Cpaexcel Flashcards

1
Q

Zeta Co. reported sales revenue of $4,600,000 in its Income Statement for the year ended December 31, 2001. Additional information is as follows:

12/31/00 12/31/01
Accounts receivable $1,000,000 $1,300,000
Allowance for uncollectible accounts (60,000) (110,000)
Zeta wrote off uncollectible accounts totaling $20,000 during 2001. Under the cash basis of accounting, Zeta would have reported 2001 sales of:

A.  $4,900,000
B.  $4,350,000
C.  $4,300,000
D.  $4,280,000
A

A
Incorrect
Zeta Co. reported sales revenue of $4,600,000 in its Income Statement for the year ended December 31, 2001. Additional information is as follows:

12/31/00 12/31/01
Accounts receivable $1,000,000 $1,300,000
Allowance for uncollectible accounts (60,000) (110,000)
Zeta wrote off uncollectible accounts totaling $20,000 during 2001. Under the cash basis of accounting, Zeta would have reported 2001 sales of:

A.  $4,900,000 This calculation is sales plus the change in accounts receivable during the year. But accounts receivable increased and, therefore, should be subtracted from sales in determining cash collections. When accounts receivable increases, sales exceeds cash collections.
B.  $4,350,000
C.  $4,300,000
D.  $4,280,000 The question requires a solution for cash collected on accounts receivable. Using the information for accounts receivable, the collections amount can be found: Beginning balance	+	sales	-	collections	-	write offs	=	ending balance $1,000,000	+	$4,600,000	-	collections	-	$20,000	=	$1,300,000 collections			=	$4,280,000

D Correct
The question requires a solution for cash collected on accounts receivable. Using the information for accounts receivable, the collections amount can be found:
Beginning balance + sales - collections - write offs = ending balance
$1,000,000 + $4,600,000 - collections - $20,000 = $1,300,000
collections = $4,280,000

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2
Q

A company has the following accrual-basis balances at the end of its first year of operation:

Unearned consulting fees $2,000
Consulting fees receivable 3,500
Consulting fee revenue 25,000
The company’s cash-basis consulting revenue is what amount?

A.  $19,500
B.  $23,500
C.  $26,500
D.  $30,500
A

B
Incorrect
Cash-basis revenue is the amount of cash collected for the period. $25,000 of accrual-basis revenue was recognized for the period. Start with the $25,000 amount, and add the $2,000 unearned fees. This amount is not included in the $25,000 because it is not earned but was collected during the period. Subtract the $3,500 receivable, which is included in the $25,000 but was not collected. The result is that $23,500 in cash was collected ($25,000 + $2,000 - $3,500).

C Correct
This response treated both the unearned fees and receivable incorrectly . Starting with the $25,000 of accrual-basis revenue, the unearned fees are added because they represent collected but unearned revenue. The receivable is subtracted because it represents that part of the $25,000 that has not been collected. The result is that $23,500 of cash was collected ($25,000 + $2,000 - $3,500).

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3
Q

Financial Accounting Standards Codification

Which of the following statements includes the most useful guidance for practicing accountants concerning the FASB Accounting Standards Codification.

A. 	 The Codification includes only FASB Statements.

B. 	 The Codification is the sole source of U.S. GAAP, other than SEC GAAP, for nongovernmental entities.

C. 	 The Codification significantly modified the content of GAAP when it became effective.

D. 	 An accountant can be sure that all SEC rules are included in the Codification.
A

B
Correct

The Codification significantly changes how U.S. GAAP is organized and accessed and includes all authoritative GAAP for nongovernmental entities except for publicly traded firms. It also contains a significant amount of SEC guidance for publicly traded firms.

A
Incorrect…

The Codification includes all authoritative principles generally accepted and adopted before the Codification. This includes parts of APB Opinions, FASB Interpretations, and others.

C
Incorrect…
With minor exceptions, the Codification does not change GAAP but rather presents GAAP in a new, more accessible form.

D
Incorrect…
The Codification includes relevant SEC guidance but does not include all SEC guidance. When the SEC changes a rule, there is a time lag between its adoption by the SEC and its appearance in the Codification.

