Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The majority of transaminases exhibit a specificity for L-glutamate and alpha-ketoglutarate.

A

True.

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2
Q

Urea is synthesized in mammalian kidneys.

A

False.

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3
Q

Nitrogen fixation, catalyzed by the enzyme nitrogenase, is a process that requires energy.

A

True.

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4
Q

Nitrogen fixation via nitrogenase produces hydrogen gas as well as ammonia.

A

True.

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5
Q

Glutamine is a nitrogen donor in several biosynthetic reactions and represents a means of carry nitrogen between tissues.

A

True.

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6
Q

Each of the 20 common amino acids can be described as being either glucogenic or ketogenic.

A

False.

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7
Q

Arginase is an enzyme found at high activity levels in nearly all mammalian organs and tissues.

A

False.

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8
Q

Because of the importance of their function, regulatory proteins have long half-lives.

A

False.

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9
Q

Like most catabolic processes, the protein hydrolysis that occurs during turnover is not energy consuming.

A

False.

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10
Q

The urea cycle requires 4 ATP equivalents per molecule of urea that is produced.

A

True.

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11
Q

A transaminase enzyme would convert alanine to _________ while converting ___________ to glutamate.

A

pyruvate

alpha ketoglutarate

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12
Q

When there is excess ammonia and little aspartate available for the urea cycle, ammonia combines with ___________ to produce glutamate, which then undergoes transamination with _____________ to produce the necessary oxaloacetate.

A

alpha ketoglutarate

oxaloacetate

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13
Q

Amino acids whose carbon chains are catabolized to form acetyl CoA are said to be _____________. Those that form intermediates of glycolysis or the citric acid cycle are said to be ___________.

A

ketogenic

glucogenic

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14
Q

In the biosphere, the two major sources of nitrogen ultimately used for amino acid synthesis are ____________ and _____________.

A

atmosphere N2

soil NO3-

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15
Q

The sources of the two nitrogen atoms and the carbon atom of urea are ___________, __________, and __________, respectively.

A

NH4+
aspartate
HCO3-

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16
Q

One of the nitrogen atoms and the carbon atom of urea enter the urea cycle as a single molecule, namely ________________.

A

carbamoyl phosphate

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17
Q

The urea cycle requires energy to form urea. The equivalent of ________ ATP molecules is required.

A

4

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18
Q

The exchange of glucose and alanine between muscle and liver is called the __________.

A

glucose-alanine cycle

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19
Q

Several molecules of the protein ____________ are attached to proteins targeted for degradation.

A

ubiquitin

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20
Q

The multiprotein complex that hydrolyzes targeted proteins to peptides during the turnover process is called the _______________.

A

proteasome

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21
Q

The nitrogenous bases of nucleotides and nucleosides are of two types - the purines, which are heterocycles containing six atoms, and the pyrimidines, which are heterobicycles containing nine atoms.

A

False.

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22
Q

Nucleotide biosynthesis occurs only in cells that undergo replication.

A

False.

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23
Q

To synthesize the purine ring, liver cells require metabolic sources of glycine, formate, glutamine, CO2, and aspartate.

A

True.

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24
Q

In purine nucleotide synthesis, the purine ring is synthesized and then attached to ribose-5-phosphate to make nucleotides. In pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis, the components of the pyrimidine ring are assembled on ribose-5-phosphate.

A

False.

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25
Q

Inosine 5’-monophosphate (IMP) is an intermediate from which both 5’-AMP and 5’-GMP are synthesized.

A

True.

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26
Q

To synthesize GMP from IMP, ATP is required, whereas to synthesize AMP from IMP, GTP is required.

A

True.

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27
Q

To synthesize the pyrimidine ring, liver cells require asparagine, glutamate and bicarbonate.

A

False.

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28
Q

The first step in the pyrimidine ring biosynthesis involves formation of carbamoyl phosphate, catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase. This is the same enzyme that operates in the urea cycle.

