Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The O-H bonds in water are polar due to the high electronegativity of hydrogen.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Water is a polar molecule due to its bent geometry.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the liquid state, each water molecule has the potential to form hydrogen bonds with four other water molecules.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Compounds that dissolve readily in water are termed hydrophilic and include electrolytes as well as nonelectrolytes.

A

True.

Electrolytes (e.g. NaCl) are polar and dissociate into anions & cations, each surrounded by water molecules that form a solvation sphere. Nonelectrolytes also become hydrated by water due to hydrogen bond formation between water and polar –OH groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The osmotic pressure of an aqueous 0.001 M starch solution is greater than that of an aqueous 0.001 M glucose solution.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Polar molecules can induce polarity in nonpolar molecules.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An aqueous solution of pH 3.0 contains H2O, H+, and OH-.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An acid that dissociates to the extent of 88% in water would be termed a strong acid.

A

False.

An acid is weak if it dissociates less than 100% in water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A solution that contains 0.05 mol of lactic acid and 0.05 mol of potassium lactate per liter of solution has a pH of 3.86.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The major buffer system of the blood is the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The shell of water molecules that surrounds a dissolved ion or molecule is called a hydrosphere.

A

False.

It is called a solvation sphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Although they operate over similar distances, hydrogen bonds are much stronger than van der Waals forces.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In a buffer system, increasing the concentration of the conjugate base relative to that of the conjugate acid increases pH.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hydrophobic interactions explain why the olive oil in an open bottle does not readily evaporate.

A

False.

Hydrophobic interactions explain why hydrophobic molecules aggregate when placed in an aqueous environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ is the tendency of an atom to attract to itself the shared electrons is a covalent bond.

A

Electronegativity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

. ____ agents are certain ions and molecules that are poorly solvated in water and enhance the solubility of nonpolar compounds by disordering the water molecules.

A

Chaotropic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

____ molecules contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups.

A

Amphipathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Soap molecules dissolved in water tend to form aggregates called ____.

A

Micelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A shell of water molecules that forms around ions as they become dissolved is called a/an ____.

A

Solvation sphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Attractive forces between molecules, collectively called ____, can occur due to dipole-dipole attractions, ion-dipole attractions, and interactions between two nonpolar atoms or molecules that result in transiently induced dipoles, which are known as London dispersion forces.

A

Van der waals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The unit(s) of Kw, the ion-product constant of water, is/are ____.

A

M2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An acid or base that dissociates less than 100% in water is described as being ____.

A

weak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The unit(s) of Ka, the dissociation constant for a weak acid, is/are ____.

A

M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A solution that contains equal or nearly equal quantities of a weak acid and its conjugate base is called a/an ____.

A

buffer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The condition called ____ results when a person’s blood pH becomes lower than normal.

A

acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Compounds that dissolve in water to produce ions that can conduct a current through the resulting solution are called ____.

A

electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The strongest buffer in the bloodstream (including both plasma and red blood cells) after the carbon dioxide-carbonic acid-bicarbonate system is ____.

A

hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Within the hydrophobic interior of a protein, the attraction between two oppositely charged functional groups is often called a _____.

A

salt bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In a medium of pH 2.0, aspartic acid has a net positive charge.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

At physiological pH, lysine will have at least one ionizable group that is uncharged.

A

False.

At physiological pH, all three lysine’s ionizable groups will be charged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The amino acids with the most hydrophilic R-groups are overall uncharged at physiological pH.

A

False.

Most hydrophilic amino acids are arginine & lysine. Their R-groups are charged at physiological pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

One mole of aspartic acid in its fully protonated form would require three moles of OH- to convert it to the fully unprotonated form.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

All 20 amino acids used to make natural proteins are optically active.

A

False.

Glycine is not, and has no chiral center since its side chain is an H atom.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The isoelectric point for most of the amino acids that have nonpolar side chains is about six.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Since the common amino acids have the L-stereo configurations, one may assume that they will rotate plane-polarized light in a left-handed (levorotatory) direction.