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4
Q

Which of the following documents is typically issued as part of the due-process activities of the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) for amending the FASB Accounting Standards Codification?
A. A proposed statement of position.
B. A proposed accounting standards update.
C. A proposed accounting research bulletin.
D. A proposed staff accounting bulletin.

A

BCorrect!

Changes and updates to the Codification are accomplished through Accounting Standards Updates (ASUs).

C
Incorrect…

Accounting Research Bulletins (ARB) were issues by the Committee on Accounting Procedures from 1938 and 1959 and any ARBs in effect at the time of the Codification have been superseded.

D
Incorrect…

Staff Accounting Bulletins (SAB) are issued by the Securities and Exchange Commission and reflect the views of the Commission. SABs are not formally part of the Codification, but are important to financial statement preparers of public companies.

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5
Q

When the fair value of an asset is determined as the amount that currently would be required to replace the service capacity of the asset, which one of the following valuation techniques has been used?

A.  Income approach.
B.  Cost approach.
C.  Expense approach.
D.  Market approach.
A

B correct
When fair value is determined as the amount that currently would be required to replace the service capacity of an asset (i.e., current replacement cost), the cost approach has been used.

D Incorrect
When fair value is determined as the amount that currently would be required to replace the service capacity of an asset, the cost approach, not the market approach, has been used. The market approach uses prices and other relevant information generated by market transactions involving items that are identical or comparable to those being valued in determining fair value.

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6
Q

In which of the following circumstances, if any, would an auditor likely be especially concerned as to whether or not the price paid to acquire an asset was the fair value of the asset?

I. The asset was acquired from the acquiring firm’s majority shareholder.

II. The asset was acquired in an active exchange market.

A.  I only.
B.  II only.
    C.  Both I and II.
D.  Neither I nor II.
A

A Correct
If an asset was acquired from the acquiring firm’s majority shareholder, an auditor likely would be especially concerned as to whether or not the price paid to acquire the asset was fair value of the asset because an entity and its majority shareholder are related parties. Related party transactions may not be at arms-length and, therefore, may require special attention of an auditor and special disclosures related thereto.

B Incorrect
If an asset was acquired in an active exchange market (e.g., New York Stock Exchange or other broad, public market), an auditor likely would not be especially concerned as to whether or not the price paid to acquire the asset was fair value of the asset. In most cases, prices established in an active market provide the most reliable evidence of fair value.

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7
Q

If a firm changes the valuation approach used to determine fair value, how would the amount of change in fair value resulting from the change in the valuation approach be reported?

A.  As a change in accounting principle.
B.  As an adjustment to beginning retained earnings of the period of change in approach.
C.  As a change in accounting estimate.
D.  As an extraordinary item for the period of change in approach.
A

B Incorrect
The amount of change in fair value resulting from a change in the valuation approach used to determine fair value would not be reported as an adjustment to beginning retained earnings of the period of change in approach, but rather as a change in accounting estimate.

C Correct
The amount of change in fair value resulting from a change in the valuation approach used to determine fair value is reported as a change in accounting estimate. That means that the amount of the change, like the change in fair value resulting from market forces, will be reported in current income (as income from continuing operations).

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8
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the fair value hierarchy used in ascertaining fair value is/are correct?

I. Quoted market prices should be adjusted for a “blockage factor” when a firm holds a sizable portion of the asset being valued.

II. Quoted market prices in markets that are not active because there are few relevant transactions cannot be used.

A.  I only.
B.  II only.
C.  Both I and II.
D.  Neither I nor II.
A

D Correct
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct. Quoted market prices should not be adjusted for a “blockage factor” when a firm holds a sizable portion of the asset being valued (Statement I). A “blockage factor” occurs when an entity holds a sizable portion of an asset (or liability) relative to the trading volume of the asset or liability in the market. Using a “blockage factor” would adjust the market value for the impact of such a large block of securities being sold, but is not permitted in determining fair value. Additionally, quoted market prices in markets that are not active because there are few relevant transactions can be used in determining fair value (Statement II). Such prices would be considered level 2 factors, observable inputs but not in active markets.

