25th Aviation SOP Annex A Flashcards
(325 cards)
1
Q
What is the purpose of incorporating risk management into the planning process?
A
To identify hazards and implement control measures
This is a fundamental aspect of mission planning.
2
Q
What are the five steps of risk management?
A
- Identify hazards
- Assess hazards
- Develop controls and make a risk decision
- Implement controls
- Supervise and evaluate
These steps help in systematically managing risks.
3
Q
What do CDRs, AMC, MBOs, and planners need to understand to assess and mitigate risk?
A
- Crew capabilities
- Equipment capabilities
- Mission requirements
- Enemy situation
- Environmental factors
Understanding these elements is crucial for effective risk management.
4
Q
What is the best method of mitigating overall mission risk?
A
Crew selection
Analyzing crew capabilities against mission requirements is essential.
5
Q
Who has the final mission approval authority for a LOW risk level?
A
Company/Troop Commander (O-3 or MEDEVAC O-4)
This indicates the hierarchy in risk management approvals.
6
Q
Who has the final mission approval authority for a MEDIUM risk level?
A
Battalion, Squadron, or Aviation Task Force Commander (O-5)
The authority level increases with the risk level.
7
Q
Who has the final mission approval authority for a HIGH risk level?
A
Aviation Brigade Commander (O-6)
This reflects the increasing responsibility associated with higher risk levels.
8
Q
Who has the final mission approval authority for an EXTREMELY HIGH risk level?
A
First General Officer in the chain of command
This emphasizes the serious nature of extremely high risks.
9
Q
What should be referred to for guidance on approval authority?
A
Local policy or operations order
This ensures compliance with established protocols.
10
Q
A
11
Q
What is the maximum duty period for all aircrew members?
A
12 Hour maximum duty period
Refer to Safety SOP for MEDEVAC Duty for more details.
12
Q
Who can request the first duty period extension and for how long?
A
ACM from ATP CO/TRP CDR for up to two hours (<14)
ACM stands for Aircrew Member.
13
Q
What is the process for the second duty period extension?
A
Requested by ACM from BN/SQN/TF CDR up to two more hours (<16)
BN/SQN/TF refers to Battalion/Squadron/Task Force.
14
Q
Who approves the third duty period extension beyond 16 hours?
A
CAB CDR
CAB stands for Combat Aviation Brigade.
15
Q
What is the maximum duty day that a CAB Commander may approve for a BN/SQN/TF?
A
14-hour duty day maximum
See SOP for additional details.
16
Q
What are the maximum flight hours during a duty period for manned rotary wing during the day?
A
8 Hours Day
Flight hours are regulated based on various conditions.
17
Q
What is the maximum flight time for a combination of day and night hours for manned rotary wing?
A
7 Hours Combination (D, N, NG, NS, H, W)
NS or NG can’t exceed 6 hours.
18
Q
What is the maximum flight time for NVD operations for manned rotary wing?
A
6 Hours NVD (NS, NG)
NVD refers to Night Vision Device.
19
Q
What are the maximum flight hours during MOPP 3 and MOPP 4 for manned rotary wing?
A
3 Hours MOPP 3 and MOPP 4
MOPP stands for Mission Oriented Protective Posture.
20
Q
What are the maximum flight hours during a duty period for UAS?
A
8 Hours
UAS stands for Unmanned Aerial System.
21
Q
What is the maximum flight time for UAS during MOPP 3 and MOPP 4?
A
5 Hours MOPP 3 and MOPP 4
22
Q
What is the process for the first flight time extension?
A
Requested by ACM from ATP CO/TRP CDR for up to one hour
ATP CO/TRP CDR refers to Aviation Task Force Commanding Officer/ Troop Commander.
23
Q
What is the process for the second flight time extension?
A
Requested by ACM from BN/SQN/TF CDR up to one additional hour
24
Q
Who can request the third flight time extension and for how long?
A
ACM from CAB CDR for as many hours as required
25
What is the status of flight simulator hours performed prior to live flight in the same duty period?
Cumulative
26
What is the purpose of the Initial Planning Conference (IPC)?
Conducted during course of action development and analysis for aviation missions
## Footnote
Includes air assault or combined arms missions such as movement to contact, zone recon, in contact attack, and SCAR.
27
Who are the key attendees of the Initial Planning Conference (IPC)?
Supported unit and aviation unit personnel, including:
* Assault and scout/attack AMCs
* Aviation LNO
* AHB S2
* AHB S3
* Flight leads
* BN/SQDN AMSO
* Aviation brigade staff personnel
## Footnote
The IPC is the first meeting between the supported unit and the aviation unit.
28
What should commanders consider if aviation unit staff cannot attend the IPC?
Employ LNOs that can operate within the mission command concept
## Footnote
LNOs must be equipped with AMPS and mission planning materials.
29
What are the responsibilities of the aviation S3 during the IPC?
Leads continuous parallel planning in coordination with the AATF S-3
## Footnote
Must follow current doctrine and unit SOP.
30
What elements should be determined by the supported unit and aviation unit during the IPC?
Elements include:
* Task organization
* Number of aircraft required
* Aircraft configuration
* Command and control relationships
* Fighter management cycles
* Proposed timelines
* Parallel planning responsibilities
## Footnote
Responsibilities may include terrain analysis on proposed flight routes and timing.
31
What does the staff need to review in preparation for the IPC?