A

False.

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29
Q

Uric acid, an avian excretion product, is a pyrimidine.

A

False

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30
Q

Orotate is the end product of the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway and is the derivative from which the pyrimidine nucleosides and nucleotides are made.

A

False.

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31
Q

The disease gout is the result of excess amounts of uric acid.

A

True.

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32
Q

dTMP is formed by the reduction of the ribose moiety of ribothymidylate.

A

False.

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33
Q

Most free purine and pyrimidine molecules are salvaged, but some are catabolized. Catabolism of both purine and pyrimidine molecules leads to the excretory product uric acid.

A

False.

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34
Q

The components of a nucleotide are a/an _____________, a/an ______________, and _____________.

A

purine or pyrimidine base
ribose or deoxyribose
1 or more phosphate groups

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35
Q

The active form of ribose 5-phosphate required for nucleotide biosynthesis is ____________.

A

PRPP

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36
Q

In liver cells, the location of purine biosynthesis is ____________.

A

the cytosol

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37
Q

During purine nucleotide synthesis, the first reaction of 5-phosphoribosyl 1-pyrophosphate is the addition of nitrogen to the ribose residue. The source of nitrogen is ___________.

A

glutamine

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38
Q

Carbamoyl phosphate is involved in the biosynthesis of which type of nucleotides, the pyrimidines or the purines.

A

pyrimidines

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39
Q

The recycling of products from the normal cellular breakdown of nuclei acids is an energy-conserving process called ____________.

A

salvage

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40
Q

A common treatment for gout, allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Instead of producing ______________, the two more soluble products of purine metabolism _____________ and _____________.

A

uric acid
xanthine
hypoxathine

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41
Q

CTP is formed from UTP by transformation of the keto group at C-4 of the pyrimidine ring to an amino group. The source of the nitrogen for this amino group is __________ that is converted to __________.

A

glutamine

glutamate

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42
Q

Anticancer drugs such as 5-fluorouracil and methotrexate prevent the synthesis of ____________.

A

dTMP

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43
Q

Nucleotides are molecules that contain only a sugar and a nitrogenous base.

A

False.

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44
Q

Nucleosides are obtained as breakdown products of nucleic acids and contain a pentose and a nitrogenous base bonded to the pentose by a beta-N-glycosidic bond.

A

True.

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45
Q

Uracil and thymine are members of the pyrimidine family and are typically found as components of DNA.

A

False.

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46
Q

The nucleoside moieties of nucleic acids exist predominantly in the anticonformations due to steric hindrance present in the syn conformation.

A

True.

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47
Q

When incorporated into DNA, thymine and adenine each contain one hydrogen bond donor and one hydrogen bond acceptor.

A

True.

48
Q

Chargaff determined that the molar ratios of adenine to thymine and of guanine to cytosine in DNA are about one. This means that the sum of the adenine + thymine bases will be equal to the sum of the guanine + cytosine bases.

A

False.

49
Q

The Watson-Crick model of DNA is a right-handed helix of two separate chains, both oriented in the same direction.

A

False.

50
Q

When incorporated into DNA, guanine and cytosine each contain two hydrogen bond donors and two hydrogen bond acceptors.

A

False.

51
Q

Endonucleases are enzymes that catalyze the cleavage of phosphodiester linkages in the interior of nucleic acid polymers.

A

True.

52
Q

DNA can be hydrolyzed in the laboratory by dilute (less than 0.5 M) NaOH.

A

False.

53
Q

Hydrolysis of RNA by the catalytic action of pancreatic ribonuclease or by dilute NaOH involves formation of a 2’,3’-cyclic nucleoside monophosphate intermediate.

A

True.

54
Q

Under physiological conditions, nucleic acids are polyanions.

A

True.

55
Q

A-DNA, B-DNA, and Z-DNA all exist in vivo.

A

True.

56
Q

2,4-Dioxopyrimidine is more commonly known as ____________.