A

False.

Direction of rotation of polarized light must be determined empirically. L- refers to the structural similarity to L-glyceraldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The addition of 0.015 mole of L-valine to a solution containing 0.015 mole of D-valine would produce a solution that would exhibit twice the degree of rotation of polarized light that the D-valine solution had before the addition.

A

False.

The equal and opposite optical activities of D- and L-valine components would cancel. Equal amounts of 2 enantiomers constitute a racemic mixture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A linear molecule made from amino acids linked end to end, containing four peptide bonds in its structure, is called a tetrapeptide.

A

False.

It’s a pentapeptide. The # of aa residues dictates the prefix used. Five residues would involve four peptide bonds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

All of the α-L amino acids with only one chiral carbon have the (S) designation in the RS system.

A

False.

Cysteine is the only exception. L-cysteine is R-cysteine because of side chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When electrophoresis is performed on a mixture of methionine and aspartic acid buffered at pH 5.25, methionine will move toward the cathode and aspartic acid will move toward the anode.

A

False.

pH of 5.7 is isoelectric point for methionine, so it will not migrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In SDS-PAGE, proteins are separated from each other primarily on the basis of their size and not their charge.

A

True.

SDS denatures proteins and associates w/ protein molecules giving all molecules a (-) charge proportional to their length. Thus, charge/mass ratios are the same for all SDS-proteins. Migration rates depend on size & charge/mass ratios. Since proteins coated w/ SDS anions have same charge/mass ratio, and migrate according to size only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Complete amino acid analysis of a peptide is possible using acid hydrolysis with, for example, 6 M HCl at 110°C for 16-72 hours.

A

False.

This process converts L-glutamine & L-asparagine to L-glutamic and L-aspartic acid. L-tryptophan is destroyed, and some L-serine, L-threonine, and L-tyrosine are lost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

It is easier to determine the amino acid sequence of a protein by sequencing the DNA of the gene that codes for that protein than by purifying and directly sequencing the protein itself.

A

True.

!!! However, sequencing DNA does not permit identification of post-translationally modified aa !!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Two proteins from different species that have very similar sequences are said to be ____.

A

homologous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

An amino acid in a dipolar ion form can be called a/an ____.

A

zwitterion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The pH at which a given amino acid carries a net zero charge is referred to as ____.

A

isoelectric point

46
Q

The covalent linkage formed by the oxidation of the side chains of two cysteine residues in a peptide or protein is called a/an ____.

A

disulfide bridge

47
Q

A measure of the relative hydrophobicity or hydrophilicity of a given amino acid is called its ____.

A

hydropathy

48
Q

The immediate surroundings of a side chain of a given amino acid residue in a protein are called its ____.

A

microenvironment

49
Q

D-leucine and L-leucine may be called a pair of ____.

A

enantiomers

50
Q

The specific sequence of amino acid residues in a peptide or protein is called its ____.

A

primary structure

51
Q

The method to determine the sequence of a peptide by reacting phenylisothiocyanate with the N-terminal amino acid residue is called ____.

A

Edman degradation procedure

52
Q

The sequence of a protein or peptide is given direction by indication the primary structure from its ____ to its ____.

A

N-terminus, C-terminus

53
Q

____ has the R-group with the highest pKa value of the 20 common amino acids.

A

Arginine

54
Q

____ and ____ are amide derivatives or aspartic acid and glutamic acid.

A

Asparagine, glutamine

55
Q

Secondary structural features of a protein are stabilized by covalent bonds.

A

False

Hydrogen bonds stabilize areas of secondary structure

56
Q

Nearly all peptide bonds in proteins studied to date have been found to have the trans conformation.

A

True

Trans is more favorable. Exception w/ peptide bond involving nitrogen of proline.

57
Q

The tertiary structure of a globular protein is its overall three-dimensional shape.

A

True.

58
Q

Metabolic proteins such as enzymes are globular proteins.

A

True.

59
Q

Myoglobin binds O2 more readily than does hemoglobin.