Review the ground tactical plan or attack/air interdiction plan for:
* Task organization for combat
* Fires
* Scheme of maneuver
* Commander's intent / destruction criteria
## Footnote
Fires include field artillery, attack reconnaissance, CAS, and EW assets.
32
What must the aviation staff provide input on for the landing plan?
Input includes:
* Desired location(s)
* Capacity and requirements
* Enemy disposition and capabilities
* Unit tactical integrity
* Supporting fires
* Obstacles analysis
* Orientation
* Door gunner fires plan
## Footnote
Focus on fratricide mitigation.
33
What are the components of the air movement plan developed by the aviation unit?
Components include:
* Air routes (primary and alternate)
* Enroute formation
* Terrain flight modes
* Fires
* Suppression of enemy air defense (SEAD)
* Air assault security
* Air movement table
* C2 support for AMC and/or AATFC
## Footnote
Ensures comprehensive planning for air operations.
34
What input does the aviation unit provide for the loading plan?
Input includes:
* Location (primary and alternate)
* PZ markings
* Hand and arm signals
* Hookup procedures
* Troop entry/exit sequence and direction
* Securing equipment
* Assigned seating
* Door operation procedures
* Contingencies
* Spare aircraft
## Footnote
Covers operational details for troop loading.
35
What details should the aviation unit provide for the staging plan?
Details include:
* Planned aircraft arrival times
* Order of aircraft arrival
* Loads requiring inspection or certification
## Footnote
Ensures readiness and safety prior to mission execution.
36
What acronym do planners use for all mission planning constants?
METT-TC
37
What is the guideline for briefing mission planning constants?
Constants should not be briefed unless there is a deviation from the 25th CAB Aviation Operations Handbook.
38
How should maps be numbered and oriented for quick cockpit orientation?
Number them and mark the top of the map with an up arrow.
39
What are the rotor disk separation definitions for briefing purposes?
* Tight = 1-2 disk separation
* Close = 3-5 disk separation
* Loose = 6-10 disk separation
* Extended = greater than 10 rotor disks
40
What is the standard rotor disk separation for day conditions during inbound landings?
1 rotor disk
41
What factors should be considered when selecting rotor disk separation?
* Actions on enemy contact
* Evasive maneuvers
* Terrain
42
What is the recommended separation for AH escort aircraft in open terrain?
300-500 meters
43
What is the acceptable distance for navigation planning verification?
Within ± 300 meters or 0.2 NM
44
What is the required accuracy for headings in navigation planning?
Within ± 2 degrees
45
What airspeed should be maintained from takeoff to the release point?
70 Knots (Ground)
46
What is the planning airspeed for a UH-60 internal load?
100 Knots
47
What determines emissions control (EMCON) settings?
METT-TC
48
What is the recommended serial separation for UH-60s?
Not less than 1 Minute
49
What type of flight routes are preferred to mitigate risk?
One-way flight routes
50
What should be avoided in route planning regarding enemy defenses?
Known or suspected enemy air defenses
51
What should be done if heading changes exceed 60 degrees during NVG operations?
The AMC/flight lead must brief the crews.
52
What is the minimum width for plotted routes?
At least two kilometers wide
53
How far should the release point (RP) be plotted from the assault base?
3 to 8 kilometers
54
What should be established when transitioning from movement to maneuver?
Checkpoints, observation points, or phase lines
55
Fill in the blank: Planners will analyze METT-TC for ________ planning.
route
56
True or False: The primary exfil route can be the same as the alternate infil route.
False
57
What color corresponds to RTE MERCURY?
Magenta
## Footnote
RTE refers to the classification of the celestial bodies.
58
What color corresponds to RTE VENUS?
Cyan
## Footnote
RTE is used to categorize planets in this context.
59
What color corresponds to RTE EARTH?
White
## Footnote
Earth is represented in a neutral color for distinction.
60
What color corresponds to RTE MARS?
Green
## Footnote
Mars is often associated with a color that symbolizes life.
61
What color corresponds to RTE JUPITER?
Blue
## Footnote
Jupiter is the largest planet and is represented by a color typically associated with vastness.
62
What color corresponds to RTE SATURN?
Red
## Footnote
Saturn is depicted in a color that can symbolize strength and durability.
63
What color corresponds to RTE URANUS?
Yellow
## Footnote
Uranus is often represented in a bright color for visibility.
64
What color corresponds to RTE NEPTUNE?
Black
## Footnote
Neptune is associated with a color that signifies mystery.
65
What is the minimum diameter distance for a UH-60 / AH-64?
50 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
66
What is the minimum diameter distance for a CH-47?
80 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
67
What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations?
100 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
68
What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Long Line Operations?
125 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
69
What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations (Short and Long Line) with NVGs?
150 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
70
What does METT-TC stand for in relation to landing zone sizes?
Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time, Civilian considerations
## Footnote
These factors may dictate smaller aircraft separation distances.
71
Who has the final authority on landing zone size and use?
The aviation commander
## Footnote
This is according to FM 3-21.38.
72
What factors must be considered for external load operations?
Hookup team's equipment, exit direction, location, load positioning, aircraft maneuver areas
## Footnote
These factors affect the necessary space in the landing zone.
73
What can dictate LZ/PZ sizes and touchdown point locations?
Enemy artillery capabilities
## Footnote
This is crucial for ensuring safety during operations.
74
True or False: Close intervals formations at the PZ/LZ may cause damage to aircraft or injury to ground forces.
