LFR Flashcards

(502 cards)

1
Q

What is defined as the local flying area?

A

The islands of Oahu and Hawaii (Big Island)

The local flying area is divided into numbered sectors, with maps located in WAAF and BAAF flight operations.

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2
Q

What must be filed when conducting a stop-over flight?

A

DD Form 1801

A stop-over flight is defined as a shutdown with the intent to cold refuel.

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3
Q

How is an inter-island flight defined?

A

A flight that departs one island and intentionally lands or flies over a second island with the intent to shut down

This includes flights that land on or pass over another island.

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4
Q

What characterizes an off-island flight?

A

A flight that departs, flies over water beyond three (3) nautical miles of that island, and returns to the same island

Offshore maneuvering under ATC direction is not considered off-island flight.

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5
Q

What are shipboard operations classified as?

A

Off-island flights

Shipboard operations are tracked via the unit flight operations.

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6
Q

What defines a local flight?

A

A flight which stays within 3 NM of the shoreline and departs and shuts down at the home airfield

Local flights may conduct training at outlying airfields but will not shut down unless noted in the flight operations log.

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7
Q

Fill in the blank: A local flight is considered a flight which stays within _______ of the shoreline.

A

3 NM

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8
Q

True or False: An off-island flight includes maneuvering offshore under ATC direction.

A

False

Maneuvering offshore under ATC direction when conducting Shipboard Operations is not considered off-island flight.

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9
Q

What form is used for International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Flight Plans?

A

DD Form 1801

DD Form 1801 is the standardized form used for filing flight plans in accordance with ICAO regulations.

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10
Q

Where do aircraft that fly inter-island file a VFR flight plan?

A

Through WAAF or BAAF Operations

VFR flight plans are filed during normal duty hours when departing from WAAF or BAAF.

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11
Q

What should pilots consider when conducting off-island flights?

A

Filing a DD Form 1801

Filing assists with search and rescue in the event of an overdue aircraft.

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12
Q

How should ‘cold’ refuel stops be filed?

A

As a stopover IAW the General Planning (GP) Flight Information Publication

This ensures that refuel stops are properly documented according to established guidelines.

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13
Q

Who is responsible for filing and closing flight plans through an electronic flight bag (EFB) application?

A

The pilot in command

The pilot must manage the flight plans, as WAAF/BAAF Base Operations cannot change/update them.

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14
Q

True or False: WAAF/BAAF Base Operations can update flight plans filed through an EFB application.

A

False

The responsibility for managing flight plans lies solely with the pilot in command.

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15
Q

What is the standard form used to file flight plans?

A

DD Form 1801

This form is filed in accordance with AR 95-1 and DoD Flight Information Publications.

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16
Q

When must IFR flight plans be filed prior to the estimated time of departure?

A

At least 1 hour

VFR flight plans must be filed at least 30 minutes prior.

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17
Q

What must a pilot do if there are delays of 2 hours or more on IFR flight plans?

A

Notify WAAF/BAAF Base Operations

This can be done via radio, telephone, or in person to amend ETD.

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18
Q

True or False: Honolulu Control Facility will approve a single IFR flight plan with multiple destinations.

A

False

Pilots must file a new DD Form 1801 if a new departure time is known.

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19
Q

How should flight plans be filed for non-duty hour operations?

A

By phone directly with Honolulu Flight Service Station

The number is 800-992-7433 or as per DOD FLIP Enroute Supplement.

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20
Q

What happens when restricted area R3103 (BAAF) is active?

A

All IFR flight plans will be approved by the ATC Supervisor on an ‘as needed’ basis.

This applies to both arrival and departure.

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21
Q

What should be included in the remarks block of the DD Form 1801 for emailed flight plans?

A

The comment ‘Emailed Flight Plan original on file at (unit), (phone number)’

This is required for processing both IFR and VFR flights.

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22
Q

Where should all DD Form 1801 flight plans be filed?

A

With WAAF/BAAF Base Operations email group or in person

The email group is usarmy.wheeler.id-pacific.mbx.bo@army.mil.

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23
Q

Who is responsible for correcting mistakes on the original flight plan?

A

The pilot in command (PIC)

The PIC must email the corrected flight plan again to Base Operations.

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24
Q

What must the PIC/AC do before flight plans are processed?

A

Contact WAAF Base Operations to confirm receipt

Contact numbers are (808)-656-1282/7118 or BAAF Base Operations, 808-969-2461/2462.