A

True

Myoglobin is half saturated at pO2 of 2.8 torr, but a pO2 of 26 torr is required for half saturation of hemoglobin.

60
Q

Fetal hemoglobin has a lower P50 than does adult hemoglobin, which indicates that fetal hemoglobin binds O2 less strongly than does adult hemoglobin.

A

False.

Indicates that fetal hemoglobin binds O2 more readily than does adult hemoglobin, making for efficient O2 transfer to the fetus

61
Q

Oxygen-binding characteristics of hemoglobin proved to be quite different from those of myoglobin due to radical differences in the primary structure of their respective protein chains.

A

False.

The primary structures of the protein chains are very similar

62
Q

The rise per amino acid residue in a segment of α-helix is called the pitch.

A

False

Pitch = distance along α-helix that constitutes one turn of the helix and involves ~ 3.6 aa residues.

63
Q

The heme group of hemoglobin binds oxygen more strongly alone than it does when present in the hemoglobin molecule.

A

False

An isolated heme does not bind oxygen, but is oxidized from Fe2+ to Fe3+.

64
Q

Recognizable combinations of α-helices and β-strands that appear in a number of different proteins are called domains.

A

False

They are called motifs.

Domains = independently folded regions, and may consist of combinations of motifs.

65
Q

The hydrophilic side chains of amino acid residues normally locate themselves toward the exterior of globular proteins.

A

True

Allows interaction of these water-loving groups w/ the water molecules that surround the protein.

66
Q

Denaturation destroys the biological activity of a protein by breaking many covalent bonds in the protein.

A

False

No covalent bonds are broken, however activity is lost due to loss of native tertiary structure.

67
Q

The quaternary structure of proteins is maintained predominantly by noncovalent interactions.

A

True

Salt bridges, hydrogen bonding, hydrophobic interactions, and disulfide bonds help maintain association of monomers of an oligomeric protein.

68
Q

Hemoglobin binds oxygen more strongly as the pH is lowered.

A

False

Low pH causes lowered oxygen affinity

69
Q

Collagen is an example of a fibrous protein that contains only one type of secondary structure. In case of collagen, this is an α-helix.

A

False

Collagen is composed of three left handed helical chains coiled around each other in a right-handed fashion

70
Q

Protein folding is impossible without aid from chaperone proteins.

A

False.

71
Q

____ is the name of a new area of study that involves large sets of proteins.

A

Proteomics

72
Q

The Bohr effect explains why hemoglobin has a ____ affinity for oxygen when levels of carbon dioxide and H+ are elevated.

A

decreased

73
Q

The predominant type of secondary structure seen in myoglobin is ____.

A

α-helix

74
Q

Denaturation of a protein by addition of a reducing agent indicates that ____ is/are present in the protein.

A

Disulfide bond

75
Q

The form of the protein chain that occurs upon denaturation is called ____.

A

random coil

76
Q

Proteins that possess quaternary structure are called ____.

A

Oligomeric proteins

77
Q

The actual site of oxygen binding in the heme of myoglobin occurs between ____ and ____.

A

Fe2+ of heme group, histidine residue

78
Q

Chaotropic agents, such as urea, cause denaturation of a protein mainly by disrupting ____.

A

Hydrophobic interactions

79
Q

The process by which a protein that has been denatured assumes its native shape is called ____.

A

renaturation

80
Q

The sigmoidal curve for binding of oxygen by hemoglobin illustrates the phenomenon of ____.

A

Positive cooperative binding

81
Q

An organic molecule in erythrocytes that lowers the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen is ____.

A

BPG

82
Q

Scurvy is a condition arising from the inability to make functional collagen. On a molecular level, hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline are not formed due to the absence of ____. This results in collagen that is not properly crosslinked.

A

Vit. C

83
Q

The interaction between the R-groups of a valine and leucine residue in a monomeric protein would contribute to ____ structure.

A

tertiary

84
Q

In the immune response, foreign compounds called ____ cause the synthesis of proteins called ____ that combine with and precipitate the foreign compounds and mark them for destruction.

