Advantages of using DHCP include: IP addresses can be managed from a central location and computers can automatically get new addressing when moved to a different network segment (perhaps one that uses a different DHCP server). Quality of service (QoS) adjusts the network speed based on the type of traffic generated. DHCP has nothing to do with the Hosts.txt file; that file contains static entries of hostname to IP address conversions. Media access control addresses are usually not changed on a network adapter, although they can be masked. MAC filtering maintains a list of MAC addresses that are allowed to access a network, but once again, this is a different concept from DHCP.
Which of the following storage technologies is used by hard disk drives?
Hard disk drives are magnetic disks. There are optical hard drives, but they are rare; optical disc drives are commonly implemented as CD, DVD, or Blu-ray drives. Impact refers to a type of printer, such as the dot matrix or the daisy wheel printer. Solid-state hard drives do not have a disk and therefore have no moving parts, are quiet, and work as fast as (if not faster than) traditional magnetic hard drives. However, they are far more expensive than the magnetic-based hard disk drive.
On which type of computer is RAM the most important?
A. Gaming PC
B. Virtualization workstation
C. AV workstation
RAM is more essential to the virtualization workstation than any of the other types of custom PCs listed. Virtual operating systems (virtual machines or VMs) require a lot of RAM to run, much more than any other application. Plus, a virtualization workstation will often have more than one virtual machine running, increasing its need for RAM even further. A gaming PCs biggest requirements are the CPU and the video card. Audio/video workstations require specialized audio and video cards, fast hard drives, and dual monitors. Home theater PCs (HTPCs) require an HDMI output, surround sound, a small form factor, and possibly a TV tuner.
A client brings in a printer that is giving a paper-feed error. Which of the following is the most likely cause? A. The separation pad
B. The developing rollers
C. The paper tray
D. The pickup rollers
Paper-feed errors are often caused by the pickup rollers, which are in charge of feeding the paper into the printer. If a separation pad fails, it might cause more than one sheet of paper to be entered into the printer. The developing rollers transfer ink to the imaging drum. The paper tray simply holds the paper. It should not cause paper-feed errors unless the constraining tabs are too tight.
Which of the following is the default port for HTTPS?
A. Port 25
B. Port 80
C. Port 143
D. Port 443
Port 443 is the default port for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS). This is the protocol used during online banking sessions, or if you go to checkout when shopping online. Port 25 is the default port for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). Port 80 is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Port 143 is the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP); it’s similar to Post Office Protocol Version 3 (POP3) but offers offline operation, and multiple clients can access the same mailbox.
What is the maximum distance at which a Class 2 Bluetooth device can receive signals from a Bluetooth access point?
A. 100 meters
B. 10 meters
C. 5 meters
D. 1 meter
Class 2 Bluetooth devices have a maximum range of approximately 10 meters. Class 2 devices (such as, for example, Bluetooth headsets) are the most common. Class 1 has a 100-meter range, and Class 3’s range is approximately 1 meter. The maximum length of a standard USB 2.0 cable is 5 meters.
Which of the following wireless networking standards operates at 5 GHz only?
802.11a operates at 5 GHz only. 802.11b and g operate at 2.4 GHz. 802.11n operates at either 2.4 or 5 GHz. The IEEE 802.11 wireless standards are collectively known as 802.11x. There is no actual 802.11x standard; it was not used in order to avoid confusion. 802.11x is instead a variable that you will sometimes see that refers to two or more 802.11 technologies. 802.11ac also uses the 5 GHz frequency spectrum.
Which of the following types of RAM has a peak transfer of 12,800 MB/s?
DDR3-1600 has a peak transfer rate of 12,800 MB/s. It runs at an I/O bus clock speed of 800 MHz and can send 1600 megatransfers per second (MT/s). It is also known as PC3-12800. To figure out the data transfer rate of DDR3 from the name “DDR3-1600,” simply multiply the 1600 by 8 (bytes) and solve for megabytes: 12,800 MB/s. To figure out the data transfer rate of DDR3 by the consumer name “PC3-12800,” just look at the number within the name and add “MB/s” to the end. To figure out the data transfer rate when given only the I/O bus clock speed (for example, 800 MHz), multiply the clock speed by 2 and then multiply that number by 8 and solve for megabytes: 800 MHz × 2 × 8 = 12,800 MB/s. DDR3-800 has a peak transfer rate of 6,400 MB/s; it is also known as PC3-6400. There is no DDR2-1600. The fastest DDR2 standard is DDR2-1066, which has a peak transfer rate of 8,533 MB/s. DDR2-800 (like DDR3-800) has a peak transfer rate of 6,400 MB/s. It is commonly sold as PC2-6400.