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25
What can delay departures related to flight plans?
Delays in flight plan submission to Base Operations ## Footnote Timely submission is crucial for on-time departures.
26
How can an electronic ICAO flight plan be filed?
Via EFB application (e.g., Foreflight, NGA Aero App, Garmin Pilot) ## Footnote This files directly with the flight service station.
27
For VIP missions, how should the DD Form 1801 be sent?
Via DoD e-mail with digital signature or filed in person ## Footnote This is to ensure operational security.
28
When should flight plans be filed with Honolulu Flight Service Station?
When Base Operations is closed. ## Footnote This applies to filing flight plans outside of normal duty hours.
29
What procedures should crews follow when filing local flight plans with intermediate stops?
File according to Inter-Island/ Off-Island procedures. ## Footnote Local flight plans are not forwarded to intermediate stops or entered into NAS.
30
What should be done if an aircraft significantly deviates from the planned flight?
File an amended flight plan with the appropriate facility. ## Footnote The original filing agency and phone number must be provided if a different facility is contacted.
31
What happens if proposed departure times change by more than 30 minutes?
The PIC must advise WAAF Base Operations or the flight plan will be cancelled. ## Footnote This ensures timely communication regarding flight plans.
32
What is the consequence of filed flight plans not being activated within two hours of the scheduled ETD?
They are automatically removed from the system and require refiling. ## Footnote ETD stands for Estimated Time of Departure.
33
How can flight plans filed via an EFB application be amended?
They cannot be amended via Base Operations; must refile or amend in the EFB application. ## Footnote This highlights the limitations of amending flight plans through different channels.
34
What happens to flight plans filed with WAAF/BAAF Operations upon departure?
They are automatically activated upon departure and terminated when requested by the pilot. ## Footnote This process is contingent on the WAAF/BAAF tower being operational.
35
Who must ensure that all VFR flight plans are opened and closed at other destinations?
The PIC/AC must ensure this. ## Footnote This is mandatory when WAAF/BAAF tower is closed.
36
What must a pilot do if a flight plan is filed with an EFB application like Foreflight?
Open and close the flight plan via the EFB application. ## Footnote Base Operations cannot activate or deactivate flight plans filed with an EFB application.
37
What do WAAF/BAAF Base Operations provide for airfields?
NOTAM services ## Footnote NOTAM stands for Notice to Air Missions, which provides essential information regarding the safety and operation of airfields.
38
How can aircrews obtain data on any point in the world?
Through the NOTAM web site: https://www.notams.jcs.mil/ ## Footnote This website is a central resource for NOTAM information globally.
39
Where are temporary flight restrictions for volcanic activity and military operations published?
In the DINS NOTAM system under PHNL/PHZH ## Footnote DINS refers to the Defense Information Network System.
40
How can warning area NOTAMs be accessed?
By searching for PHJG in the DoD NOTAMs
41
Where will range and drop zone NOTAMs for Oahu and PTA locations be published?
On the USAG-HI Airfield Division Teams page
42
What is the direct link to the USAG-HI Range Division NOTAMS folder?
https://armyeitaas.sharepoint-mil.us/teams/USAGHawaiiWheelerAirfieldDivision/SitePages/HLZ-and-Range-Information.aspx
43
Who may request NOTAMs for missions such as UAS and large scale operations?
Units may request NOTAMs through WAAF or BAAF Base Operations
44
What will Base Operations enter regarding temporary safety of flight conditions?
Local NOTAMs reporting temporary safety of flight conditions, construction, etc.
45
What happens if a condition of the airfield becomes permanent?
The Airfield Manager will submit permanent changes to DOD FLIP publications
46
Who initiates NOTAMs depending on the subject?
Either the WAAF/BAAF airfield operations, the air traffic control facility, or the Honolulu FSS
47
Who can input or cancel WAAF/BAAF NOTAMs?
Only Base Operations
48
How far in advance are NOTAMs posted?
24 hours in advance but not more than 72 hours
49
What happens to NOTAMs received with less than 24-hour notice?
They will be posted as soon as received
50
What operations require NOTAM submissions?
Large scale operations within the TFTA, Shadow and/or Gray Eagle UAS operations outside of a restricted area, sUAS operations outside of a restricted area, extended operations in the Wings Training Area, ground unit operations occupying an HLZ greater than 6 hours, aviation operations in TFTA, Makua, Dillingham, or PTA that extend beyond 6 hours
51
Fill in the blank: NOTAMs are submitted for _______ operations within the TFTA.
Large scale
52
True or False: Base Operations can input NOTAMs for airfield conditions.
True
53
What regulations govern weather briefings?
AR 95-1 or service component flight regulations ## Footnote These regulations outline the procedures and requirements for weather briefings in military operations.
54
Which unit provides weather services for the INDOPACOM AOR?
USAF 17th OWS located on Joint Base Pearl Harbor Hickam ## Footnote The 17th Operational Weather Squadron (OWS) is responsible for weather services in this area of responsibility.
55
What is the COMM phone number for the 17th OWS?
808-448-7950/8305/8333 ## Footnote This number is used to reach the 17th OWS for weather-related inquiries.
56
What is the current website for the 17th OWS?
https://17ows.us.af.mil/ ## Footnote This website provides information and services related to the 17th OWS.
57
What is the new website the 17th OWS will transition to?
https://bifrost.afweather.mil/ ## Footnote This website will serve as the new platform for accessing weather services.
58
How can pilots submit a DD Form 175-1 Weather Briefing request?
Via the JET website at https://owsjet17.us.af.mil/ ## Footnote A Common Access Card (CAC) is required for access, but users can also submit via a guest account.
59
Can aircrews call in their DD Form 175-1 requests?
Yes, but the USAF Weather team will input the same information into the 17th OWS JET website ## Footnote This ensures that the request is documented correctly in the system.
60
What is the website to access Air Force Weather Web Services (AFW-WEBS)?
https://weather.af.mil/AFW_WEBS/ ## Footnote This site provides access to various Air Force weather services.
61
Who provides DD Form 175-1 briefings at Wheeler Detachment 2?
The 17th OWS Wheeler Detachment 2 ## Footnote They provide briefings either over the phone or in person.
62
What is the minimum time frame for submitting DD Form 175-1 requests?
More than 2 hours from delivery ## Footnote This guideline ensures adequate preparation time for the weather team.
63
What does LMWP stand for?
Local Mission Weather Product ## Footnote This product is specifically produced for the local areas of Wheeler/Oahu and BAAF/PTA.
64
Where can the Local Mission Weather Product (LMWP) be downloaded?
https://armyeitaas.sharepoint-mil.us/teams/USAGHawaiiWheelerAirfieldDivision/SitePages/Wheeler-%26-Bradshaw-Weather-Services.aspx ## Footnote This link directs users to the SharePoint site for weather services.
65
What is the commercial phone number for the 17th OWS Wheeler Detachment 2?
808-656-1016/1017 ## Footnote This number can be used to contact the Wheeler Detachment for weather services.
66
What is the VHF frequency for Wheeler Metro?
125.100 ## Footnote This frequency is used for communication in the Wheeler area.
67
Where is the 17th OWS Bradshaw Detachment located?
Within BAAF Base Operations ## Footnote This location provides support for weather services in the Bradshaw area.
68
What is the commercial phone number for the 17th OWS Bradshaw Detachment?
808-969-2458 ## Footnote This number is available for contacting the Bradshaw Detachment.
69
What is the UHF frequency for the Bradshaw Detachment?
125.750 ## Footnote This frequency is used for communication in the Bradshaw area.
70
What is the requirement for submitting DD Form 175-1 requests at Bradshaw Detachment?
Requests should be submitted more than 2 hours from execution ## Footnote This allows the weather team enough time to prepare the necessary briefings.
71
What is the general requirement for aircraft lighting?
Aircraft lighting will be IAW AR 95-1 except for refueling operations at the Hot Refuel Pad. ## Footnote Refer to unit SOP for aircraft lighting during refueling procedures.
72
What lighting configurations are allowed for aircraft within the TFTA between official sunset and sunrise?
Aircraft may deviate from standard lighting IAW FAA Grant of Exemption dated 17 January 2007. ## Footnote Standard lighting is anti-collision lighting on and position lights steady bright.
73
What lights must be on for a single aircraft operating in the TFTA?
Position/navigation and anti-collision lights must be on. ## Footnote The pilot can choose steady bright or steady dim.
74
When can a single aircraft turn off anti-collision lighting?
Anti-collision lighting may be turned off if it presents a safety hazard while operating below barriers. ## Footnote It must be turned back on once the aircraft is above the barriers.
75
What is the minimum lighting requirement for trail aircraft in multi-ship flights?
Trail aircraft must have anti-collision lighting lit and navigation/position lights on. ## Footnote Minimum upper strobe for anti-collision lighting.
76
What is the minimum lighting for other aircraft in a multi-ship formation?
Anti-collision lighting off and position/navigation lights lit dim.
77
What lighting requirements must be followed when returning to single-ship operations?
Aircraft must comply with single aircraft lighting requirements.
78
What is the procedure for using IR lighting in restricted areas?
Aircraft may use IR lighting with no outside coordination. ## Footnote This is in accordance with FAA Exemption # 9835 to 14 CFR 91.209(a)(1) and (2).
79
What is required of aircrews before entering WAAF/BAAF Class D airspace?
Aircrews will be up full FAA lighting prior to entering and within Class D airspace.
80
What does FAA Exemption #9835 permit for U.S. Army tactical helicopters?
It permits overt lighting off operations. ## Footnote Operations must be conducted in accordance with AR 95-2.
81
What must all pilots do before conducting operations under FAA Exemption #9835?
All pilots must review FAA Exemption # 9835.
82
What must pilots consult for applicable warning or restricted areas along their route of flight?
The DOD FLIP and NOTAM ## Footnote DOD FLIP refers to the Department of Defense Flight Information Publication, and NOTAM stands for Notice to Airmen.
83
Who controls the Warning Areas within the Hawaii ADIZ?
U.S. Navy Fleet Area Control and Surveillance Facility (FACSFAC) Pearl Harbor ## Footnote ADIZ stands for Air Defense Identification Zone.
84