C Correct
Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct. Quoted market prices should not be adjusted for a “blockage factor” when a firm holds a sizable portion of the asset being valued (Statement I). A “blockage factor” occurs when an entity holds a sizable portion of an asset (or liability) relative to the trading volume of the asset or liability in the market. Using a “blockage factor” would adjust the market value for the impact of such a large block of securities being sold, but is not permitted in determining fair value. Additionally, quoted market prices in markets that are not active because there are few relevant transactions can be used in determining fair value (Statement II). Such prices would be considered level 2 factors, observable inputs but not in active markets.

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9
Q

Which of the following statements concerning inputs used in ascertaining fair value is/are correct?

I. Only observable inputs can be used.

II. Inputs that incorporate the entity’s assumptions may be used.

A.  I only.
B.  II only.
C.  Both I and II.
D.  Neither I nor II.
A

B Correct
An entity’s assumptions may be used as inputs in determining fair value. Those assumptions would be level 3, unobservable inputs, but would be used when adequate observable inputs were not available to make fair value determinations.

C Correct
While an entity’s assumptions may be used as inputs in determining fair value (Statement II), inputs do not have to be observable inputs to be used in determining fair value (Statement I).

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10
Q

Observable inputs, other than quoted prices in active markets for identical items, would constitute what level in the fair value hierarchy?

A.  Level 1
B.  Level 2
C.  Level 3
D.  Level 4
A

B Correct
Level 2 inputs are observable for assets or liabilities, either directly or indirectly, other than quoted prices in level 1. For example, quoted prices for similar items in an active market would be level 2 inputs.

A Incorrect
In level 1, inputs are unadjusted quoted prices in active markets for assets and liabilities identical to those being valued that the entity can obtain at the measurement date. Observable inputs, other than those in level 1, are level 2 inputs.

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11
Q

Each of the following would be considered a Level 2 observable input that could be used to determine an asset or liability’s fair value, except
A. Quoted prices for identical assets and liabilities in markets that are not active.
B. Quoted prices for similar assets and liabilities in markets that are active.
C. Internally generated cash flow projections for a related asset or liability.
D. Interest rates that are observable at commonly quoted intervals.

A

D Incorrect
This response is a true statement—interest rates that are observable are a level 2 input.

C Correct
This response is a false statement—internally generated cash flow projections are not an observable input.

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12
Q

Zach Corp. pays commissions to its sales staff at the rate of 3% of net sales.
Sales staff are not paid salaries but are given monthly advances of $15,000. Advances are charged to commission expense, and reconciliations against commissions are prepared quarterly. Net sales for the year ended March 31, 2002, were $15,000,000. The unadjusted balance in the commissions expense account on March 31, 2002, was $400,000. March advances were paid on April 3, 2002.

In its Income Statement for the year ended March 31, 2002, what amount should Zach report as commission expense?

A. 	$465,000
B. 	$450,000
C. 	$415,000
D. 	$400,000
A

C
Incorrect…

This is the unadjusted expense balance at year end plus one month’s expense. This amount does not reflect the entire year’s expense.

BCorrect!

Commission expense is 3% of sales or $450,000 (.03 x $15,000,000). The information about advances is irrelevant because it pertains to how commissions are paid, not recognized.

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13
Q

A primary purpose of disclosures required under the fair value option is to facilitate comparisons by the user of financial statements.

True
False
A

False
The disclosures are intended to facilitate comparisons:
a. Between entities that choose different measurement methods for similar assets and liabilities, and
b. Between assets and liabilities in the financial statements of a single entity that selects different measurement methods for similar assets and liabilities.

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14
Q

Required disclosures about the use of the fair value option must be made for both the balance sheet and the income statement.