True
## Footnote
This is due to the risk of being within the blast radius of enemy artillery.
75
What is the 0.1% probability of incapacitation (PI) distance from a 155 Howitzer?
300 meters
## Footnote
This distance is relevant when in a standing position.
76
What is the minimum diameter distance for a UH-60 / AH-64?
50 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
77
What is the minimum diameter distance for a CH-47?
80 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
78
What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations?
100 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
79
What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Long Line Operations?
125 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
80
What is the minimum diameter distance for Sling Load Operations (Short and Long Line) with NVGs?
150 meters
## Footnote
This distance is a planning guideline for pickup zones.
81
What does METT-TC stand for in relation to landing zone sizes?
Mission, Enemy, Terrain, Troops, Time, Civilian considerations
## Footnote
These factors may dictate smaller aircraft separation distances.
82
Who has the final authority on landing zone size and use?
The aviation commander
## Footnote
This is according to FM 3-21.38.
83
What factors must be considered for external load operations?
Hookup team's equipment, exit direction, location, load positioning, aircraft maneuver areas
## Footnote
These factors affect the necessary space in the landing zone.
84
What can dictate LZ/PZ sizes and touchdown point locations?
Enemy artillery capabilities
## Footnote
This is crucial for ensuring safety during operations.
85
True or False: Close intervals formations at the PZ/LZ may cause damage to aircraft or injury to ground forces.
True
## Footnote
This is due to the risk of being within the blast radius of enemy artillery.
86
What is the 0.1% probability of incapacitation (PI) distance from a 155 Howitzer?
300 meters
## Footnote
This distance is relevant when in a standing position.
87
What does AMCM stand for?
Air Mission Coordination Meeting
## Footnote
AMCM is a key meeting in aviation operations for air assault task forces.
88
Who chairs the AMCM?
The AATF S-3
## Footnote
The AATF S-3 is responsible for overseeing the coordination of air missions.
89
What is the primary purpose of the AMCM?
To approve the aviation course of action based on the AATFC's ground tactical plan
## Footnote
The AMCM ensures that aviation operations align with ground tactics.
90
What percentage solution should subordinate unit S-3s have before attending the AMCM?
80 to 90 percent
## Footnote
This ensures that units are prepared to discuss their requirements effectively.
91
What is the role of the brigade aviation element (BAE) in the AMCM?
To coordinate information and run the AMCM
## Footnote
The BAE plays a crucial role in facilitating the meeting and ensuring effective communication.
92
What must assault LNOs know at the completion of the AMCM?
Helicopter loads, landing zones, and sequence of operations
## Footnote
This knowledge is essential for effective air assault operations.
93
What do scout/attack LNOs need to understand regarding air routes?
The air routes to be used
## Footnote
Knowledge of air routes is critical for mission success and safety.
94
What must all participants agree upon during the AMCM?
Tentative air movement table including start and end times of serials
## Footnote
This agreement is vital for planning and executing air movements.
95
What factors guide the decision-making process in the AMCM?
WARNORD and standard planning factors
## Footnote
These factors help shape the operational planning and execution of air missions.
96
True or False: The AMCM occurs before the development of the ground tactical plan.
False
## Footnote
The AMCM follows the development of the ground tactical plan.
97
98
What does REDCON stand for?
Readiness Condition Levels
## Footnote
REDCON refers to the classification system used to report the readiness status of military units.
99
What must PCs report to the commander/AMC?
Their REDCON levels
## Footnote
This reporting enables an understanding of the flights' overall readiness.
100
What is the response time for REDCON level 1?
Immediate takeoff
## Footnote
REDCON level 1 indicates the highest state of readiness.
101
What is the response time for REDCON level 2?
15 minutes
## Footnote
This level indicates a high readiness status but not as immediate as level 1.
102
What is the response time for REDCON level 3?
30 minutes
## Footnote
This level indicates a moderate readiness status.
103
What is the response time for REDCON level 4?
1 hour
## Footnote
This level indicates a lower state of readiness.
104
What is the response time for REDCON level 5?
>1 hour
## Footnote
This level indicates the lowest state of readiness.
105
Which aircraft is associated with REDCON level 1?
AH-64
## Footnote
The AH-64 is a type of attack helicopter.
106
What is the status of the crew at REDCON level 1?
Ready for takeoff
## Footnote
This indicates that the crew is fully prepared to engage.
107
What is the ammunition status for REDCON level 3?
Ammo loaded
## Footnote
This indicates that the aircraft is equipped with ammunition but may not be fully ready for immediate action.
108
What communications equipment must be operational at REDCON level 1?
MSN FREQS and internal secure portable radio
## Footnote
Effective communication is critical for readiness.
109
Fill in the blank: At REDCON level 2, the crew is on _______.
standby with comms
## Footnote
This indicates that the crew is prepared but not actively engaged.
110
What does 'SYS OFFI' refer to in the context of aircraft systems?
System OFF Indicator
## Footnote
This indicates that specific systems on the aircraft are turned off.
111
True or False: The CH-47 is an aircraft type listed under all REDCON levels.
True
## Footnote
The CH-47 is a type of transport helicopter mentioned in the readiness report.
112
What does it mean when an aircraft is 'initialized' at REDCON levels?
Systems are prepared for operation
## Footnote
This indicates that the aircraft systems are set up and ready to be activated.