How can scheduling for Hawaii ADIZ Warning Areas be requested?
Through the USN FACSFAC on the DCAST website ## Footnote Access requires CAC and an approved account through DCAT.
85
Which chapter provides information on scheduling UAS operations within Warning Areas?
Chapter 5 ## Footnote UAS stands for Unmanned Aircraft Systems.
86
What type of operations may aircraft conduct in R-3109/R-3110/R-3103?
Terrain flight operations ## Footnote These areas are subject to inspection for hazards as part of a recurring Hazard Survey.
87
Who owns the restricted areas R-3101 and R-3107?
Pacific Missile Range Facility ## Footnote For scheduling, contact via COMM (808) 335-4914 between 0800-1600 HST.
88
What is the primary terrain flight training area (TFTA)?
A-311 ## Footnote TFTA procedures will be discussed in detail in Chapter 8.
89
True or False: Tour helicopters will enter the A-311/TFTA around the ridgelines.
True ## Footnote Helicopter tours will also frequent Sacred Falls, located just east of Red Sector.
90
What are the weather minimums for the Hawaii local area?
In accordance with AR 95-1, FAA, and/or service component flight regulations. ## Footnote These regulations outline specific criteria for weather conditions during flight operations.
91
Where are special VFR minimums located?
In the Wheeler AAF, Bradshaw AAF/PTA, and A-311/TFTA chapters. ## Footnote These chapters contain specific guidelines for flying under special VFR conditions.
92
What is a critical requirement for helicopters regarding speed?
Helicopters must fly slowly enough to avoid collision with any traffic or obstruction. ## Footnote This is essential for maintaining safety in congested airspace.
93
What must an aircraft have when weather is forecast or observed to be less than 1000-foot ceiling and 3-mile visibility?
All required equipment for IMC flight listed in AR 95-1. ## Footnote IMC stands for Instrument Meteorological Conditions, which necessitates specific equipment for safe operation.
94
What is the primary goal of the noise abatement program in Hawaii?
To minimize aircraft noise impact on and near the installation and within the local flying area. ## Footnote The program aims to be considerate of residents' noise sensitivity.
95
Why is public acceptance of flight operations essential?
To gain public trust and ensure good relations with surrounding communities. ## Footnote Pilots must be sensitive to community concerns.
96
What responsibility does the pilot in command have regarding noise sensitive areas?
To verify published noise sensitive areas on the DoD FLIP along the route of flight. ## Footnote This includes areas where missions will be executed.
97
What is the altitude limit for avoiding overflight of civilian living areas and wildlife?
Below 1,500 FT AGL and within 1,500 feet laterally. ## Footnote AGL stands for Above Ground Level.
98
Who will designate noise sensitive areas based on complaints?
The 25th CAB Standardization Pilot (SP). ## Footnote This designation is based on complaints received by the Division Public Affairs Officer.
99
What should pilots avoid during operations to minimize noise annoyance?
Unnecessary overflight of populated areas and single houses. ## Footnote This is part of the fly neighborly program.
100
Fill in the blank: The noise abatement and fly neighborly program is designed to minimize _______ to persons, livestock, and game preserve animals.
annoyance. ## Footnote Missions and safety should not be adversely affected.
101
What updates will the 25th CAB provide to the Wheeler Airfield Manager?
Updates, necessary graphics, and changes to the noise sensitive areas. ## Footnote These updates will be presented at the AOB meetings.
102
True or False: This publication captures every noise sensitive area.
False. ## Footnote The publication does not capture every noise sensitive area.
103
What is the general guideline for aircraft conducting external load missions regarding populated areas?
Avoid overflight of built-up/populated areas, except for firefighting operations in support of civil authorities. ## Footnote This guideline ensures safety and minimizes disturbances in populated regions.
104
Is overflight of designated noise sensitive areas below 1,500 feet AGL permitted?
Prohibited unless directed by other publications. ## Footnote This includes publications like DoD FLIP.
105
What should aircraft consider when flying in formations greater than two?
Consider increasing altitude. ## Footnote This is to enhance safety and minimize noise impact.
106
What units are responsible for updating maps of designated noise sensitive areas for Oahu?
Units will update maps based on this document, FAA maps/charts, and associated documents. ## Footnote Accurate information is crucial for flight planning.
107
What are the conditions under which pilots may deviate altitude?
* Published routes and altitudes per DoD FLIP * Published routes and altitudes as directed by ATC * Conducting flights in support of civilian MEDEVAC and firefighting agencies * As required for safety of flight ## Footnote These conditions ensure compliance with regulations while maintaining operational flexibility.
108
What is the minimum NVD mission altitude over unpopulated areas?
500 feet AGL. ## Footnote This altitude is established for safety during night vision device operations.
109
Who is the approval authority for NVD formation flights?
No lower than Battalion/Squadron Commander. ## Footnote This ensures that responsible leadership oversees such operations.
110
What altitude can overwater tactical flights be conducted at when further than ¼ nm from the shoreline?
Less than 1,000 feet MSL. ## Footnote This regulation facilitates tactical maneuvers while maintaining safety.
111
What is the minimum distance aircraft must remain from the shoreline when transitioning along it?
A minimum of 1/4 nautical mile offshore or 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle (AHO). ## Footnote This is crucial for avoiding obstacles and ensuring safety.
112
What federal law prohibits regarding flight near whales?
Intentional flight within 1,500 feet of a whale or whale pod is prohibited. ## Footnote This law aims to protect marine wildlife.
113
What should pilots do if they observe whales while flying below 1,500 feet?
Alter flight path to avoid them by 1,500 feet. ## Footnote This action is necessary to comply with federal law.
114
Is intentional overflight of livestock allowed?
No, it is prohibited. ## Footnote This regulation is in place to protect livestock and minimize disturbances.
115
What is the guideline regarding intentional flight near surface vessels?
Intentional flight within 1,500 feet of any surface vessel is prohibited unless required for shipboard operations. ## Footnote This rule helps ensure maritime safety.
116
What are the operational hours restricted at Wheeler AAF?
2300 HST to 0630 HST daily ## Footnote Operations are limited to departures, arrivals, and refueling operations only.
117
What type of operations are not allowed at Wheeler AAF during restricted hours?
Closed traffic ## Footnote Only departures, arrivals, and refueling operations are permitted.
118
What does the Oahu Forest National Wildlife Refuge contain?
A few endangered species ## Footnote The refuge is managed by the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service.
119
Is the Oahu Forest National Wildlife Refuge depicted on a VFR sectional?
No ## Footnote Pilots must avoid this area in accordance with AR 95-1.
120
What is the altitude at which pilots should overfly the Oahu Forest National Wildlife Refuge?
Above 2,000 feet AGL ## Footnote Pilots must remain outside the boundaries or fly above this altitude.
121
What is the No Hover zone at Dillingham Airfield?
Pilots will limit time in the No Hover zone to takeoffs or landings.
122
What is the local flying area for BAAF?
The island of Hawai'i.
123
What role do personnel assigned to BAAF Operations play regarding military flight operations?
They ensure that military flight operations affect as little as possible on the local civilian population.
124
What does the Big Island contain that is relevant to flight operations?
A large area of national parks, wildlife refuges, and active temporary flight restrictions based on volcanic activity.
125
What must PICs review to identify avoidance areas?
The Hawai'i VFR Sectional and NOTAMS.
126
What is the avoidance distance listed in the DOD FLIP En Route Supplement?
Remain above 1,500 feet vertically above the highest obstacle and avoid by 1,500 feet laterally.
127
What was developed to ensure DoD participants are familiar with noise & culturally sensitive areas at PTA?
The PTA Noise Sensitive Brief.
128
What is the width of the corridor used for preferred routing at PTA?
4 KM wide.
129
Name one air control point for PTA preferred routing.
ACP 1, ACP 2 (Weliweli Point/Landfill), or ACP Inouye.
130
Fill in the blank: The avoidance distance is _______ feet vertically above the highest obstacle.
1,500
131
True or False: The PTA preferred routing points are located in populated areas.
False.
132
What are the established noise sensitive areas by the Garrison Commander, USAG PTA?
* WAIKII RANCH * HUMUULA SHEEP RANCH * HAWAI'IAN HISTORICAL SITE * WAIKOLOA VILLAGE ## Footnote This list is not all inclusive.
133
What is the minimum altitude to avoid known populated areas?
1500 feet AGL or higher ## Footnote AGL stands for Above Ground Level.
134
What is the lateral distance to avoid known populated areas?
1500 feet laterally ## Footnote This distance is to ensure safety and minimize noise disturbance.
135
True or False: The list of noise sensitive areas is exhaustive.
False ## Footnote The note indicates that the list is not all inclusive.
136
What are High Intensity Radio Transmission Areas (HIRTAs)?
Areas established to prevent aircraft mishaps due to high intensity radio transmissions ## Footnote Aviators must use specific procedures when flying near HIRTAs.
137
What must aviators do when encountering suspected anomalies in HIRTAs?
Submit an Army Aircraft Accident Report (AAAR) ## Footnote This report must include specific information about the incident.
138
What information is required in an AAAR?
* Aircraft type * Aircraft altitude * Suspected source location * Effects encountered in the aircraft ## Footnote These details help in the investigation of anomalies.
139
What classification must AAARs be stored and transmitted at?
SECRET//NORFORN ## Footnote This classification ensures the confidentiality of the reported information.
140
What is the no-fly zone altitude around Ka‘ena Point HIRTA?
0-4000' MSL ## Footnote This restriction is crucial for safety around the tracking station.
141
What is the radius of the no-fly zone surrounding Ka‘ena Point Tracking Station?
3000 ft radius ## Footnote This area is designated to prevent aircraft from entering hazardous zones.
142
What is the navigational warning regarding electromagnetic radiation at Ka'ena Point?
Radiation will continuously exist within a 2800' radius and 2800 feet above all antenna systems ## Footnote Pilots must presume radiation is present 24 hours a day.
143
