Environment/Toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

Shivering is limited by _______

A

Glycogen Availability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The ability to shiver is lost at ____C

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

EKG findings seen in severe hypothermia include:

A
  1. Prolonged PRI
  2. Prolonged QT
  3. Osborne Waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Severe Hypothermia is when the core temp falls below ______

A

28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mild Hypothermia _________

A

33c to 35c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Moderate Hypothermia

A

29c to 32c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At 32c we start to see _________

A
Shivering Stop
LOC decrease
SVR fall
Acidosis Develop
Hyperglycemia Occur
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Below 28c we start to see _____

A

Hypotension

ECG changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In hypothermic arrest you should hold meds till the body temp increases above ______

A

30c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The single most critical step in treating a hypothermic pt is ______

A

removal from the cold environment and appropriate re-warming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heat Exhaustion is defined as _______

A

increased core temp without neuro changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blood Glucose level _______ in severe hypothermia

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cold pt’s don’t _________

A

Clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

VF risk is the highest at what temp?

A

22c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In hypothermia only start CPR if the monitor shows _____ or ______

A

vfib or asystole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In pt’s with hyperthermia a high cardiac output may lead to a ________

A

AMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Increase in sweat evaporation can lead to a loss of _____/hr

A

1-3L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Heat cramps are caused by _______

A

Hyponatremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treat Heat cramps with ____

A

0.9% NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Heat Stroke is defined as ____

A

LOC Altered

Core temp above 42c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In heatstroke pts monitor labs which include: _________

A
  1. ABG’s for acidosis
  2. Monitor Clotting factors and watch for DIC
  3. Monitor Liver Enzymes
  4. Watch Sodium levels and monitor for hyponatremia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rhabdo Treatment:

A
  1. Increase urine output to 2ml/kg/hr
  2. Alkalize urine with Bicarb
  3. Assist with diuresis with lasix and/or mannitol
23
Q

TCA overdose treatment:

A
  1. Bicarb

2. Norepi first choice pressor

24
Q

Beta Blocker Overdose Treatment:

A
  1. Atropine
  2. TCP asap
  3. Glucagon
  4. Dopamine
25
Q

Calcium Channel Blockers OD treatment:

A
  1. Calcium
  2. TCP
  3. Check Blood Sugar
26
Q

Digitalis OD treatment:

A
  1. Digibind
  2. TCP
  3. Lidocaine
  4. Dilantin
  5. Mag Sulfate
  6. Correct Electrolyte Imbalances
27
Q

K+ replacement rate:

A

Commonly 10-20 meq/hr

28
Q

Ethylene Glycol OD manifestation:

A
  1. Profound Anion-Gap
  2. Osmolar Gap
  3. Nystagmus/Blindness
29
Q

Ethylene Glycol OD Treatment:

A
  1. IV Ethanol GTT

2. Fomepizole

30
Q

Cyanide Poisoning Treatment:

Jewelry Store

A
  1. Amyl/Sodium Nitrate

2. Sodium Thiosulfate

31
Q

Organophosphate Poisoning Treatment:

A
  1. Atropine

2. 2-PAM

32
Q

MetHGB Poisoning Treatment:

A

Methlyne Blue

33
Q

Anticholinergic Poisoning Treatment

Atropine Gypsum Weed

A

Physostigamine

34
Q

Heparin OD treatment

A

Protamine Sulfate

35
Q

Coumadin Reversal

A

Vit K preferably IM

FFP

36
Q

Creatinine Phosphokinase=

A

CPK or CK

37
Q

Defibrillation is not effective till the body temp is greater then ______

A

30c

38
Q

_________ rewarming can prevent after drop phenomenon

A

Active Internal

39
Q

The fastest reaction that can occur from blood administration is _______

A

Acute hemolytic reaction

40
Q

With electrical injury with hematuria you should maintain a urinary output of ______

A

100 ml/hr

41
Q

Critical goal in treatment of heat illness is ______

A

Cooling

42
Q

Two street drugs that cause hallucination are _____

A

PCP

LCD

43
Q

Lysergic Acid Diethylamide =

A

LSD

44
Q

ETOH antidote=

A

Fomepizol (Antizol)

45
Q

Dig toxicity is easily exacerbated by ______

A

Beta Blockers

46
Q

Benzo Antidotes=

A

Romazicon

47
Q

Iron Antidote=

A

Deferoxamine

48
Q

Ethylene Glycol creates what kind of metabolic disturbance ?

A

Metabolic Acidosis

49
Q

Organophosphate Antidote=

A

Pralidoxime (2-PAM)

50
Q

Normal BUN level

A

6-23

51
Q

Mydriasis=

A

Pupil Dilation

52
Q

Miosis=

A

Pupil Constriction

53
Q

Organophosphate S/S

A

SLUDGE; DUMBELSS

54
Q

Nitroprusside can cause ______ poisoning

A

cyanide