A

uracil

57
Q

2-Oxo-4-aminopyrimidine is more commonly known as ______________.

A

cytosine

58
Q

Deoxythmidine-5’-triphosphate is commonly abbreviated as ________________.

A

dTTP

59
Q

DNA polymerase requires ______________ as substrates for the extension of a DNA chain.

A

deoxynucleoside triphosphates

60
Q

The hydrated, more common form of DNA is ______________.

A

B-DNA

61
Q

The type of DNA that exists as a left-handed helix is _____________.

A

Z-DNA

62
Q

The allowed base pairing in DNA is thymine with ___________ and cytosine with ___________.

A

adenine

guanine

63
Q

The process of using heat to dissociate duplex DNA into separate single strands is called ________________. The temperature at which half of the DNA has become single stranded is called the __________________.

A

melting

Tm (melting temperature)

64
Q

Enzymes that break DNA, unwind or overwind the double helix, and rejoin the strands are called ________________.

A

topoisomerases

65
Q

RNA molecules that carry information from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis are called _________.

A

mRNA

66
Q

When certain bases in DNA are methylated for protection from the cell’s own restriction endonucleases, the -CH3 group is supplied by __________________.

A

s-adenosyl methionine

67
Q

A technique that utilizes restriction endonucleases to analyze samples of DNA and identify individuals from a large population is called _________________.

A

DNA fingerprinting

68
Q

The conservative model of DNA replication is supported by experimental evidence.

A

False.

69
Q

In E. coli, replication is unidirectional.

A

False.

70
Q

Bacterial replication requires dAMP, dTMP, dGMP, and dCMP.

A

False.

71
Q

Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells have several different DNA polymerases that are involved in replication and repair of DNA.

A

True.

72
Q

Kornberg’s enzyme (DNA polymerase I) catalyzes the synthesis of DNA if provided with only the four deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates.

A

False.

73
Q

DNA polymerase III performs the major role in prokaryotic replication.

A

True.

74
Q

DNA polymerase III requires only a single-stranded DNA template for replication.

A

False.

75
Q

The reaction by which deoxyribonucleotides are added during replication is a near-equilibrium process.

A

False.

76
Q

Eukaryotic Okazaki fragments are smaller than prokaryotic Okazaki fragments.

A

True.

77
Q

DNA ligase plays a role in normal DNA replication as well as in repair of damaged DNA.

A

True.

78
Q

The location at which duplex DNA is unwound during replication and at which new DNA is being synthesized is called the ___________________.

A

replication fork

79
Q

During replication, proteins that bind to individual unwound DNA strands to prevent them from re-forming as a double helix are called _______________.

A

single strand binding protein (SSB)

80
Q

The DNA strand that serves as a complementary pattern along which a new DNA strand is synthesized is called the ____________ strand.

A

template

81
Q

Short segments of RNA required for synthesis of DNA on a template are called _____________ which are removed from the product DNA by the _____________ activity of DNA polymerase I.

A

primers

5’-3’ exonuclease

82
Q

The DNA strand formed as a continuous strand during replication is called the _________________ and the strand formed in a discontinuous process is called the ______________.

A

leading strand

lagging strand

83
Q

DNA sequencing is best done by using _____________ to effect termination of the growing DNA molecule, followed by _____________ to separate the resulting DNA fragments to determine their size.

A

dideoxyribonucleotides

electrophoresis

84
Q

Short segments of lagging-strand DNA formed by the discontinuous process are called _______________.

A

okazaki fragments

85
Q

_______________ is the name of the process by which DNA polymerase I catalyzes the formation of DNA segments to replace the RNA primer segments required by DNA polymerase III during replication.

A

Nick translation

86
Q

The direction of RNA synthesis is the same as that of DNA synthesis.

A

True.

87
Q

The unusual bases, such as N6-methyladenylate, inosinate, and dihydrouridylate, found in tRNA molecules are incorporated during transcription of the gene.