What is the radius and altitude of the electromagnetic radiation hazard near Kokee NASA Telemetry Station?
2500' radius and 2500' above ## Footnote Helicopters and slow-speed aircraft are particularly at risk in this area.
144
What is the navigational warning for the S-band radar at Makaha Ridge, Kaua'i?
4200' radius and 4000' above ## Footnote Aircraft are exposed to direct radiation which may be harmful.
145
What is the radius and altitude for the electromagnetic radiation hazard at the Pacific Missile Range Facility, Kaua'i?
6500' radius and from the surface to 6500' above ## Footnote This area also poses risks to personnel and equipment.
146
What are the radiation hazard specifications at the Pacific Missile Range Facility, Kaua'i?
* 4600' radius and from surface to 4600' above S-band radar * 8000' radius and 8000' above X-band antenna ## Footnote The risks are continuous and must be acknowledged by all pilots.
147
True or False: Electromagnetic radiation is visually apparent to pilots.
False ## Footnote Pilots must presume radiation is present even though it cannot be seen.
148
What does this chapter prescribe for Wheeler Army Airfield?
Aviation operating procedures and responsibilities for operation in WAAF's Class D Airspace ## Footnote Refer to the WAAF Airfield Operations Manual (AOM) for more information.
149
Who is responsible for all operations concerning Wheeler Army Airfield?
WAAF Airfield Division Chief, per AR 95-2 ## Footnote This includes authority over all aviation operations at the Airfield.
150
What is the role of the WAAF Airfield Division Chief regarding operations?
Coordinate all activities concerning operations of WAAF and be the single point of contact for exceptions/deviations ## Footnote This includes implementing procedures of the specified section.
151
What type of aircraft and personnel does the chapter apply to?
All military aircraft, aircrews, and personnel utilizing the Airfield ## Footnote This ensures comprehensive coverage for all operations at WAAF.
152
Fill in the blank: The procedures contained in this chapter are applicable to all _______.
military aircraft, aircrews, and personnel
153
What are the hours of operation for Wheeler Air Traffic Control Tower?
Monday thru Friday 0730-2300, excluding Federal Holidays. ## Footnote This includes Base Operations and Lighting Airspace Information Center.
154
What is the operating schedule for Hot POL?
Monday through Friday 0730-2245, excluding Federal Holidays. ## Footnote Hot POL refers to the fuel services.
155
What is the operational status of WAAF weather services?
Open 24/7. ## Footnote This provides continuous weather information.
156
Under what conditions can changes to published operating hours be made?
Based on mission, hours may be reduced or extended. ## Footnote Changes will be disseminated via NOTAM.
157
How far in advance should special requests to extend operating hours be submitted?
14 workdays in advance. ## Footnote Submitted requests should be in writing or e-mail to the Chief, USAG-HI Airfield Division.
158
What are the regulations for unauthorized aircraft landing on WAAF?
They will be reported to the Airfield Division Chief. ## Footnote WAAF is a military airfield.
159
What must non-tenant units obtain for parking at WAAF?
A Prior Permission Request (PPR). ## Footnote This is required for all non-tenant military aircraft.
160
What is required for civilian aircraft to land at WAAF?
Emergency conditions or a Prior Permission Request (PPR). ## Footnote Civilian Aircraft Landing Permits (CALP) must be submitted for approval.
161
What is the notification period for C-17/C-130 aircraft operations at WAAF?
At least two weeks notification. ## Footnote Coordination through 25th ID G3 AIR is necessary.
162
What must be done before commencing C-17/C-130 operations on Hillclimber apron?
All UAS equipment must be removed. ## Footnote This is to avoid conflicts with ongoing operations.
163
What is the contact number for Wheeler Base Operations regarding PPRs?
COMM: 808–656–1282, DSN 456–1282. ## Footnote Email contact is usarmy.wheeler.id-pacific.mbx.bo@army.mil.
164
What must a foreign military service submit to land aircraft at WAAF?
An Army Aircraft Landing Authorization number (AALAN). ## Footnote This is in accordance with AR 95-2.
165
What are the frequencies for WAAF ATIS?
119.675 VHF. ## Footnote This frequency is used for automatic terminal information service.
166
What frequency is used for Ground Clearance Delivery at WAAF?
121.85 VHF. ## Footnote This is essential for ground operations.
167
What are the primary and alternate frequencies for Range Control at WAAF?
38.30 (Primary), 40.70 (Alternate). ## Footnote These frequencies are vital for range operations.
168
What are the WAAF Special VFR minimums based on?
AR 95-1. ## Footnote These regulations provide guidelines for special VFR operations.
169
What is the length and width of Runway 6-24?
5,608 feet by 100 feet
170
How many lit distance remaining markers are on Runway 6-24?
Eight (8)
171
What do the distance remaining markers on the runway indicate?
Runway remaining in thousands of feet
172
Can more than one helicopter be cleared to land on Runway 6-24 simultaneously?
Yes
173
What is the size of Papa Helipad?
100 feet by 100 feet
174
What type of aircraft can Papa Helipad accommodate?
CH-47 aircraft and below
175
What type of operations are authorized at Papa Helipad?
Day/Night VFR landings and takeoffs
176
What are hover points and where are they located?
Unlit 30-foot diameter circles located on taxiways J, K, and L
177
What operations can hover points facilitate?
Day/Night (under NVG) VFR takeoffs and landings and taxiing of aircraft
178
What is Triangle SOD bounded by?
Juliet taxiway to the east, Hillclimber apron to the west, and runway 6/24 to the north
179
How many helicopters are allowed in Triangle SOD at a time?
One helicopter
180
What is required for external load operations in support of a ground unit?
A PPR notification with Base Operations 24 hours prior to mission execution
181
Where are landings, takeoffs, and hover checks authorized on Alpha taxiway?
Abeam the birdbath only
182
What must flight routes for external load operations avoid?
All buildings and populated areas
183
Who should be contacted for prior permission for external load operations in the Hawai'i Army National Guard area?
HIARNG flight operations at 808-672-1580/1581
184
What type of lights are installed on the runway?
Medium Intensity Runway Edge Lights (MIRL)
185
What is the status of lighting on Alpha taxiway?
Unlit
186
What is the restriction when runway lights are inoperative?
Helicopters will be cleared for takeoff or landing at the pilot's discretion
187
What is Hillclimber Apron East End designated for?
CH-47 Parking Apron
188
What activities are scheduled through WAAF Base Operations on Hillclimber Apron West End?
Special Use Apron activities including Shadow UAS Landing Strip and Flight Deck Landing Pad
189
What is the designated parking area for transient fixed-wing aircraft?
Hillclimber Apron
190
How many parking positions are available for C-130 or smaller aircraft on Hillclimber Apron?
Two (2)
191
What is the minimum PPR notification required for landing at WAAF?
48 hours
192
How many UH-60/AH-64 sized parking pads are on North Apron?
51
193
What is the rotor clearance required between aircraft on North Apron?
30 feet apart
194
What are the primary units parked at North Apron?
* 2-25 Assault Helicopter (UH-60M) * 2-6 Air Cavalry Squadron (AH-64) * 209th Aviation Support Battalion * Civil Air Patrol
195
What is restricted near the Air Traffic Control Tower on North Apron?
Engine run-ups
196
How many parking positions does the National Guard Apron have?
16 parking positions ## Footnote The parking positions include different sizes of pads.
197
What are the dimensions of the two parking pads in the National Guard Apron?
80' X 100' ## Footnote There are two parking pads of this size.
198
How many 80' X 60' parking pads are in the National Guard Apron?
Three (3) 80' X 60' parking pads ## Footnote This contributes to the total of 16 parking positions.
199
What is the size of the ten parking pads in the National Guard Apron?
100' X 150' ## Footnote There are ten (10) of these parking pads.
200
What is the limitation regarding the north end between A15 and A16 Row at the National Guard Apron?
Can only back taxi out to A15 Row and cannot forward taxi to A16 Row ## Footnote This limitation is due to BLDG 827 obstruction.
201
What is the size of the parking positions at the Chinook Apron?
150' X 100' ## Footnote These positions are sized for eight CH-47 air.
202
How many parking positions are available at the Chinook Apron?
Eight (8) CH-47 air positions ## Footnote Each position is 150' X 100' in size.
203
What are the normal hours of operation for Hot POL?
0730 to 2245, Monday through Friday except Holidays or as dictated by NOTAM ## Footnote Units may request early or extended support through WAAF Base Operations at least two weeks in advance of requested operations.
204
How many hot refuel points are there and what are they labeled?
Four hot refuel points labeled Pad 1 through 4 ## Footnote The points are arranged in succession from south to north.
205
What types of helicopters can the hot refuel system accommodate?
Helicopters with standard NATO 'D-1' receptacles or Closed-Circuit Receptacles (CCR) ## Footnote This indicates compatibility with specific fuel receptacle types.
206
What positions must hot refuel personnel operate?
* Nozzle Operator * Pump Operator * Fire extinguisher operator (one member from aircrews, excluding AH-64s) ## Footnote The pump operator controls the pumps, fuel flow switch, and dead man switch in emergencies.
207
What precaution must refuelers take regarding aircraft rotor discs?
Refuelers are not permitted to enter the aircraft rotor disc until the anti-collision lights are turned off ## Footnote This is a safety measure to prevent accidents.
208
When should refueling activities be suspended?
When lightning activity is within 5 NM of the airfield ## Footnote This is indicated by an Observed Weather Warning.
209
What is prohibited on or near WAAF's hot refuel pads?
Explosive ordnance ## Footnote This is a safety regulation to prevent accidents during refueling operations.
210
What are hover points marked as on taxiways J, K, and L?
White circles ## Footnote They are utilized to alleviate transitional traffic on the active runway.
211
What is the purpose of hover points?
To alleviate transitional traffic on the active runway and may also be utilized as landing or takeoff points ## Footnote Their use is at the discretion of the tower based on traffic flow requirements.
212
What is the role of WAAF Ground Control regarding taxiways?
May have aircraft enter Kilo or Lima taxiways based on wind direction ## Footnote This indicates operational flexibility depending on environmental conditions.
213
What is required for defueling operations on concrete parking spots?
Conditions include: * No taxiing/parking next to operations * 50 feet standoff distance * Safety equipment available during operations ## Footnote These conditions ensure safety during defueling operations.