113
What is the importance of maintenance in REDCON reporting?
Ensures aircraft readiness and operational capability
## Footnote
Regular maintenance is crucial for flight safety and readiness.
114
What is the purpose of initial communication checks in aircraft operations?
To provide the CDR/AMC/serial commander with an assessment of communications capabilities prior to flight.
## Footnote
CDR stands for Commander, AMC stands for Air Mission Commander.
115
What must PCs report to the CDR/AMC?
Any changes to comms capabilities immediately.
## Footnote
PCs refer to Pilots in Command.
116
What steps should crews take before initiating the commo check?
Set all radios to GPS time and check SATCOM, HF, and Digital Comms with the Command Post.
## Footnote
Digital Comms includes BFT, JVMF, and Video Data Link.
117
Who initiates the commo check and at what time?
The Lead initiates the commo check at the briefed time (secure and FH).
## Footnote
FH refers to Flight Hours.
118
What is an example of a transmission used during the commo check?
FM1 ('Lead on FM 1')
## Footnote
Variations such as '1-1', 'Gun 1', or 'Scout 1' are authorized.
119
What should subsequent chalks do if they do not respond within 10 seconds?
The next chalk continues the commo check.
## Footnote
A chalk refers to a specific group of aircraft or personnel.
120
What does the Lead announce after completing the commo check?
Commo check complete or directs troubleshooting as required.
## Footnote
The AMC reassigns duties based on the radio status as required.
121
What is the significance of conducting rotor stables and post-operations maintenance?
It instills pride and ownership and allows an understanding of aircraft capabilities/deficiencies.
122
What does FM1 typically represent in radio net remarks?
BN/BDE CAN or BN CMD, supported unit, LZ/PZ, etc.
123
What does UHF serve as in radio net remarks?
CO/TM Backup internal or ABN (UHF common with AH, UH/CH, and/or FW).
124
What is the role of VHF in radio communications?
ATC/Flight Following.
125
What does FM2 refer to in the context of radio net remarks?
CO/TM Primary company, team/serial internal, IDM.
126
What does HF represent in communication settings?
BN/BDE CMD.
127
When should SATCOM be used according to radio net remarks?
As required, with at least one aircraft within the flight or serial on BDE/BN CMD.
128
Fill in the blank: The mission will dictate _______ settings.
SATCOM.
129
What determines aircraft lighting settings?
METT-TC
## Footnote
METT-TC stands for Mission, Enemy, Terrain and Weather, Troops and Support Available, Time Available, and Civilian Considerations.
130
During which brief will lighting configurations be discussed?
AvOPORD brief
131
What factors influence the determination of lighting configurations?
* Regulations
* Mission requirements
* Environmental considerations
* Tactical considerations
* Risk mitigation considerations
132
How should pilots position lights when maintenance support is required?
To 'flash bright'
133
What color should anti-collision lights be during the day?
Red
134
What color should anti-collision lights be at night?
White
135
In what scenarios can the use of lights be beneficial?
* Lost visual contact procedures
* In-flight link up
* Passage of lines
136
What does the command SMASH refer to?
Turn on/off anti-collision lights
137
What does the term CLOAK or CLOAKING mean?
Switch(ing) from normal or overt external lighting to covert night vision device only compatible lighting
138
What does the command LIGHTBULB refer to?
Turn all position lights to bright
139
What is the minimum power takeoff position for lead?
Lead set in a position that allows separation for minimum power takeoff for all aircraft in the flight
## Footnote
Lead should orient as necessary to observe the flight.
140
How should all other aircraft orient during takeoff?
All other aircraft will orient in the takeoff direction in the briefed formation
141
What should an aircraft do if it cannot make the takeoff time?
Advise lead (by exception)
142
What is the TORCH call?
Lead will provide TORCH call a minimum 5 second warning prior to departure
143
What speed should lead accelerate to after takeoff?
60 KIAS, climbing < 500fpm
144
What should the trail call once the flight is formed?
1-1, 1-5, SADDLE, FENCE OUT
145
What is REDCON 1?
A status indicating readiness for takeoff, signaled by turning off anti-collision lights
146
When lineup is not possible, what are the two forms of takeoff?
* Simultaneous takeoff from different locations
* Takeoff when ready in chalk order (TOWRICO)
147
What must aircraft do during simultaneous departures?
Report REDCON 1 in REVERSE chalk order
148
What should lead announce when departing?
1-1 is UP when the aircraft is up and out of its position
149
What is the proper closure rate adjustment when closing within 10 rotor disks?
Adjust closure rate to <10 KIAS above the briefed airspeed
150
What should the preceding aircraft do upon receiving a CLOSING call?
Acknowledge with 'CHALK # is CLOSING' and display briefed formation lighting
151
What does TOWRICO stand for?
Takeoff When Ready in Chalk Order
152
What should an aircraft announce if it experiences a minor state of emergency?
LAME DUCK
153
What are Fence In/Out Checks?
Checks to ensure the aircraft is configured for the mission as briefed
154
What does WAILRM stand for in Fence-out posture?
* W – Weapons armed/safe as required
* A – ASE and countermeasure dispenser (SAFE/ARM switch) set as desired
* I – IFF/Transponder mode on as briefed
* L – Lighting as briefed
* R – Recorder on
* M – MPD/MFD/EDM configured
155
What happens if an aircraft experiences significant delays during a TOWRICO departure?