Which of the following types of printers uses a print head, ribbon, and tractor feed?
The impact printer uses a print head, ribbon, and tractor feed. An example of an impact printer is the dot matrix. Laser printers are much more complex and use more parts. Inkjet printers use a print head but use an ink cartridge instead of a ribbon and don’t use a tractor feed. Thermal printers use a print head and a special heating element.
Which of the following is a possible symptom of a failing CPU?
A. CPU is beyond the recommended voltage range.
B. Computer won’t boot.
C. BIOS reports low temperatures within the case.
D. Spyware is installed into the browser.
If the CPU is running beyond the recommended voltage range for extended periods of time, it can be a sign of a failing CPU. It could also be caused by overclocking. Check in the BIOS to see if the CPU is overclocked or not. If the computer won’t boot at all, another problem might have occurred, or the CPU might have already failed. Low case temperatures are a good thing (if they aren’t below freezing!), and spyware is unrelated to this issue.
Which of the following cable types is not affected by EMI but requires specialized tools to install?
A. Cat 6
C. Fiber optic
C. Fiber optic cable is the only answer listed that is not affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI). This is because it does not use copper wire or electricity, but instead uses glass or plastic fibers and light. Any copper cable will be susceptible to EMI to a certain degree. Regular UTP cable such as Cat 5e or Cat 6 will be very susceptible, coaxial slightly less, and shielded twisted-pair (STP) even less than that. STP is difficult to install and must be grounded; because of this, it is found less commonly in networks. To truly protect from EMI, fiber optic is the best way to go. It often requires special tools during installation in order to splice the fibers properly and test the connection effectively.
Setting an administrator password in the BIOS accomplishes which of the following?
A. Prevents a user from rearranging the boot order
B. Prevents a user from reading email
C. Prevents a virus from infecting the MBR
D. Prevents an attacker from opening the case
Setting an admin password in the BIOS/UEFI prevents a user from rearranging the boot order. The idea behind this is to stop a person from attempting to boot off of an optical disc or USB flash drive. As an administrator, you should change the BIOS boot order to hard drive first. Then apply an administrative (also known as supervisory) password. That’ll stop ‘em right in their tracks! The admin password does not prevent any of the other listed answers. To prevent a user from reading email, you would have to remove email applications (such as Outlook) and probably take away the browser, too! (Doesn’t sound feasible.) To prevent a virus from infecting the MBR, you could turn on boot sector scanning in the BIOS (if the motherboard supports it). To prevent an attacker from opening the case, use a case lock. To find out if someone attempted to get into the computer itself, turn on the chassis intrusion alert in the BIOS.
Which of the following functions is performed by the external power supply of a laptop?
A. Increases voltage
B. Stores power
C. Converts DC power to AC power
D. Converts AC power to DC power
The external power supply of the laptop converts AC to DC for the system to use and for charging the battery. It is known as the power adapter, and it needs to run at a very specific voltage. In fact, different make and model power adapters will usually not work with different laptops, even if the voltages are only slightly different. The adapter does not store power; that is the responsibility of the laptop battery. It is also accomplished by a UPS, though you probably wouldn’t lug one of those around with your laptop while traveling.
How many pins would you see in a high-quality printhead on a dot matrix printer?
High-quality dot matrix printheads can come in 9, 18, or 24 pins, with 24 being the highest quality.
What is an LCD display’s contrast ratio defined as?
A. Power consumption
B. Display resolution and brightness
C. The brightest and darkest outputs
D. Power savings
LCD contrast ratio is the brightness of the brightest color (measured as white) compared to the darkest color (measured as black). Static contrast ratio measurements are static; this done as a test with a checkerboard pattern. But there is also the dynamic contrast ratio, a newer technology in LCD displays that adjusts dynamically during darker scenes in an attempt to give better black levels. It usually has a higher ratio, but it should be noted that there is no real uniform standard for measuring contrast ratio.