214
Who provides cold refueling support to aircraft?
Tenant units provide cold refueling to their respective aircraft. ## Footnote Non-tenant units must pre-coordinate with the respective tenant unit for cold refuel support.
215
What is the Birdbath?
The Birdbath is a radio-controlled water rinse facility located east of the Tower adjacent to taxiway Alpha. ## Footnote It is designated for rotary-wing aircraft only.
216
What is the procedure for entering the Birdbath?
Enter from the west or as directed by ATC based on traffic conditions. ## Footnote Aircraft may line up on Alpha taxiway when waiting for the Birdbath.
217
What is the maximum duration for an aircraft rinse in the Birdbath?
Two (2) minutes. ## Footnote This limit helps manage the flow of aircraft and maintain operational efficiency.
218
How does an aircraft activate the Birdbath rinse system?
Key the microphone 3 times in 5 seconds. ## Footnote This activation process is necessary to ensure the system is engaged.
219
How should an aircraft deactivate the Birdbath rinse system?
Key the microphone 5 times. ## Footnote Expect a 15-30 second delay after deactivation.
220
What should be done if there is a malfunction with the Birdbath?
Report malfunctions to the Tower or WAAF Operations. ## Footnote Proper reporting ensures issues are addressed quickly to maintain safety.
221
What size of transient aircraft may use the Birdbath?
CH-47 sized or smaller. ## Footnote This restriction helps manage the operational capacity of the Birdbath.
222
True or False: Only fixed-wing aircraft can use the Birdbath.
False. Only rotary-wing aircraft may use this facility.
223
What type of service does WAAF Fire Station 14 provide?
24-hour service, 7 days per week ## Footnote WAAF Fire Station 14 is responsible for emergency response including crash, fire, and rescue operations.
224
What equipment is included in the Oshkosh Striker 1500 trucks at WAAF Fire Station 14?
* 210 gallons of AFFF foaming capability * 1500 gallons of water * 450 pounds of dry chemical ## Footnote Two Oshkosh Striker 1500 trucks are utilized for firefighting operations.
225
Which fire station provides primary ambulance support?
Fed Fire Station #14 ## Footnote This station is responsible for emergency medical services.
226
What unit provides MEDEVAC helicopter services to U.S. military?
C Co 3-25 ## Footnote This unit operates within military training areas.
227
Does WAAF have a safe location to store aircraft with hung/stuck munitions?
No ## Footnote WAAF lacks a designated safe storage location for such aircraft.
228
What must instructors do before conducting Emergency Procedure Training (EPT)?
Notify Wheeler Tower ## Footnote This notification is essential for air traffic control coordination.
229
What is the procedure if a pilot cannot terminate autorotation within marked limits?
Make a power recovery ## Footnote This is a critical maneuver to ensure safety.
230
What is the traffic pattern altitude for rotary wing aircraft at WAAF during the day?
1500 ft MSL ## Footnote This altitude applies to daytime operations under normal visual flight rules.
231
What is prohibited during closed traffic patterns at WAAF?
Formation flights ## Footnote This is to maintain safety and operational efficiency.
232
What is the saturation level for closed pattern operations at WAAF?
Five (5) aircraft ## Footnote Exceeding this limit may lead to restrictions on other aircraft.
233
What are the traffic pattern altitudes for fixed wing aircraft at WAAF during the day?
2000 ft MSL ## Footnote This altitude is set for day operations under normal visual flight rules.
234
What time restrictions are in place for closed traffic patterns at WAAF for noise abatement?
2300 to 0630 ## Footnote Aircraft arrivals and departures are still authorized during these hours.
235
What is the maximum number of helicopters allowed in the FDLP Traffic Pattern?
Two (2) ## Footnote This limit is in place to ensure safety during helicopter training.
236
What altitude should pilots not exceed in the FDLP Traffic Pattern?
1,000 feet MSL ## Footnote This restriction is part of the procedural guidelines for the FDLP.
237
True or False: Aircraft are allowed to overfly UAS vehicles and equipment in the FDLP Traffic Pattern.
False ## Footnote Pilots must avoid overflying UAS vehicles for safety reasons.
238
What must pilots do before utilizing the FDLP?
Contact WAAF Tower ## Footnote This communication is crucial for coordination and safety.
239
What are VFR Corridors?
Access routes through the R-3109 complex with defined airspace control measures and altitudes.
240
What is the purpose of Kolekole and Motor Pool Corridors?
Allow access through the R-3109 area without contacting Range Control as they are transitional routes.
241
What is required for using Dragon X-Ray Corridor?
Range control permission due to extended aviation operations near live ranges.
242
What missions is the Dragon X-Ray Corridor designated for?
* MEDEVAC missions * Aviation gunneries * Firefighting (bambi bucket) * Firefighting training
243
What are the altitude specifications for Dragon X-Ray Corridor?
300 feet AGL and below.
244
What is the separation distance between Dragon X-Ray Corridor and Motor Pool Corridor?
Approximately 700 feet.
245
What is the procedure for returning to WAAF from Dragon X-Ray Corridor?
Use the Motor Pool Corridor, climb above 500 feet AGL before turning towards ACP Motor Pool, then climb to 2000 feet MSL.
246
True or False: ROZ X-1B / X-4A are activated by NOTAM.
False.
247
What should aircrews use to receive clearance into WAAF while on the ground at Dragon X-Ray?
Lightning Radio.
248
What is the procedure before entering any corridor?
Contact Range Control.
249
What is the altitude for proceeding north within the Motor Pool Corridor?
300 feet AGL.
250
What should aircraft do while using Kolekole Corridor?
Hold south of ACP Kolekole outside of the R-3109 at an altitude to be seen by departing traffic.
251
What happens to Kolekole Corridor when Firing Point 102 is active?
The corridor is closed.
252
What is the width of the Motor Pool Corridor?
200 meters.
253
When is the Motor Pool Corridor primarily used for arrivals?
When landing direction is RWY 6.
254
When is the Motor Pool Corridor primarily used for departures?
When landing direction is RWY 24.
255
Fill in the blank: The Kolekole Corridor is designed to enable freedom of maneuver for aircraft arriving or departing from/to the _______ side of Oahu.
west
256
What is the separation distance between Dragon X-Ray Corridor and Motor Pool Corridor?
Approximately 700 feet ## Footnote This distance is important for maintaining safe operations between the two corridors.
257
What should be avoided when operating in the vicinity of WAAF?
ROZs X-1B, X2, and X-4A ## Footnote These ROZs are specifically designated for sUAS training and will not be activated by NOTAM.
258
What altitude should be maintained when arriving at WAAF?
2000 feet MSL ## Footnote This altitude applies when proceeding south within the Motor Pool Corridor.
259
What is the first step when arriving at WAAF?
Request Motor Pool Corridor ## Footnote This is a procedural requirement for entering the area safely.
260
What is the altitude maintained when departing WAAF?
2000 feet MSL ## Footnote This altitude is also applicable when proceeding north within the Motor Pool Corridor.
261
What is the first step when departing WAAF?
Request Motor Pool Corridor ## Footnote Similar to arrival procedures, this is essential for safe operations.
262
Fill in the blank: When arriving at WAAF, avoid ROZs X1B, X2, and _______.
X-4A ## Footnote These ROZs are not activated by NOTAM and are designated for specific training.
263
What is the exit ACP when arriving at WAAF?
Pineapple ## Footnote The exit point is crucial for navigation and operational procedures.
264
What is the entry ACP for departing WAAF?
Motor Pool ## Footnote This entry point is key for maintaining the correct flight path during departures.
265
List the ACPs in order when arriving at WAAF.
* ACP Pineapple * ACP Mike 1 * ACP Mike 2 * ACP Mike 3 * ACP Mike 4 (Leader's Field) * Exit ACP Motor Pool ## Footnote This sequence is important for navigating the area safely.
266
List the ACPs in order when departing WAAF.
* ACP Motor Pool * ACP Mike 4 (Leader's Field) * ACP Mike 3 * ACP Mike 2 * ACP Mike 1 * Exit ACP Pineapple ## Footnote Following this order ensures compliance with flight procedures.
267
What are VFR reporting points used for?
To ensure a safe and orderly flow of VFR traffic ## Footnote Tower may approve deviations to these points.
268
What should pilots not ignore when adhering to VFR altitudes?
VFR cloud clearance requirements ## Footnote This is critical for maintaining safe flight operations.
269
Name a VFR reporting point located at 04Q EJ 9931 7916.
Dole ## Footnote This is one of the designated reporting points.
270
What is the altitude pilots should climb to after a left crosswind departure from runway 6?
2000 FT MSL ## Footnote This is the required altitude for the departure procedure.
271
What is not authorized for the left crosswind departure to Dole?
CH-47 aircraft or multi-ship flights ## Footnote Safety regulations restrict this type of operation.
272
What direction should pilots turn after departing runway heading for the Dole 270 Departure?
North ## Footnote This helps in maintaining proper flight path over the designated area.
273
What is the primary departure route for north departures from WAAF?
Dole 270 Departure ## Footnote This is specifically designed for CH-47F aircraft.
274
What should pilots do when departing WAAF Runway 24?
Use Motor Pool corridor to depart to the north ## Footnote This is a specific procedure for safe navigation.
275
What is the primary departure to the south from WAAF?
Kahu Beacon Departure ## Footnote This departure procedure helps deconflict from IFR arrivals.
276
What is the altitude to climb to when requesting Kahu Departure?
2,000 feet MSL ## Footnote This is necessary for safe navigation and separation from other traffic.
277
What should pilots monitor prior to reaching Kahu if dual VHF radio capable?
CTAF ## Footnote This is important for awareness of general aviation traffic in the area.
278
What is the primary departure to enter the TFTA from WAAF?
Ku Tree Departure ## Footnote This route is specifically designated for transitioning to the TFTA.
279
Fill in the blank: The Kahu Beacon is located at _______.
04Q EJ 9736 7138 ## Footnote This is the specific location for the Kahu Beacon.
280
True or False: The Dole 270 Departure is used for south departures.
False ## Footnote It is specifically for north departures.
281
What route should pilots follow after departing runway 6 and turning left?
Follow HWY 99 over Wahiawa ## Footnote This ensures proper navigation towards Dole.
282
What type of traffic uses the South Practice Area for training?
General aviation traffic ## Footnote They may not be monitoring Wheeler Tower.
283
What should aircraft request through WAAF Tower to depart to Lightning DZ?
Request Ku Tree Departure ## Footnote This request is made when conducting operations with Lightning Academy.