Announce chalk position and 'LAME DUCK'
156
What is the status of a LAME DUCK aircraft?
It becomes the trail aircraft
157
What does the term SADDLED mean in formation brevity?
Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position
158
What does CLOSING indicate in formation brevity?
Decreasing separation
159
What does OPENING indicate in formation brevity?
Increasing separation
160
What does FLOAT(ING) mean in formation brevity?
Expanding the formation laterally within visual limits to maintain contact or prepare for a defensive response
161
Who is responsible for weapons release and weapon system status?
Air Mission Commander
## Footnote
The Air Mission Commander can delegate authority to each Pilot-In-Command (PC) according to established rules.
162
What does 'WEAPONS HOLD' mean?
Do not fire except in self-defense or in response to a formal order
## Footnote
This is one of the weapons control measures that restricts firing.
163
What is the criteria for 'WEAPONS TIGHT'?
PC fires only at targets positively identified as HOSTILE
## Footnote
This follows established rules of engagement and directed engagement criteria.
164
What does 'WEAPONS FREE' allow the Pilot-In-Command to do?
Engage any target not positively identified as FRIENDLY
## Footnote
This is permitted in accordance with established rules of engagement.
165
What is the definition of 'ARMED' in weapons status?
AH Weapon Activation Switch (WAS) is activated, weapons loaded and aircraft ARM
## Footnote
This indicates the aircraft is ready for combat operations.
166
What conditions define 'AH SAFE' status?
AH Weapon Activation Switch (WAS) is deactivated, weapons loaded and aircraft SAFE
## Footnote
This indicates that the aircraft is not in a combat-ready state.
167
What does 'LOADED' indicate for UH/CH M240H?
Weapon is manned, ammunition in feed tray, cover closed, bolt forward, weapon selector on FIRE
## Footnote
This status indicates the weapon is ready to fire.
168
What does 'STOWED' mean for the UH/CH M240H?
M240H is stowed, ammunition in feed tray, cover closed, bolt forward, weapon selector on FIRE
## Footnote
This means the weapon is secured but still ready to fire.
169
What is the status of the weapon in 'CLEAR(ED)'?
AH Weapon systems are downloaded and SAFE; M240H is stowed, chamber and feed tray visually cleared of ammo, bolt locked to the rear and weapon on SAFE
## Footnote
This indicates that the weapon is safe and cleared of ammunition.
170
What is the responsibility of all aircraft in a flight regarding obstacles?
To announce obstacles if deemed a hazard.
171
What should a crewmember do if they first see another aircraft posing a mid-air threat?
Call it out if the Pilot on the controls cannot find the traffic.
172
What phrase should a crewmember use when taking controls to avoid a hazard?
I have the controls, avoiding bird two o'clock, our level.
173
How should an aircraft in the flight announce a traffic alert?
By stating 'Break Left / Right' or 'Climb/ Descend'.
174
What types of obstacles should be considered during evasive maneuvers?
Obstacles that are not along the route of flight but may impact evasive maneuvers.
175
Is it necessary for the entire flight to acknowledge every obstacle?
No, only if deemed a hazard and asked to acknowledge.
176
What is the hazard classification for ground-based wires or towers over 100 ft?
ALPHA.
177
What is the hazard classification for ground-based wires or towers between 50-100 ft?
BRAVO.
178
What is the hazard classification for ground-based wires or towers under 50 ft?
CHARLIE.
179
Provide an example of a call regarding an ALPHA wire hazard.
Lead this is trail, call contact on Alpha Wires 500 meters 12 o'clock.
180
What phrase might be used to communicate a Bravo antenna hazard?
1-1 this is 1-2, there is a Bravo antenna on the NE corner of the LZ.
181
What should be considered when employing underwire flight as a course of action?
Analyze risk versus reward.
182
What is a suggested method for wire crossings?
Identify two wire-supporting structures and use distance estimation.
183
True or False: The enemy is always observant to our TTPs.
True.
184
Fill in the blank: All aircraft in a flight should use Map underlays with ________ plotted on them.
[hazards]
185
What must the PC/AMC determine if a flight descends >300' during the day or >150' at night from the planned altitude?
A course of action must be determined
## Footnote
This is necessary to maintain cloud clearance.
186
What is the action required if a flight slows >20 KIAS during the day or >10 KIAS during night/NVG from the planned airspeed?
Determine a course of action
## Footnote
This is due to visibility issues.
187
What are the options to adjust the mission when conditions are met?
* Reversing course
* Altering the route to continue VFR
* Landing at the nearest suitable area
* Initiating an IFR flight plan
* Aborting the mission
## Footnote
These options provide flexibility to ensure safety.
188
What is the first step for a single-ship IIMC situation?
Announce 'IIMC,' maintain proper aircraft control, immediately transition to instruments
## Footnote
Immediate action is crucial for safety.
189
What should be done with the attitude indicator during IIMC recovery procedures?
Level the wings
## Footnote
This helps maintain controlled flight.
190
What must be maintained regarding heading during IIMC recovery procedures?
Maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles
## Footnote
This is important to avoid disorientation.
191
What adjustment should be made regarding torque during IIMC recovery?
Adjust torque as necessary to establish a climb
## Footnote
This helps regain altitude safely.
192
What should be done with trim during IIMC recovery procedures?
Trim aircraft as necessary
## Footnote
Proper trimming aids in stable flight.
193
What should be adjusted as necessary during IIMC recovery?