Which of the following tools can protect you in the case of a surge?
A. Torx screwdriver
B. Antistatic strap
D. Antistatic mat
Most antistatic straps come with a 1 megaohm resistor, which can protect against surges. However, the best way to avoid a surge is to 1) make sure the computer is unplugged before working on it; and 2) don’t touch any components that hold a charge. This means: don’t open power supplies or CRT monitors, don’t touch capacitors on any circuit boards such as motherboards, and, of course, stay away from any other electrical devices when working on computers.
Which of the following connectors can have audio and video pass through it?
High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI), as the word multimedia implies, can transmit video and audio signals. VGA, RGB, and DVI are video standards only, with DVI being the newest and most commonly used on PC monitors.
Which of the following devices limits network broadcasts, segments IP address ranges, and interconnects different physical media?
A router can limit network broadcasts through segmenting and programmed routing of data. This is part of a router’s job when connecting two or more networks. It is also used with different media. For example, you might have a LAN that uses twisted-pair cable, but the router connects to the Internet via a fiber-optic connection. That one router will have ports for both types of connections. A switch connects multiple computers together on the LAN; it does not limit IP-based network broadcasts. However, the switch does not segment by IP address—it communicates with computers and segments the network via MAC addresses. Also, the switch will normally use one type of media: twisted pair, connecting to RJ45 ports. However, it is possible that the switch might connect to another switch by way of a specialized fiber-optic connector. A wireless access point (WAP) connects the computers on the wireless LAN (WLAN). It often has only one connection, a single RJ45 port. A hardware-based firewall usually connects connects to the network via RJ45; regardless, it will have only one or only a few connections. It doesn’t deal with routing, or broadcasts; instead it prevents intrusion to a network.
You just upgraded the CPU. Which of the following issues can make your computer shut down automatically after a few minutes? (Select the best answer.)
A. Wrong CPU driver.
B. Wrong voltage to the CPU.
C. Incorrect CPU has been installed.
D. The CPU has overheated.
The CPU could overheat if thermal compound has not been applied correctly (which is common) or if it is not seated properly (which is rare). As part of the boot process, power needs to verify the CPU. If the wrong voltage is running to the CPU, the system won’t even boot. If an incorrect CPU has been installed, the system will probably not boot, especially if the BIOS doesn’t recognize it. Finally, the CPU doesn’t use a driver; instead the BIOS recognizes it (or doesn’t, if it needs a BIOS update) and passes that information to the operating system.
Which of the following addresses is a valid IPv4 address for a network host?
Of the answers listed, 172.17.58.254 is the only valid IPv4 address for a network host. A host on the network is any computer or network device that uses an IP address to communicate with other computers or devices (hosts). 172.17.58.254 is a Class B private IP address so it fits the description of a valid IPv4 address for a network host. 127.0.0.1 is the local loopback address. Every computer using TCP/IP gets this address; it is used for testing. It cannot be used to communicate with other hosts on the network. 169.254.0.0/16 means an IP address of 169.254.0.0 with a default subnet mask of 255.255.0.0, indicating the network number is 169.254. It is not a valid host IP address because it ends in 0.0. The first IP address of a network is always reserved for the network number; it cannot be used by a host. Otherwise, if the address was, say, 169.254.0.1, the address would work, but because it is an APIPA address, it would be able to communicate only with other systems using APIPA addresses. 255.10.15.7 is not valid. That address is within the Class E reserved range. Normal host IP addresses’ first octet will either be between 1 and 126, or 128 and 223, but not between 224 and 255.
You want to upgrade memory in your computer. Which of the following is user-replaceable memory in a PC?
Dynamic random access memory (DRAM) is a module (or stick) of memory that you can install into a motherboard. SDRAM, DDR, DDR2, DDR3, and DDR4 are all examples of DRAM. The complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS) is a chip that is soldered onto the motherboard that works in conjunction with the Basic Input/Output System, another chip soldered on to the motherboard. Static RAM (SRAM) is memory that is nonvolatile (as opposed to DRAM); it is also soldered to the circuit board. Read-only memory (ROM) is usually not serviceable. The BIOS resides on a ROM chip, more specifically an electrically erasable programmable ROM (EEPROM) chip.
Which of the following IP addresses is private?