284
What is the initial altitude aircraft must climb to after departing the traffic pattern?
2000 feet MSL
285
What should aircraft do when Lightning Radio is closed?
Use TFTA CTAF to announce TFTA entry
286
What is the direct waypoint for aircraft proceeding after TFTA entry?
ACP Ku Tree (04Q FJ 9184 7783)
287
What caution should be noted regarding ACP Ku Tree?
May be congested due to several LZs within 2 KMs
288
Is the extended right base arrival from Dole authorized for CH-47 aircraft?
No
289
What is the altitude to maintain until passing Wahiawa during the runway 24 arrival procedures?
2000FT MSL
290
What is the primary arrival route from the south for VFR arrivals?
Kahu Beacon Arrival
291
What altitude should be maintained during the Kahu Beacon Arrival?
1500 feet MSL
292
What should be done prior to reaching Kahu Beacon?
Contact WAAF Tower
293
What is the primary arrival from the southern portion of the TFTA or Lightning DZ/Academy?
Ku Tree Arrival
294
What altitude should be maintained when entering the WAAF traffic pattern from Ku Tree?
1500 feet MSL
295
What is the alternate arrival when Motor Pool Corridor is closed?
Pineapple Express
296
What altitude should aircraft enter ACP Pineapple at?
2500 feet MSL
297
What should be maintained when proceeding direct to WAAF mid-field from ACP Pineapple?
2500 feet MSL
298
What caution should be taken when descending to enter the downwind leg from ACP Pineapple?
Use caution for departing traffic climbing to 2000 feet MSL heading to ACP Dole
299
What altitude should be maintained during contact with WAAF Tower prior to ACP Ku Tree?
1500 feet MSL
300
What does IIMC stand for?
Inadvertent Instrument Meteorological Conditions ## Footnote IIMC refers to unexpected weather conditions that require a pilot to fly by instrument rather than visually.
301
What should be done if in a multi-ship flight during IIMC?
Execute IIMC break-up according to the aircrew mission briefing or unit SOP ## Footnote SOP stands for Standard Operating Procedures.
302
What is the first step in IIMC recovery procedures?
Execute IIMC procedures in accordance with aircraft ATM or multi-ship IIMC breakup plan ## Footnote ATM refers to Air Traffic Management.
303
What should the transponder be set to during IIMC recovery?
Emergency ## Footnote This setting alerts air traffic control to the emergency situation.
304
What is the minimum altitude to climb to during IIMC recovery?
6,500 feet MSL ## Footnote MSL stands for Mean Sea Level.
305
What frequency should be contacted for HCF approach during IIMC recovery?
VHF 120.9 ## Footnote VHF stands for Very High Frequency.
306
What information should be provided to HCF approach during IIMC recovery?
Emergency IMC, position relative to known airport or NAVAID, heading, altitude, request Emergency IFR handling or radar vectors to VMC conditions ## Footnote VMC stands for Visual Meteorological Conditions.
307
Fill in the blank: During IIMC recovery, you must contact HCF approach on VHF _______.
120.9
308
True or False: During IIMC recovery, it is optional to set the transponder to emergency.
False
309
What is the required lateral clearance for aircraft during taxiing?
75 feet safe lateral clearance from all obstacles ## Footnote This is crucial to prevent collisions with ground obstacles.
310
What is the maximum taxi speed for aircraft?
Do not taxi faster than a brisk walk ## Footnote This ensures safety during ground operations.
311
When is air taxi authorized?
When cleared by ATC ## Footnote Air Traffic Control must provide authorization for air taxi procedures.
312
What is the maximum towing speed for aircraft?
Walking speed ## Footnote This limit is set to ensure safety during ground handling.
313
What must be used for all ground handling movements?
Wing walkers ## Footnote This is per the appropriate TM/Unit SOP to ensure safety.
314
What should pilots ensure regarding lateral clearance during fixed-wing taxiing?
Adequate lateral clearance of obstacles ## Footnote This is essential for safe ground operations.
315
Unless directed by Tower, where should pilots enter and exit from the runway?
Via marked taxiways ## Footnote Other points along the runway shoulder may not have adequate clearance.
316
How many personnel are required for ground-handling aircraft?
No less than two personnel ## Footnote One person should be outside and one inside to operate aircraft brakes.
317
Where should single-engine run-ups be performed?
On the north side of the runway at the east and west end of the ramp ## Footnote Refer to the WAAF Airfield Diagram for exact locations.
318
Where should multi-engine run-ups be performed?
On Hillclimber Ramp ## Footnote This location is designated for multi-engine aircraft operations.
319
Where will cargo helicopters normally taxi after landing?
To Hillclimber Apron for passenger/cargo pick up ## Footnote This is the common procedure following cargo helicopter operations.
320
What is required for aircraft operations dealing with cargo or passengers regarding Hillclimber Apron?
At least 48-hours PPR with Base Operations/WAAF Manager ## Footnote This ensures proper coordination and safety for cargo operations.
321
Where is the designated area for passenger/cargo loading and unloading vehicles?
South side of Hillclimber Apron along the Airfield fence line adjacent to Aerodrome Road ## Footnote Approval by Base Operations/Airfield Manager is necessary.
322
What must military vehicles do when conducting cargo loads at Hillclimber Apron?
Park on the gravel area adjacent to Airdrome Road ## Footnote Vehicles must remain in this area until directed towards the aircraft.
323
From where must passengers disembark from vehicles?
In the gravel area adjacent to Airdrome Road ## Footnote Passengers then walk to the aircraft from this area.
324
What areas are authorized for pick-up and drop-off of external loads?
Designated External Load Storage Areas ## Footnote Hillclimber Apron may also be used with prior PPR.
325
What type of airspace is the South Practice Area classified as?
Uncontrolled airspace (Class G) ## Footnote VFR flight rules apply in this area.
326
What should aircraft inbound to the South Practice Area maintain?
Radio contact with Wheeler Tower ## Footnote This is a courtesy due to proximity to Wheeler's Class D airspace.
327
What type of flights may be conducted in the South Practice Area?
Maintenance test flights ## Footnote This area is used for various flight training activities.
328
What are the designated maintenance test flight areas for Oahu?
* WAAF/BAAF traffic patterns * North Shore maintenance test flight area (Oahu) * South practice area (Oahu) ## Footnote MTFs may also be conducted at another airfield traffic pattern with proper approval.
329
What procedures should be referred to for MTF flight strip filing instructions?
Chapter 2 of this manual ## Footnote This chapter contains specific guidelines for filing MTF flight strips.
330
What is the requirement for conducting autorotation with a power recovery?
It may be conducted to any unpopulated area (open field) if a successful landing can be accomplished without damage to the aircraft, personnel, or property in case of an actual engine failure.
331
What is the primary maintenance test flight area for the island of Oahu?
North Maintenance Test Flight Area ## Footnote This area is specified for conducting maintenance test flights.
332
What is the altitude range for the North Maintenance Test Flight Area?
2,500 – 11,000 FT MSL ## Footnote MSL stands for Mean Sea Level, indicating the vertical distance above sea level.
333
How is flight following accomplished in the North Maintenance Test Flight Area?
Utilizing Lightning Radio ## Footnote Lightning Radio provides communication support for flight following.
334
What should be done when Lightning Radio and WAAF Tower are closed?
Flight following will be accomplished with unit flight operations or an appropriate ATC facility and make advisory calls on Oahu Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF).
335
Fill in the blank: The North Maintenance Test Flight Area boundaries and altitudes are detailed in _______.
Table 7-1 ## Footnote This table contains specific coordinates and altitude information.
336
What should MTFs monitor in the South Practice Area?
CTAF and WAAF Tower frequencies (UHF or VHF) ## Footnote This monitoring is necessary due to the density of general aviation traffic in the area.
337
What is the reason for monitoring CTAF and WAAF Tower frequencies in the South Practice Area?
Due to the density of general aviation traffic ## Footnote This is important for safety and communication among pilots.
338
What is an alert area?
Airspace with a high volume of pilot training or unusual aeronautical activity ## Footnote Alert areas inform nonparticipating pilots of potential hazards in these zones.
339
What is the purpose of designating an alert area?
To inform nonparticipating pilots about high volumes of pilot training operations or unusual activities ## Footnote Pilots are advised to be particularly alert in these areas.
340
Where is the Tactical Flight Training Area (TFTA) generally located?
Within the airspace designated as A-311 north of Mililani Mauka ## Footnote The TFTA is divided into color-coded sectors.
341
What is the vertical boundary of the TFTA?
From the surface to 500 feet AGL ## Footnote AGL stands for Above Ground Level.
342
Fill in the blank: An alert area contains a high volume of _______ or an unusual type of aeronautical activity.
[pilot training]
343
True or False: Pilots are not required to be alert when flying in alert areas.
False ## Footnote Pilots are specifically advised to be particularly alert in these areas.
344
What are the color-coded sectors within the TFTA used for?
To designate different areas of activity within the TFTA ## Footnote Each color represents specific operational guidelines.
345
What do the weather minimums not supersede?
AR 95-1 VFR weather minimums
346
What are the TFTA weather requirements for day operations?
500 feet ceiling and 1 mile visibility
347
What are the TFTA weather requirements for night operations?
1,000 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
348
What are the NVD weather requirements?
1,000 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility
349
Who may waive NVD minimums to 700-2?
Battalion/Squadron (first O-5 in chain of command) or HIARNG Operations Officer (HIARNG only)
350
Who may waive NVD minimums to 500-2?
The Brigade Commander (first O-6 in the chain of command)
351
What will not be reduced below AR 95-1 weather minimums?
Actual medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) missions
352
What is the primary means of flight following in the TFTA?
Lightning Radio on UHF 239.5(P) or VHF 141.65(A)
353
Does Lightning Radio monitor the air-to-air frequency?
No
354
What are the operational hours for Lightning Radio?
Monday through Friday 0730 HST to 2300 HST or as directed by NOTAM
355
What services does Lightning Radio provide?
Procedural flight following services, traffic advisories, and hazard updates
356