Airspeed
## Footnote
Adjusting airspeed is critical for maintaining control.
194
Should the crew initiate a descent to recover from IIMC?
No, at no time should the crew initiate a descent
## Footnote
This is a critical safety guideline.
195
What is the first step for multi-ship IIMC situations?
Announce 'Chalk # IIMC, [Heading],' maintain proper aircraft control, immediately transition to instruments
## Footnote
The announcement ensures all crew members are aware.
196
What must be executed as briefed per the AMB during multi-ship IIMC?
* Altitude
* Heading
* Airspeed
* Contact ATC or Controlling Agency
* Execute Recovery Procedures as directed
## Footnote
Following briefed procedures ensures coordinated recovery.
197
Who will brief recovery airfields and approaches available along the route of flight?
The PC
## Footnote
This ensures that all options are considered before flight.
198
What factors does the PC consider when deciding which airfield and instrument approach to use for recovery?
* Aircraft fuel status
* Equipment
* Weather
## Footnote
These factors influence the safety and feasibility of recovery.
199
What should flights conduct based on the type of enemy contact?
Evasive maneuvers
## Footnote
Evasive maneuvers are determined by the type of enemy contact, including direct fire, EW/Radar, and indirect fire contact.
200
What is the minimum consideration when conducting evasive maneuvers?
Mission planning, briefings, and rehearsals
## Footnote
These should address break contact actions and consider formation size, mission profile, concealment, and threat systems.
201
What should flights do if able regarding immediate threats?
Immediate suppression
## Footnote
Flights should suppress the threat based on its location, range, ROE, weapons status, and mission.
202
What is important for multi-ship flights when suppressing a threat?
Announce actions to the flight
## Footnote
This prevents target fixation that could lead to mid-air collisions, fratricide, or unnecessary ammunition expenditure.
203
How should flights maneuver to avoid contact?
Deploy to cover or maneuver out of contact
## Footnote
This involves preventing the threat from maintaining contact and leveraging ASE for concealment.
204
What factors should the AMC consider when developing a course of action?
Threat, ROE, Bypass, engagement, and displacement criteria
## Footnote
The AMC should select a COA and execute it, leveraging indirect fires if available.
205
What should the AMC report rapidly and accurately?
Contact and the course of action
## Footnote
The AMC should consider impacts to mission timeline, SEAD, and request adjustments as needed.
206
What does 'OBSERVING FIRE' indicate?
Enemy ground fire observed, not an immediate threat
## Footnote
Example: 'OBSERVING FIRE 11 o'clock.'
207
What does 'TAKING FIRE' mean?
Enemy ground fire is an immediate threat
## Footnote
Example: 'TAKING FIRE 2 o'clock.'
208
What action does 'SUPPRESSING' refer to?
Immediate suppressive fire to protect aircraft and crew
## Footnote
Used in conjunction with 'TAKING FIRE'. Example: 'TAKING FIRE 10 o'clock, SUPPRESSING.'
209
What does 'ENGAGING' indicate?
Effective fire with the intent of killing the enemy
## Footnote
Primarily used by attack aircraft. Example: 'Contact, ENGAGING.'
210
What does 'BREAK [direction]' command?
Perform an immediate maximum performance turn in indicated direction
## Footnote
Default is a 180-degree turn. Example: '1-1 BREAKING LEFT.'
211
What does 'SUPPORTING' signify?
Assuming a supporting role and deconfliction responsibility
## Footnote
Example: '1-2 SUPPORTING.'
212
What does 'DEFENDING [direction]' mean?
Aircraft is in a defensive position against a threat
## Footnote
Example: '1-1 DEFENDING WEST.'
213
What does 'DEFENSIVE' indicate?
Aircraft is under attack and maneuvering defensively
## Footnote
Example: '1-1 DEFENSIVE.'
214
What is the purpose of a 'JINK' maneuver?
Perform an unpredictable maneuver to negate tracking
## Footnote
Example: '1-1 JINKING EAST.'
215
What do the terms 'SLASH', 'SHANK', 'RUSH', and 'SPEAR' refer to?
Classified 2800/2900 tasks for RADAR guided threat
## Footnote
Specifics are classified and not detailed in the text.
216
What is the first step in the disorientation procedure for single-ship navigation?
Use the GPS and identify your present position
## Footnote
Quickly identify easily identifiable landmarks with the map within the immediate area of the aircraft or flight.
217
What should a pilot do if they become disoriented in a single-ship?
Return to the last known point
## Footnote
Fly a cardinal heading to search for a landmark and find it on the map.
218
In a disorientation scenario, what should the pilot do if they cannot re-orient themselves?
Contact approach and request assistance
219
What does Chalk 1 announce if lost or experiencing navigation failures in formation flying?
CHECK NAV
220
What should Chalk 2 do if Chalk 1 announces 'CHECK NAV'?
Vectors them back on course
221
What announcement is made to initiate formation changes?
LEAD announces 'At my command execute (formation), acknowledge.'
222
What is the response required from all aircraft after LEAD announces a formation change?
All aircraft acknowledge in CHALK order
223
What does LEAD announce after the acknowledgment of a formation change?
Execute (Formation)
224
What does the trail aircraft announce once the flight is in the new formation?
SADDLED
225
What phrase indicates a lead change request in formation flying?
LEAD CHANGE Right or Left
226
What heading change must the departing aircraft make during a lead change?