172.31.1.1 is the only address listed that is private. It is within the Class B range of private addresses: 172.16.1.1–172.31.255.255. 184.108.40.206 is not private because it is on the Class A 11 network. The Class A private range is within the 10.0.0.0 network. 220.127.116.11 is not private either. Microsoft’s APIPA, however, uses the 169.254.0.0 network, which is private. 18.104.22.168 is public because of the second octet: 169. The Class C private range is 192.168.0.0–192.168.255.255.
Which of the following is the local loopback IPv6 address?
The IPv6 loopback address used for testing is ::1. This determines if IPv6 is working correctly on the network card but does not generate network traffic. It exists on every computer that runs IPv6. 127.0.0.1 is the IPv4 loopback address. 192.168.0.0 is simply a private IP network number. FE80::/10 is the range of auto-assigned addresses in IPv6.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning IPv6 addresses?
A. They cannot be used with IPv4.
B. They are supported by all routers.
C. They represent addressing using 128 bits.
D. They require fiber optic connections.
The only statement that is correct concerning IPv6 is that it uses 128-bit addressing. This is compared to IPv4, which uses 32-bit addresses. IPv6 and IPv4 can cohabit a computer with no problems. IPv6 is not necessarily supported by all routers. Some routers still only support IPv4. IPv6 is a logical concept. The physical cable that connects to the computer has no bearing over which IP version is used.
Which of the following operating CPU temperatures is typical?
A. 60° Fahrenheit
B. 60° Celsius
C. 72° Fahrenheit
D. 72° Celsius
60° Celsius is a typical operating temperature for CPUs. Keep in mind that the operating range may be above or below that. Many computers hover around 30° to 35° Celsius. On the other hand, 72° Celsius becomes much less typical, even if the user is overclocking the system. 60° Fahrenheit is equal to 15.5° Celsius. A processor will not run that cold (but it would be pretty efficient if it did!). 72° Fahrenheit falls within the range of room temperature and is what you should set the room temperature for computers to run at their best.
Which of the following printer technologies should be used to print payroll checks on paper forms that have a carbon backing?
The impact printer technology is what you want. This strikes the ribbon, and consequently the paper with a printhead. The physical hammering action causes the carbon backing to take effect and apply text to the next layer of paper. Multipart forms such as these are commonly used for receipts. Laser printers can print to special multipart forms, but not ones with carbon backing. Inkjet and thermal printers are not used with multi-part forms usually.
Which of the following tools can be used to test an AC outlet? (Select the two best answers.)
B. PSU tester
C. Receptacle tester
D. Loopback plug
A. and C.
A receptacle tester and multimeter can be used (with caution) to test an AC outlet. A power supply (PSU) tester is used to test the main P1 power connection (and possibly other connections) of a power supply. There are various loopback plugs for testing ports on the back of a PC (for example, the RJ45 loopback plug), but these have nothing to do with testing an AC outlet.
Which of the following is not a configuration that can be made in the BIOS/UEFI?
A. Boot sequence
B. Temperature thresholds
D. Install drivers
E. Intrusion detection
You cannot install drivers to the BIOS/UEFI. Drivers are software that allow the operating system to communicate with hardware; they can be configured in the Device Manager in Windows. The rest of the answers can be configured in the BIOS. The boot sequence (also known as boot priority or boot order) allows you to select which device will be booted off of first (the hard drive is the most secure). Temperature thresholds allow you to set alerts and possibly shut down the system if the CPU runs too hot.
Which of the following traits and port numbers are associated with POP3?
A. Receives inbound email on port 110
B. Receives inbound email on port 25
C. Sends outbound email on port 110
D. Sends outbound email on port 25
A. POP3 is the protocol used by email clients to receive email. It makes use of Port 110. SMTP is used by email clients to send email. It uses port 25.
Which type of cable should be used to connect a laptop directly to a PC?