What is the primary means for de-confliction, separation, and coordination between aircraft?
FM Air to Air
357
What happens when Lightning Radio is not operational?
UHF becomes the CTAF
358
What frequency is used for Lightning Radio (Primary)?
239.5
359
What frequency is used for Lightning Radio (Alternate)?
141.65
360
What is the TFTA Air to Air Frequency?
36.20
361
What missions require scheduling through Schofield Range Control?
Missions of four or more ACFT with or without troops, air assaults, air movements, airborne ops with troops, aerial delivery operations
362
How many working days in advance must units notify Schofield Range Control for approval?
Three working days
363
What must aircrews do for missions not listed for scheduling?
Coordinate directly with Range Control on FM 38.30
364
Who has priority over non-participating aircraft in TFTA areas?
The reserving unit
365
When must the reserving unit notify Lightning Radio?
Once operations are complete
366
Participating aircrews should identify themselves and notify Lightning Radio with enough advance notice to _______.
clear or reroute non-participating aircraft
367
Where are the Upper and Lower 36 LZs located?
On the south side of Wahiawa and the Lightning Academy Training Area ## Footnote Units must coordinate with Lightning Academy at 808-656-0576 for use of Upper and Lower 36 LZs.
368
What should aircrews adhere to due to the proximity of Upper and Lower 36 LZs to Wahiawa?
Fly neighborly ## Footnote Large formations should limit operations to daytime.
369
When is the X-Strip LZ not scheduled for use?
During weekends and Federal holidays ## Footnote Unless a supported military exercise approved by range control is occurring.
370
Who has recreational use of the X-Strip LZ during weekends and Federal holidays?
Hawai'i Motorsports Association
371
What are the vertical boundaries of TFTA airspace?
500 feet AGL and below ## Footnote Sector airspace is 200 feet AGL and below.
372
What does Figure 8-1 depict regarding TFTA?
Five training sectors, their associated nap-of-earth routes, approved landing zones, drop zones, and TFTA boundaries ## Footnote The flight following matrix is located in WAAF Base Operations.
373
What are the names of the training sectors in TFTA?
Green, Black, Red, Yellow, and Blue
374
What must north arrivals to the TFTA report for entry under NVDs?
NVD entry points ACP GOLF BALLS (G2) or ACP KAHUKU (J4)
375
Fill in the blank: For entry at ACP GOLF BALL (G2), go feet dry just west of _______.
Turtle Bay
376
What is the visual reference for ACP KAHUKU?
The southern tip of a triangular formation of windmills
377
What is the NVG entry point ACP WINDMILLS used for?
Entering the TFTA from the NW ## Footnote Visual reference is the southern edge of the windmill farm
378
What visual reference is associated with ACP HELEMANO?
North side of Helemano Military Reservation (HMR) ## Footnote Used for entry into the TFTA from Dole while using NVDs
379
What should be avoided when using ACP HELEMANO?
Overflying housing area
380
What is the day and NVG entry point to Green Sector?
ACP KU TREE (H23)
381
What procedures will all aviation units use when conducting flight training in the TFTA?
These procedures prioritize missions supporting combined-arms training and tactical exercises.
382
Define Free Flight Operations in the context of TFTA.
Aircraft established within the lateral boundaries of a sector, below 200 feet AGL, and free to maneuver without the constraints of a published Nap-of-Earth (NOE) route.
383
What is required for position reports when Lightning Radio is operational?
Position reports are required every 15 minutes or when departing a previously coordinated area of operation for single aircraft.
384
What is the maximum extended position reporting time allowed for multi-aircraft operations?
30 minutes maximum.
385
What happens if the required position report is not received within the specified time period?
Overdue aircraft procedures will be initiated by Lightning Radio.
386
What should aircraft use to facilitate flight following?
A combination of the alpha-numeric reference system, LZ names, numbers, NOE route or sector colors.
387
When Lightning Radio is not operational, who should aircrews flight follow with?
Unit operations or a 'sister' ship within the formation.
388
True or False: Military Aircraft that cannot communicate on UHF are allowed to fly in the TFTA.
False.
389
What must aircrews do when Lightning Radio is closed while on NOE routes?
Fly from south to north only and make a call in the blind on TFTA CTAF 239.5 stating their location and route.
390
What should an aircraft do in the event of radio failure?
Exit the TFTA vertically and notify the flight following facility by the most expeditious means available.
391
What information must be included in the initial call to Lightning Radio before TFTA entry?
* Aircraft tail number or call sign * Number and type of aircraft * Number of personnel on board * Entry point, destination and proposed route of flight
392
At what altitude can aircraft enter the TFTA during the day?
At any location at or below 500 feet AGL.
393
What are the NVD reporting points for TFTA?
* Ku Tree * Helemano * Windmills * Golf Balls * Kahuku
394
What should aircrews do when entering the TFTA near NVD reporting points?
Descend below 500 feet AGL once inside the TFTA.
395
Who controls traffic density in the TFTA?
Lightning Radio based on published NOTAMs.
396
What is the maximum number of aircraft or formations allowed on an NOE route?
Two.
397
What should aircraft do before transitioning from sector to sector?
Communicate or coordinate prior to an approach or entry on to NOE routes.
398
What is the altitude requirement for aircraft operating near the TFTA but not logged into a sector?
Remain above 500 feet AGL until established on approach.
399
What will aircraft conducting terrain flight training do for entry into a sector?
Request entry with Lightning Radio or call in the blind on CTAF when Lightning Radio is closed.
400
What should an aircraft do if it becomes disoriented?
Attempt to return to the last known point or climb to 500 feet AGL to reorient.
401
What is the preferred flow of traffic on terrain flight routes?
South to north.
402
What is the rule regarding starting a terrain flight route?
Aircraft will only begin at a start/end point.
403
Fill in the blank: Published terrain flight routes provide clearance of _______ and freedom to conduct safe terrain flight from other traffic.
[obstacles]
404
What should be done before an aircraft starts a terrain flight route?
Wait for the preceding aircraft to report reaching the midpoint or clearing the route.
405
What is required for passing on terrain flight routes?
Coordination between the two aircraft, with the one being passed holding at the midpoint.
406
What is the authorized direction for NOE routes?
South to north only ## Footnote North to south travel is unauthorized.
407
What must aircraft operating in the East Range maintain?
Below 200 feet AGL and contact with Lightning Radio ## Footnote Aircrews must request frequency change with Lightning Radio before entering Class D.
408
What should aircrews do when departing TFTA?
Contact Lightning Radio/CTAF, state departure point, next destination, and climb above 500 feet AGL ## Footnote Confirm external lighting is appropriate at night.
409
What is the requirement for helicopters operating in designated LZs?
Must have maneuver rights coordinated and a current LZ survey ## Footnote Large portions of the A-311 surface area do not belong to the U.S. Government.
410
Who is the central coordination center for airborne operations?
G3-Air Range Control ## Footnote They de-conflict training/drop areas with various units.
411
During what hours are parachute drops to Lightning DZ conducted?
0600L-1800L, Monday through Friday ## Footnote Refer to the AP3 in the DoD FLIP for procedures.
412
What must the requesting unit submit to activate Lightning air advisory area?
A NOTAM to the FAA ## Footnote The NOTAM restricts air operations within a five nautical mile radius from the center of mass of Lightning DZ.
413
What is the maximum drop altitude for Basilan DZ?
12,500 feet AGL ## Footnote The drop area has a five nautical mile radius air advisory area when activated.
414
What is the size of Kanes DZ?
500m X 300m ## Footnote It is designed for heavy equipment, supply cargo, and personnel drops.
415
What is required for para drop operations at Kanes DZ?
Submit a NOTAM to the FAA restricting air operations five nautical miles radius from center of mass ## Footnote Para Drop operations are published in the HNL NOTAMs.
416
True or False: Helicopters are allowed to hover over areas where rotor wash might cause damage to crops.
False ## Footnote Helicopters will not hover over such areas.
417
Fill in the blank: The maximum drop altitude for parachute operations is ______.
12,500 feet AGL
418
What are Restricted Areas 3109 and 3110?
Designated airspace for activities that must be confined or where limitations may be imposed on aircraft operations
419
What is the altitude range for R3109A?
Surface to 8,999 feet
420
Which agency controls Restricted Areas 3109 and 3110?
Honolulu Control Facility
421
What is the altitude range for R3109B?
9,000 to 18,999 feet
422
What is the operational status of Restricted Areas 3109 and 3110?
Operational activation is intermittent
423
What must all aircraft do prior to entering Restricted Areas R-3109 / R-3110?
Contact and monitor Range Control on FM 38.30
424
What are the primary and alternate frequencies for Range Control?
* Primary: 38.30 * Alternate: 40.70
425
When is Makua Range Control operational?
0530 – 1400 HST, Monday to Friday
426
What should aircrews do when Makua Range Control is not operating?
Contact Lightning Radio or Schofield Range Control
427
What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed to operate within Makua?
No more than three individual aircraft or one flight
428
What is the altitude limit for manned aircraft in the Wings Training Area?
3,000 feet MSL and below
429
What is the purpose of the Wings Training Area?
Primarily for manned/unmanned teaming operations and multi-ship terrain flight training
430
What frequency should be monitored for traffic entering from the Wings Training Area?
Lightning Radio
431
What is the WTA Air to Air Frequency?
36.20
432
What must units submit for deliberate operations into Makua?
A NOTAM to base operations two business days prior to execution
433
What details must be provided in the NOTAM for operations?
* Unit(s) * Date/time/group for mission start
434
True or False: Military aircraft in the Wings Training Area must operate with overt lighting.
False
435
Fill in the blank: The altitude for R3110A is _______.
Surface to 8,999 feet
436
What is the role of Range Control?
Develops and disseminates a monthly schedule for restricted area operations
437
What is the altitude limit for manned aircraft in the Wings Training Area (WTA)?
3,000 feet MSL and below ## Footnote This altitude limit is enforced to ensure safety with unmanned aircraft systems (UAS) operating above 3,300 MSL.
438