Up to 30 degrees
227
What is the minimum separation required after a lead change?
A minimum of eight rotor disks
228
What should the former lead aircraft do after achieving proper separation?
Adjust flight path to parallel the formation and reduce airspeed by 10 KIAS
229
What should each aircraft in formation announce as they pass the former lead?
Chalk number and 'CLEAR' (e.g. 'Chalk 3 CLEAR')
230
What should the trail aircraft announce once the lead change process is complete?
SADDLED, # of A/C in flight
231
When may the tactical lead change procedure be executed?
IAW the TC 3-04.4 Fundamentals of Flight and based on METT-TC
232
What should the lead aircraft call when changing airspeed?
Lead calls 'Accelerating to ________ kts' or 'Slowing to ______ kts, acknowledge.'
233
What is the acknowledgment order for airspeed changes?
Flight acknowledges in dash order
234
What does 'CHECK NAV' mean?
Check navigation
235
What does 'SADDLED' indicate in formation flying?
[A/A] Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position
236
What does 'YARDSTICK' refer to in tactical air navigation?
[A/A] Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging
237
What steps should aircrews perform to regain visual contact?
1. Utilize all digital equipment/tools to gain and maintain situational awareness
2. Verbally announce loss of visual contact
3. Announce heading, indicated airspeed, MSL altitude, distance, and bearing
4. Decelerate to 10 KIAS less than the announced airspeed and coordinate altitude deconfliction
5. Subsequent aircraft follow procedures to maintain visual contact
6. Accelerate to an airspeed not more than 10 knots greater than the announced airspeed to rejoin formation
7. Return to the correct assigned altitude and display appropriate lighting
8. Announce 'SADDLE' when join-up is complete
9. If unable to regain visual contact, continue mission as two flights while maintaining radio contact
## Footnote
These steps help minimize in-flight collision potential while re-establishing contact.
238
What should be announced on the internal frequency upon losing visual contact?
Verbal announcement of loss of visual contact, e.g., 'Flight, 1-3 BLIND with 1-2'
## Footnote
This communication is crucial for situational awareness among the aircrew.
239
What information must an aircraft provide when visual contact is lost?
Heading, indicated airspeed, MSL altitude, distance and bearing from a common reference point
## Footnote
A common reference point can be a planned CP or WP.
240
What is the purpose of decelerating to 10 KIAS less than the announced airspeed?
To minimize in-flight collision potential while contact is being re-established
## Footnote
This action is part of the immediate response to lost visual contact.
241
What altitude changes should be coordinated when visual contact is lost?
Climb 200' above or descend 200' below the announced altitude
## Footnote
This depends on the initial altitude deviance and the threat environment.
242
What should the last aircraft in a large formation ensure?
That it is not below minimum bucket speed
## Footnote
This is critical for safety in large formations.
243
What is the procedure for regaining visual contact after it has been lost?
Accelerate to an airspeed not more than 10 knots greater than the announced airspeed and announce 'closing'
## Footnote
This helps in rejoining the formation safely.
244
What should an aircraft do after visual contact is re-established?
Return to the correct assigned altitude and display appropriate lighting
## Footnote
This ensures that all aircraft are in their proper positions.
245
What does the term 'SADDLE' signify?
It indicates that the join-up is complete
## Footnote
This is a key communication in formation flying.
246
What is the procedure if visual contact cannot be regained?
Continue the mission as two flights while maintaining radio contact
## Footnote
Link-up should occur on the ground at the next pickup or landing zone.
247
What does the term 'VISUAL' mean?
Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position or ship
## Footnote
It is the opposite of 'BLIND'.
248
What does the term 'BLIND' refer to?
No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship, or ground position
## Footnote
It is the opposite of 'VISUAL'.
249
What does 'YARDSTICK' mean in the context of lost visual contact?
Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging
## Footnote
This helps in determining distances between aircraft.
250
What is the purpose of an in-flight link up?
To assist in the establishment of a specific flight formation.
251
When are in-flight link ups used?
In an emergency and as a function of mission planning.
252
What should AMC consider if an in-flight link up is not possible?
A ground link-up.
253
What is important for crews to maintain during an in-flight link up?
Situational awareness of the location of other aircraft.
254
Which digital equipment/tools should crews utilize during an in-flight link up?
* TSD
* FCR
* PP request
* BFT
* TACAN
255
What will the AMC establish at the link-up point?
A common link-up point (i.e., ACP along the route).
256
What does AMC need to determine regarding the arrival sequence?
The arrival sequence at the link-up point.
257
What parameters must AMC determine for the first aircraft to reach the link-up point?
* Base altitude
* Airspeed
* Lighting
258
How can AMC deconflict the in-flight link up?
By distance and time.
259
What should AMC do if METT-TC prevents holding at the ACP?
Determine an offset holding to the ACP.
260
What is the suggested altitude separation by stacking during an in-flight link up?
Stacking up 200 feet above the ACP.
261
What should aircraft announce as they approach the formation?
Their arrival and Chalk #.
262
What should aircraft do once visual contact is established?
Descend to the briefed base altitude for the holding pattern.
263
What announcement does the trail aircraft make when it has closed with the formation?
"SADDLE."
264
What does lead do after acknowledging the 'SADDLE' announcement?
Accelerate to normal en-route airspeed.
265
In what order will aircraft depart the holding pattern?
In Chalk order per the AMC's guidance.