A. Cat 6 patch cable
B. Parallel cable
C. IEEE 1394b cable
D. Cat 5e crossover cable
To connect one computer to another directly by way of network adapter cards, use a crossover cable (the category such as 5e or 6 doesn’t matter). That cable is designed to connect like devices. It is wired as T568B on one end and T568A on the other. Those standards are ratified by the Telecommunications Industries Association/Electronic Industries Alliance (TIA/EIA). A regular (and more common) Cat 6 patch cable is known as a straight-through cable. It is used to connect unlike devices, such as a computer to a switch. Normally this is wired with the 568B standard on each end. A parallel cable might be used to connect an older printer to a computer or an external hard drive to a SCSI card. IEEE 1394 cables are not used to connect computers to each other; they are used to connect external hard drives to IEEE 1394 or FireWire ports.
In order to perform a network installation of Windows, which of the following must be supported by the computer’s network interface card?
Network installations require that the network card be configured for Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE). This allows the network card to boot off of the network, locate a network installation server, and request that the installation begin. This configuration might be done in the BIOS/UEFI of the computer (if the network adapter is integrated to the motherboard), within a special program in Windows, or one that boots from disc or other removable media (if the network adapter is an adapter card). Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is an expansion bus that accepts network adapter cards, sound cards, and so on. PCL stands for Printer Command Language, developed by HP so a computer can properly communicate with dot matrix or thermal printers. PnP stands for plug and play, a Windows technology that allows devices to be located and installed automatically.
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of a dual-core processor versus a single-core processor?
A. A dual-core processor has two cores, with separate caches, on the same physical chip.
B. A dual-core processor has several unique cores, with the same cache, on two different chips.
C. A dual-core processor uses higher voltage than a single-core processor.
D. A dual-core processor requires more RAM to function than a single-core processor.
A dual-core processor has two cores, with separate caches, on the same physical chip. A processor with several cores would be known as multi-core (quad-core or hex-core). Dual-core processors are generally more efficient than older single-core processors and often use less voltage. A dual-core processor does not require more RAM than a single-core, but it usually requires more cache memory. Every core of a multi-core CPU has its own L1 and L2 cache.
Which of the following devices is the least likely to be replaced on a laptop?
C. PC Card
The CPU is the least likely to be replaced. You would probably need to replace other equipment, too, in this case. Just like PCs, though, the CPU should rarely fail. However, you might upgrade, replace, or add to RAM. PC Cards (PCMCIA) are commonly implemented as network adapters, modems, and more. It is common to install and remove PC Cards and their successors: ExpressCards. Laptop keyboards fall victim to coffee, overuse, and other damage over time and sometimes need to be replaced.
If your “bandwidth” is 1000 Mbps, how many bits are you sending/receiving? (Select the two best answers.)
A. 100,000,000 bits per minute
B. 1000 bits per second
C. 1,000,000,000 bits per second
D. 1 gigabit per second
C. and D.
1000 Mbps is 1000 megabits per second, otherwise notated as 1,000,000,000 bits per second, or 1 gigabit per second.
Which of the following can send data the farthest?
A. Multi-mode fiber
B. Single-mode fiber
Single-mode fiber optic cable can send data farther than any of the other answers—up to hundreds of kilometers. Multi-mode fiber optic cable can send data about 600 meters. STP is a type of twisted pair; all twisted pair is limited to 100 meters or 328 feet. Coaxial cable is limited to 200 or 500 meters, depending on the type.
You need to expand the peripherals of a computer, but the system doesn’t have You need to expand the peripherals of a computer, but the system doesn’t have enough ports. Which type of card should be installed?
B. Network Adapter
C. USB card
D. TV tuner card
Which of the following is the typical speed of a SATA hard drive?
A. 1000 Mbps
B. 3.1 ghz
C. 8 gb
D. 7200 RPM
other common speed: 5400 rpv; 10,000 rpm; and 15,000 rpm.
1000 mbps common network data transfer rate
Sata hard drives have DTR of 6 gb/s (600 MB/s) or 3 gb/s (300 MB/s)
Whats the difference b/w switch and a router?
A. A switch interconnects devices on the same network so that they can communicate; a router interconnects one or more networks.
B. A router broadcasts all data packets that are sent on the network; a switch transmits data directly to the device.
C. A switch broadcasts all data packets that are sent on the network; a router transmits data directly to the device.
D. A switch interconnects one or more networks; a router interconnects devices on a network.
Switch is in charge of connecting devices on the LAN. Router connects LAN to another LAN, to the internet, or both.
Which of the following is the best media to backup several gb of data daily ?