What types of operations is the WTA primarily designed for?
Manned/unmanned teaming operations and multi-ship terrain flight training ## Footnote Covert lighting is used with overt lighting off.
439
What must military aircraft do regarding lighting in the WTA?
Switch lighting to covert only (blackout) ## Footnote This is allowed without an observation aircraft using overt settings.
440
What is the primary air-to-air frequency for the WTA?
36.20 ## Footnote Lightning Radio frequencies are 141.65 (Alternate) and 239.5 (Primary).
441
How many business days prior must units submit a NOTAM for deliberate operations?
Two business days ## Footnote This applies to operations such as training zone reconnaissance or attacks into Makua.
442
What information must be included in a NOTAM submission?
* Unit(s) * Date/time/group for mission start * Date/time/group for end of mission * Point of contact (air mission commander's call sign and phone number)
443
Are NOTAMs required for covert lighting operations?
No ## Footnote Covert lighting operations do not require a NOTAM.
444
What must aircrews contact Lightning Radio with during check-in procedures?
* Call sign * Number & type of aircraft * Entry sector * Request “Blackout” or “MUM-T” operations
445
What is the WTA's flight procedure regarding established terrain flight routes?
The WTA is “free flight” ## Footnote There are no established terrain flight routes.
446
What are the avoid areas referenced in the WTA?
* Monastery (04Q EJ 859 849) * Mt. Ka'ala Radar Station (04Q EJ 88833 78574) (1 KM radius) * Campground (04Q EJ 833 827) (fly neighborly) * Ka'ena Point Satellite Tracking Station (04Q EJ 7871 8452) (1 KM radius) * 50 ft wire hazard
447
What is the recommended size formation for MUM-T operations in the WTA?
Platoon (4-5 manned aircraft) or smaller
448
How many manned aircraft can operate in each sector for operations other than MUM-T?
No more than one team/section (2-3 manned aircraft) ## Footnote Aircrews must report sector changes to Lightning Radio.
449
Who designates the Range Officer in Charge (OIC) for laser operations?
The Battalion/Squadron Commander
450
What is the center of mass grid for Firing Point 308?
EJ-94681-79851 ## Footnote Aircraft must be within 50 meters of this grid when lasing.
451
What are the entry and exit procedures for FP 308?
Enter and exit FP 308 to the north
452
What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed to occupy FP 308?
No more than 2 aircraft
453
What are the left and right limits for laser operations at FP 308?
* Left limit: 215 degrees magnetic * Right limit: 232 degrees magnetic
454
What is the minimum range for laser operations at FP 308?
2,000 meters
455
What is the maximum laser LOS elevation at FP 308?
004 degrees elevation above level
456
What are the laser operation procedures at Makua Military Reservation?
* Left limit: (EJ 8032 8056) 050 degrees magnetic * Right limit: (EJ 8032 8013) 095 degrees magnetic * Minimum Range: 1200 meters * Maximum laser LOS elevation: 004 degrees or less
457
What is the altitude limit for manned aircraft in the Wings Training Area (WTA)?
3,000 feet MSL and below ## Footnote This altitude limit is enforced to ensure safety with unmanned aircraft systems (UAS) operating above 3,300 MSL.
458
What types of operations is the WTA primarily designed for?
Manned/unmanned teaming operations and multi-ship terrain flight training ## Footnote Covert lighting is used with overt lighting off.
459
What must military aircraft do regarding lighting in the WTA?
Switch lighting to covert only (blackout) ## Footnote This is allowed without an observation aircraft using overt settings.
460
What is the primary air-to-air frequency for the WTA?
36.20 ## Footnote Lightning Radio frequencies are 141.65 (Alternate) and 239.5 (Primary).
461
How many business days prior must units submit a NOTAM for deliberate operations?
Two business days ## Footnote This applies to operations such as training zone reconnaissance or attacks into Makua.
462
What information must be included in a NOTAM submission?
* Unit(s) * Date/time/group for mission start * Date/time/group for end of mission * Point of contact (air mission commander's call sign and phone number)
463
Are NOTAMs required for covert lighting operations?
No ## Footnote Covert lighting operations do not require a NOTAM.
464
What must aircrews contact Lightning Radio with during check-in procedures?
* Call sign * Number & type of aircraft * Entry sector * Request “Blackout” or “MUM-T” operations
465
What is the WTA's flight procedure regarding established terrain flight routes?
The WTA is “free flight” ## Footnote There are no established terrain flight routes.
466
What are the avoid areas referenced in the WTA?
* Monastery (04Q EJ 859 849) * Mt. Ka'ala Radar Station (04Q EJ 88833 78574) (1 KM radius) * Campground (04Q EJ 833 827) (fly neighborly) * Ka'ena Point Satellite Tracking Station (04Q EJ 7871 8452) (1 KM radius) * 50 ft wire hazard
467
What is the recommended size formation for MUM-T operations in the WTA?
Platoon (4-5 manned aircraft) or smaller
468
How many manned aircraft can operate in each sector for operations other than MUM-T?
No more than one team/section (2-3 manned aircraft) ## Footnote Aircrews must report sector changes to Lightning Radio.
469
Who designates the Range Officer in Charge (OIC) for laser operations?
The Battalion/Squadron Commander
470
What is the center of mass grid for Firing Point 308?
EJ-94681-79851 ## Footnote Aircraft must be within 50 meters of this grid when lasing.
471
What are the entry and exit procedures for FP 308?
Enter and exit FP 308 to the north
472
What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed to occupy FP 308?
No more than 2 aircraft
473
What are the left and right limits for laser operations at FP 308?
* Left limit: 215 degrees magnetic * Right limit: 232 degrees magnetic
474
What is the minimum range for laser operations at FP 308?
2,000 meters
475
What is the maximum laser LOS elevation at FP 308?
004 degrees elevation above level
476
What are the laser operation procedures at Makua Military Reservation?
* Left limit: (EJ 8032 8056) 050 degrees magnetic * Right limit: (EJ 8032 8013) 095 degrees magnetic * Minimum Range: 1200 meters * Maximum laser LOS elevation: 004 degrees or less
477
What documents contain aerodrome descriptions and flight procedures for Dillingham Airfield?
The DOD Chart Supplement Pacific and the Hawai'i Airports and Flying Safety Manual ## Footnote These documents outline compliance procedures for aircrews operating in the Dillingham area.
478
Who owns Dillingham Airfield?
US Army Garrison ## Footnote Dillingham is open to civil use through a Joint-Use/lease agreement with the State of Hawai'i.
479
What should aircrews do if they will use the Dillingham training area for flight operations?
Advise Dillingham UNICOM ## Footnote This is part of the outlined procedures in the relevant flight manuals.
480
What is the noise sensitivity status of the area around Dillingham Airfield?
Extremely noise sensitive ## Footnote Aircrews should review chapter 3 for Fly Neighborly and Noise Abatement procedures.
481
What are the operating hours for Dillingham Airfield for civil aircraft?
Daily under VFR conditions ## Footnote Military aircraft can use the airfield anytime and exclusively after sunset until 22:00 LCL.
482
What frequency is used for Dillingham UNICOM?
VHF 123.00 ## Footnote The UNICOM is operational daily from 0900-1700L.
483
What is the length and surface type of Runway 08/26 at Dillingham?
9007 x 75 feet, unlighted asphalt surface ## Footnote RWY 8 has a displaced threshold of 1,993' and RWY 26 has a displaced threshold of 1,995 ft.
484
What facilities does Dillingham Airfield lack?
Military parking, POL facilities, runway lighting, USAF weather services ## Footnote Dillingham does not provide emergency services (crash rescue) either.
485
When must all aircraft contact Dillingham Unicom?
Prior to entering the traffic pattern ## Footnote Maintain contact when operating in the Dillingham area.
486
What is the traffic pattern altitude for Dillingham Airfield?
800 feet MSL downwind, 600 feet MSL base ## Footnote Powered aircraft must keep the base leg close and cross the airport boundary fence at or above 600' MSL.
487
What is the maximum number of aircraft allowed in night traffic at Dillingham?
3 aircraft/formations ## Footnote This includes any combinations of aircraft.
488
Fill in the blank: Dillingham Training Area is also known as the _______.
Boondocks ## Footnote This area is available for flight operations 24/7.
489
What is the procedure for landing straight in from the west at Dillingham?
Land straight in or extend the base leg past Runway 26 before turning final ## Footnote Once established in the Dillingham Training Area, closed traffic may be made south of the runway.
490
True or False: Dillingham Airfield has emergency services available.
False ## Footnote No crash rescue services are available on the airfield.
491
Is terrain flight authorized in the Boondocks Training Area?
Yes, terrain flight is authorized in the Boondocks Training Area. ## Footnote Aircrews must monitor Dillingham CTAF for civilian traffic avoidance.
492
What types of civilian traffic may operate over the Boondocks Training Area?
Civilian glider and skydiver traffic. ## Footnote These may not utilize Dillingham CTAF.
493
What should military aircrews be vigilant about when departing the Boondocks Training Area?
Civilian traffic. ## Footnote Aircrews should be cautious due to the potential presence of gliders and skydivers.
494
What does the section on civilian airfield operations at Dillingham Airfield emphasize?
Caution regarding general aviation activities. ## Footnote Pilots must be aware of the activities at the airfield.
495
How are gliders typically launched at Dillingham Airfield?
They are normally air-towed. ## Footnote Gliders routinely depart the traffic pattern to the south.
496
What is the typical flight pattern for gliders after takeoff from runway 8 and 26?
Right turn after takeoff RWY 8; Left turn after takeoff RWY 26. ## Footnote Gliders usually fly the ridgeline to the south of the airport.
497
Are most gliders radio equipped?
No, most gliders are not radio equipped. ## Footnote Powered aircraft towing the gliders have radios.
498
What altitude range do parachutes typically open at during skydiving operations?
Between 2,000' and 4,500'. ## Footnote This is to ensure a safe descent to the drop zone.
499
At what altitude do extensive parachute operations occur?
16,000' and below. ## Footnote Parachutists may exit the aircraft upwind of the airport.
500
What is the general pattern for parachutists entering the drop zone?
Abbreviated left traffic pattern (RWY 8) or right traffic pattern (RWY 26). ## Footnote This is affected by wind conditions.
501
Where are skydiver drop zone operations generally located?
East of runway 26. ## Footnote This area is designated for parachute activities.
502
At what altitude is general aviation aerobatic training conducted?
1,500' MSL and above. ## Footnote Aerobatic training is typically conducted offshore above the downwind leg.