A

Antigens, antibodies

85
Q

The activity of some proteins, such as hemoglobin, is modulated by specific small molecules called ____. Such proteins are called ____.

A

Allosteric modulators, allosteric proteins

86
Q

The only biological catalysts are the proteins called enzymes.

A

False

Ribozymes possess catalytic activity

87
Q

All enzymes require cofactors such as FAD and coenzymes A.

A

False

Many don’t require cofactors

88
Q

An enzyme that catalyzes the addition of a phosphoryl group to glucose would likely not catalyze the same reaction for glycerol.

A

True

Enzymes are specific. Often D-sugar is recognized, but NOT L-form.

89
Q

Any form of contact between an enzyme and its substrate will lead to reaction.

A

False

Substrate must fit specifically in the active site.

90
Q

The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex is an unsupported hypothesis.

A

False

Observed via X-ray crystallography

91
Q

A multi-substrate, enzyme-catalyzed reaction in which a product is released before all substrates have been bound to the enzyme is an example of a sequential kinetic mechanism.

A

False

Example of ping-pong mechanism

92
Q

Km and Vmax values can best be determined graphically from a plot of initial velocity, v0, versus substrate concentrations, [S]. This type of plot is known as a Michaelis-Menten plot.

A

False

Not best way. Lineweaver-Burk plot gives better approximation of these values

93
Q

The higher the Km value, the greater the affinity of an enzyme for its substrate.

A

False

Lower

94
Q

The Km values of enzymes for their substrates are usually slightly higher than the intracellular concentration of their substrates.

A

True

Intracellular enzymatic rates are sensitive to small changes in substrate concentrations

95
Q

A plot of kinetic data, vo vs. [S], that produces a sigmoidal curve indicates that cooperative interactions occur between enzyme subunits.

A

True.

96
Q

Most regulatory enzymes are oligomeric proteins that catalyze reactions at a committed step in a pathway.

A

True.

97
Q

Irreversible enzyme inhibitors form covalent bonds with side chains of the enzyme active site residues.

A

True

This permanently disables the enzyme unless the inhibitor is chemically removed.

98
Q

A noncompetitive inhibitor does not cause a change in the maximum velocity of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction but it does result in an increase in the apparent Km value.

A

False

Noncompetitive = decrease Vmax, no Km change
Competitive = increase Km, no Vmax change
99
Q

The region of an enzyme molecule with which the substrate must interact in order for catalysis to occur is called the ____.

A

Active site

100
Q

The short-lived species formed when enzyme and substrate interact initially is the ____.

A

Enzyme substrate complex

101
Q

Enzymes that catalyze the conversion of a molecule into is structural isomer would belong to the IUBMB category of ____.

A

isomerases

102
Q

The number of catalytic events catalyzed per second per enzyme molecule (or per active site) is called the ____.

A

Kcat

103
Q

The ratio kcat/km is called the ____ and is a measure of the ____.

A

Specificity constant, specificity of enzyme for its substrate

104
Q

Some enzymes are subject to control of activity by the addition and removal of phosphate groups. This is called regulation by ____.

A

Covalent modification

105
Q

Due to its structure, a/an ____ inhibitor binds in the active site of an enzyme.

A

competitive

106
Q

An inhibitor that does not alter the Km of the enzyme is a/an ____ inhibitor.

A

noncompetitive

107
Q

An inhibitor that alters both the Km and Vmax of the enzyme system is a/an ____ inhibitor.

A

uncompetitive

108
Q

Inhibition of a regulatory enzyme by an end product of the pathway is called ____ inhibition.

A

feedback

109
Q

Sites where allosteric effectors bind to enzymes are called ____.

A

Allosteric or regulatory sites

110
Q

An allosteric effector can be either a/an ____ or a/an ____.

A

Activator, inhibitor

111
Q

Acetylsalicylic acid, commonly known as aspirin, reacts with a serine residue in the active site of the enzyme cyclooxygenase. The acetyl group is transferred to the serine residue. This would be an example of ____ inhibition.

A

irreversible