B. Dual Layer DVD
C. USB flash drive
Digital Linear Tape / Super DLT - used in large corporations. Have capacity of 800 GB. DVD/DDVD have 4.7-17 gb. USB sticks can go up to 64 gb
You are required to rip the contents of a CD to a compressed file format that be read easily on PCs, Linux computers, or Macs. Which format should be use?
MPEG Audio layer 3
.AAC = Advanced Audio Coding for apple and gaming consoles
.WMA = Windows Media Audio
.MOV = QuickTime file Format
Replace memory card in smartphone with which type of memory?
CF = compact flash used with comps/laptops/handheld comps
Organization relies on server farms for resources and is less reliant on client comp. What type of client comp is most likely used?
A. Virtualization Workstation
B. Client Server
C. Thin Client
D. Thick Client
OS are embedded with Flash memory and rest of the info is required comes from server. Thin clients don't normally have hard drives (diskless workstation) Virtualization stations need hard drives and needs resources but are not dependent servers. Client/Server is a type of networking organizational technique. Thick clients are typical desktop comps
Which statement best describes the respective functions of the two corona wires in a laser printer? (select two)
A. Conditions the drum to be written
B. transfers toner from the drum to the paper
C. Fuses the toner to the paper
D. Cleans the drum
A. and B.
In the Charging step, the drum is conditioned/charged by primary corona wire (negatively charged) and is prepared for writing. In transferring step, the paper is positively charged by the transfer corona wire, preparing it to accept the toner from the drum
What are the main steps of a laser printer?
Main Steps of laser printer:
After a blackout, the power comes back on, causing a surge to occur on all the computers and equipment in the office. Your coworker’s laptop display doesn’t come on. However, if you look closely at the display, you can see that Windows is running, but very dimly. Which of the following statements describes a potential cause of this problem?
A. The inverter has been shorted out.
B. The power supply has failed.
C. The display is not getting power.
D. The display driver has failed.
Power surges can cause the inverter to short out, after which the cold-cathode fluorescent lamps (CCFL) cannot get any power. Need to open LCD panel and replace the inverter.
Which of the following tools should be used to test a 24 pin ATX 12v power connector?
A. Torx Screwdriver
C. Receptacle Tester
D. Toner and probe kit
It can test each individual wire's voltage. Better to use PSU tester - tests all wires in one shot. Torx opens computer (T-10 common). Receptacle tester is used to test an AC outlet. Tone and probe kit used to test telephone and network connections for continuity (can test only one pair of the wires in the cable).
Which of the following uses port 427?
Service Location Protocol = 427 It enables access to network services w/o previous config of the client comp.
FTP = 21
DNS = 53
HTTPS = 443
RDP = 3389
Which of the following ports is used by AFP?
A = SSH
B = Telnet
C = HTTP
D = IMAP
E = SMB
Which of the following is a common CPU for a tablet computer?
A. Core i7
B. Phenom II
Advance RISC Machine. Designed for simplicity and low power usage
FM2 is a socket type used by AMD cpu's
Which is a common charging port on Android smartphones?
A. Standard USB type A
B. Mini-A USB
C. Standard B USB
D. Micro-B USB
Which of the following does a laptop have, yet a tablet doesn't?
D. Wireless Network adapter
At the beginning of the workday, a user informs you that her computer is not working. When you examine the computer, you notice that nothing is on the display. Which of the following should be done first?
A. Check if the monitor is connected to comp
B. Check if monitor is on
C. Check if comp is plugged in
D. Reinstall video driver
B. Check if comp is plugged in
A customer reports that when his computer is turned on the screen is blank except for some text and a flashing cursor. He also tells you that there are numbers counting upward when the computer beeps and then freezes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. Comp has faulty memory
B. Corrupt MBR
D. Comp is attempting to boot of network
Memory may need to be reseated properly. Flashing courser tells you that the system is not posting properly. Number counting up are the system checking the RAM. If system beeps and freezes during this count up, RAM has an issue. Corrupt MBR would either give message "missing OS" or the "MBR is corrupt". If comp boots off network, you would see gray text and spinning pipe sign as it attempts to find DHCP sever
Joey runs the command ipconfig and sees that the IP address his computer is using is 169.254.50.68. Which of the following statements describes the most likely issue?