A

False.

88
Q

Promoter regions are found exclusively on the DNA template strand.

A

False.

89
Q

The RNA product of transcription is sequentially the same as that of the DNA coding strand, except that U replaces T.

A

True.

90
Q

Not all genes that encode enzymes are inducible.

A

True.

91
Q

Protein synthesis of prokaryotic mRNA molecules begins before synthesis of the mRNA molecule is complete.

A

True.

92
Q

It is common for eukaryotic mRNA molecules to have poly A tails.

A

True.

93
Q

Eukaryotic mRNA molecules are capped by the addition of a 7-methylguanylate group to the 3’ end of the mRNA molecule.

A

False.

94
Q

The 18S, 5.8S, and 28S rRNA molecules that are part of the human ribosomes are all present in a single precursor rRNA molecule.

A

True.

95
Q

The five classes of RNA include ___________, __________, __________, ___________, and __________.

A

transfer RNA
ribosomal RNA
small RNA molecules
regulator RNA

96
Q

The most abundant class of RNA in the cell is ___________.

A

ribosomal RNA

97
Q

The DNA region that acts as a transcription initiation signal is called the ___________, which is the site for the enzyme ___________ to bind.

A

promoter

RNA polymerase

98
Q

The prokaryotic RNA polymerase holoenzyme contains a ________________ that is responsible for the elongation of RNA and the ______________ that aids with initiation.

A

core polymerase

sigma factor

99
Q

Once a newly synthesized RNA molecule is approximately 10 nucleotides long, RNA polymerase undergoes the transition from ____________ to ___________ mode.

A

initiation

elongation

100
Q

_________ is the hexameric protein that aids in certain prokaryotic termination processes.

A

Rho factor

101
Q

The eukaryotic enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of mRNA precursors is _____________.

A

RNA polymerase II

102
Q

During splicing of eukaryotic mRNA molecules, internal sequences called __________ are removed from the primary RNA transcript. Sequences present in the primary RNA transcript and also in the mature RNA molecules are called ____________.

A

introns

exons

103
Q

The RNA molecules that combine with proteins to form the spliceosome are called ______________.

A

snRNAs

104
Q

Every cell must contain at least 20 different tRNA species.

A

True.

105
Q

tRNA molecules are relatively small molecules composed of less than 100 nucleotides.

A

True.

106
Q

A particular aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase will recognize a specific amino acid, but will bind and aminoacylate any tRNA.

A

False.

107
Q

The formation of an aminoacyl tRNA requires the input of 1 ATP equivalent.

A

False.

108
Q

Protein synthesis always begins at the amino terminus in prokaryotic systems.

A

True.

109
Q

Transfer RNA molecules are charged by the covalent attachment of the amino acid for which they are specific at the 5’ end of the tRNA.

A

False.

110
Q

N-Formylmethionyl-tRNA initiates protein synthesis in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic systems.

A

False

111
Q

Base pairing between aminoacyl-tRNA anticodon and an mRNA codon occurs in an antiparallel fashion.

A

True.

112
Q

When an aminoacyl tRNA synthetase acts to remove an amino acid mistakenly joined to a tRNA, the enzyme is exercising its _____________ activity.

A

proof reading

113
Q

The process by which the ribosome is shifted by one codon relative to mRNA is called ____________.

A

translocation

114
Q

The activation and incorporation of an amino acid into a growing peptide chain requires energy equivalent to the hydrolysis of ____ phosphoanydride bonds; ____ equivalents are used during amino acid activation while ____ equivalents are used during elongation.

A

4
2
2

115
Q

Proteins destined for secretion are synthesized with an N-terminal sequence, called the _________, which assists in transport of the protein into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum, as the protein is being synthesized. This sequence may be removed at a later time.

A

signal peptide

116
Q

Modification of protein chains is categorized as either ____________ or ____________ with regard to when they occur.

A

cotranslational

posttranslational