266
What does 'VISUAL' indicate in lost visual contact brevity?
Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or position.
267
What does 'BLIND' mean in lost visual contact brevity?
No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft or position.
268
What does 'SADDLED' mean in lost visual contact brevity?
Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position.
269
What does 'YARDSTICK' refer to in lost visual contact brevity?
Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging.
270
What does PACE stand for in lost communications procedures?
Primary, Alternate, Contingency, and Emergency
271
What should aircraft experiencing lost communications follow?
The appropriate procedure based on chalk position in formation
272
What should be briefed for mixed MDS missions regarding lost communications?
Lost commo lighting procedures in detail
273
What visual signal should be applied during the day for lost communications?
Red Strobe Flash visual position lights
274
What visual signal should be applied during the night for lost communications?
White Strobe Flash visual / IR landing light or white light
275
What should AMCs consider when using overt lost communications signals?
METT-TC
276
What is the minimum separation required for adjacent or trail aircraft during lost communications?
3-disk (5-disk at night)
277
What should aircraft experiencing lost communication do until acknowledged?
Continue to apply the appropriate visual signal
278
How should aircraft acknowledge a visual signal during lost communications?
By responding with its own lost commo visual signal
279
What order should aircraft remain in unless otherwise briefed?
Chalk order
280
What should aircraft experiencing lost commo do regarding visual contact?
Must remain in visual contact with an unaffected aircraft
281
What should the flight do if tactically feasible after a lost commo event?
Change chalk positions on the ground at the next secure landing location
282
What duties does the AMC reassign as necessary during lost communications?
Communications duties
283
What assessment will the AMC make regarding the mission during lost communications?
To continue or abort the mission
284
What should happen if the lead aircraft has lost commo?
Conduct a lead change after receiving the lost commo acknowledgement
285
What should trail aircraft do when the lead has lost commo?
Decelerate and allow spacing for the former lead to join as the second to last aircraft in the flight
286
What does the term ALPHA signify?
Beginning mission
## Footnote
Not a joint brevity term
287
What is meant by ANGELS?
X000's ft. MSL
288
What does BINGO indicate?
Aircraft requires fuel
289
What does the term BLIND refer to?
No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship or ground position
## Footnote
Opposite of VISUAL
290
What does CHECK NAV mean?
Off course
## Footnote
Not a joint brevity term
291
What does CHERUBS refer to?
X00's ft. AGL
292
What does CLOAK or CLOAKING mean?
Switch(ing) from normal or overt external lighting to covert night vision device only compatible lighting
293
What does CLOSING indicate?
Decreasing separation
294
What does the term DIRT signify?
Radar warning receiver indication of surface threat in search mode
## Footnote
See MUD and SINGER
295
What does FALLEN ANGEL refer to?
Downed aircraft
## Footnote
Not a joint brevity term
296
What is the meaning of FARM in a military context?
Helicopter status of fuel, ammunition, rocket, and missile
297
What does FENCE OUT/IN indicate?
Set cockpit switches as appropriate before entering or exiting the combat area
298
What does FLASHLIGHT mean?
Directive term for helicopter to turn on infrared floodlight
299
What does GIMBAL indicate?
AH/UAS Sensor target is approaching azimuth or elevation tracking limits
300
What does LAME DUCK refer to?
An aircraft in a minor state of emergency
301
What does LIGHTBULB mean?
Turn all position lights to bright
302
What does LOOKING signify?
Aircrew does not have the ground or surface object in sight
## Footnote
Opposite of CONTACT
303
What does MUD refer to in a military context?
1. Radar warning receiver ground threat displayed with no launch indication
2. Radar warning receiver indication of surface threat in track mode
## Footnote
See DIRT and SINGER
304
What does NIGHTMARE mean?
Execute briefed formation change
## Footnote
Not in Joint brevity
305
What does NO JOY indicate?
Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET or BANDIT
## Footnote
Opposite of TALLY
306
What does OPENING signify?
Increasing separation
307
What does REMINGTON mean?
No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo
308
What does RIFLE refer to?
FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch
309
What does ROLEX mean?
Timeline adjustment in minutes
310
What does SADDLED indicate?
Wingman or element has returned to briefed formation position
311
What does SINGER refer to?
[EW] radar warning receiver indication of surface-to-air missile launch
312
What does SPIKE(D) signify?
Radar warning receiver indication of an AI threat in track or launch
313
What does SMASH mean?
Turn on/off anti-collision lights
314
What does SPARKLE mean?
Marking target by infrared pointer
315
What does SPUR RIDE indicate?
Attempt helicopter buddy or self-extraction
316
What does SUNSHINE refer to?
Illuminating a target with artificial illumination
317
What does SUPPORTING mean?
Unit or element is assuming a supporting role
318
What does TALLY indicate?
Sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position
## Footnote
Opposite of NO JOY
319
What does TOWRICO mean?
Takeoff when ready in chalk order
## Footnote
Not a joint brevity term
320
What does TORCH signify?
Takeoff in 5 seconds
321
What does UP indicate?
A/C call sign is in the Air
## Footnote
Not a joint brevity term
322
What does VISUAL mean?
Sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position
## Footnote
Opposite of BLIND
323
What does WINCHESTER indicate?
No ordnance remaining
324
What does YARDSTICK refer to?
Use A/A tactical air navigation (TACAN) for ranging
325
What does ZULU signify?
End of mission
## Footnote
Not a joint brevity term