A. Comp cannnot access the DHCP server
B. Comp cannot access POP3 server
C. Comp cannot access DNS server
D. Comp cannot access WINS server
APIPA address - simple ipconfig /release and /renew fixes the problem
WINS server used for resolving NetBios names to IP address
What could cause ghost image on the paper outputted by a laser printer?
A. Transfer Corona Wite
B. Primary Corona Wire
C. Pickup Rollers
D. Photosensitive drum
Drum has some kind of imperfection or is dirty, especially if the image reappears at equal intervals. Replace the drum or toner cartridge. Another sign is that the fuser assembly has been damaged and needs to be replaced
Mary Installed new sound card and speakers; however she cannot get any sound from the speakers. Which of the following statements describes the most likely cause (select all that apply)
A. Speaker power is not plugged in
B. Sound Card is not installed
C. Sound card is plugged into wrong slot
D. Speaker connector is in the wrong jack
A. , B. and D.
Plug into 1/8 jack
Laptop with integrated 802.11 n/g card is unable to connect to any wireless networks. It did yesterday
A. Wireless card drivers not installed
B. Wireless card disabled in bios
C. Wireless card firmware requires update
D. Wireless hardware switch is turned off
The IP address of Davidlprowse.com is 22.214.171.124. You can ping the IP address 126.96.36.199, but you cannot ping Davidlprowse.com. Which of the following statements describes the most likely cause?
A. Davidlprowse.com is down.
B. The DHCP server is down.
C. The DNS server is down.
D. The AD DS server is down.
A newly built computer runs through the POST, but it doesn’t recognize the specific CPU that was just installed. Instead, it recognizes it as a generic CPU. Which of the following is the first thing you should check?
A. Whether the CPU is seated properly
B. The version of the firmware for the motherboard
C. Whether it is the correct CPU for the motherboard D. The version of Windows installed
Which command displays network interface card's MAC address?
B. Ipconfig /all
D. Ipconfig /release
Ipconfig only shows ip address, subnet, and gateway
Signal strength for a laptop’s wireless connection is low (yellow in color and only one bar). The laptop is on the first floor of a house. The wireless access point (WAP) is in the basement. Which of the following can improve signal strength? Select two answers
A. Use WAP signal booster
B. Move WAP from basement to 1st floor
C. Download latest driver for the NIC
D. Download the latest BIOS for the laptop
A. and B.
A customer reports that print jobs sent to a local printer are printing as blank pieces of paper. Which of the following can help you to determine the cause?
A. Reload the printer drivers
B. Stop and restart the print spooler
C. Replace the printer cable
D. Print an internal test page
First try printing an internal test page, meaning from the printer’s onscreen display. If that doesn’t work, you need to start troubleshooting the printer; perhaps the toner cartridge is empty, or maybe a corona wire is empty; perhaps the toner cartridge is empty, or maybe a corona wire is malfunctioning. If the test page prints fine, you can check the printer drivers and other settings at the computer that uses the printer. Restarting the spooler should not help in this situation. If the spooler is stalled, then no paper should come out of the printer. Likewise, printer cable should not have to be replaced.
Which of the following is the first thing you should check when a computer cannot get on the Internet?
A. NIC driver
B. Disk defrag
C. Patch cable
D. Firewall settings
Check simple solutions first.
Comp boots up first time and beeps. You dont have the beep codes memorized. Which of the following are the best devices to examine first? select two
C. Video Card
A and C
What are examples of virtual printing? Select two
A. start printing after last page is spooled
B. Print to XPS
C. Print to a printer pool
D. Print to PRN
B. and D.
Two examples of virtual printing include XPS printing and print to file (one example of which saves the file as a .prn). Other examples include printing to PDF and printing to image. “Start printing after the last page is spooled” is a spooling setting used to lessen the load on physical or virtual printers, but is a technology that printers use, not a type of virtual printing. Printing to a printer pool is another type of printer configuration used to print to a group of printers, making use of the collective whole for efficiency; but again, these could be physical or virtual printers and it is not a type of virtual printing in of itself.
A coworker needs to print to a printer from a laptop running Windows. The printer has a USB and an Ethernet connector. Which of the following is the easiest way to connect the printer to the laptop?
A. Use the Thunderbolt port.
B. Use the network connection.
C. Use the USB connector.
D. Use the Ethernet connector.