True
False
A

True
For each period for which an Income Statement is presented, the following must be disclosed about items for which the fair value option has been elected:
1. For each line item in the Statement of Financial Position (Balance Sheet), the amount of gains and losses from fair value changes included in earnings for the period and in which line in the Income Statement those gains/losses are reported.
2. A description of how interest and dividends are measured and where they are reported in the Income Statement.
3. For loans and other receivables held as assets:
a. The estimated amount of gains and losses included in earnings for the period attributable to changes in instrument-specific credit risk, and
b. How those gains and losses were determined.
4. For liabilities with fair values that have been significantly affected during the reporting period by changes in the instrument-specific credit risk:
a. The estimated amount of gains and losses from fair value changes included in earnings that are attributable to changes in the instrument-specific credit risk;
b. How the gains and losses were determined;
c. Qualitative information about the reasons for those changes.

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15
Q

The methods and significant assumptions used to estimate fair value must be disclosed in both annual and interim reports.

True
False
A

In annual reports only, the methods and significant assumptions used to estimate fair value (of items for which the fair value option has been elected) must be disclosed.

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16
Q

For items measured at fair value on a nonrecurring basis, the reporting entity must disclose the fair value measurements at the reporting date and the reasons for the measurements.

True
False
A

True
For Assets and Liabilities that are Measured at Fair Value on a Nonrecurring Basis
In periods subsequent to initial recognition (e.g., an asset impairment that is not measured on a recurring basis) the reporting entity must disclose the following information in the statement of financial position (balance sheet) for each major category of asset and liability:
A. The fair value measurements at the reporting date and the reasons for the measurement.
B. Segregated into each of the three levels of the fair value hierarchy.
C. For Levels 2 and 3, a description of the valuation techniques and inputs used to measure fair value and a discussion of changes in valuation techniques during the period, if any.
D. For fair value measurements in Level 3, unobservable inputs, a description of the valuation process used and quantitative information about the unobservable inputs used.
E. For nonfinancial assets, disclose if highest and best use differs from current use and why.

17
Q

Required fair value quantitative disclosures must be presented in a tabular format.

True
False
A

True

18
Q

Under U.S. GAAP the disclosure requirements when fair value measurement is used are differentiated by which of the following classifications?

A. 	Between assets measured at fair value and liabilities measured at fair value.
B. 	Between fair value measurements that result in gains and fair value measurements that result in losses.
C. 	Between items measured at fair value on a recurring basis and items measured at fair value on a non-recurring basis.
D. 	Between items for which fair value measurement is required and items for which fair value measurement is elected.
A

C Correct!

Disclosure requirements when fair value measurement is used are differentiated between items measured at fair value on a recurring basis and items measured at fair value on a non-recurring basis. Items measured at fair value on a recurring basis are adjusted to (measured at) fair value period after period; an example would be investments held-for-trading. Items measured at fair value on a non-recurring basis are adjusted to (measured at) fair value only when certain conditions are met; an example would be the impairment of an asset.

19
Q

For a firm that elects to use fair value to measure eligible financial assets and financial liabilities, specific disclosures are required for which of the following financial statements?

 Quarterly Financial Statements  	 Annual Financial Statements  
	 No 	 No 
	 No 	 Yes 
	 Yes 	 No 
	 Yes 	 Yes
A

B
Incorrect…

Firms which elect to measure financial assets and financial liabilities at fair value are required to make significant additional disclosures not only in annual financial statements, but also in interim (quarterly, etc.) financial statements.

20
Q

For a firm that elects to measure certain of its financial assets and financial liabilities at fair value, required financial statement disclosures are intended to facilitate which of the following comparisons?

I. Comparisons between entities that use different measurement methods for similar assets and liabilities.
II. Comparisons between assets and liabilities of a single entity that uses different measurement methods for similar assets and liabilities.
A. Neither I nor II.
B. I only.
C. II only.
D. Both I and II.

A

D
Correct!

Both Statements I and II are correct. The intended purposes of financial statement disclosures required of a firm that elects to use fair value measurement are to facilitate comparisons both across firms and for differently measured financial assets and liabilities of a single firm.

21
Q

When an entity uses the fair value option for eligible financial assets and liabilities, which one of the following is not an expected outcome of the disclosures required of that entity?

A. 	 Users being able to understand management's reasons for using the fair value option.

B. 	 Users being able to understand how changes in fair value affect net income.

C. 	 Replace the kind and amount of information that would have been provided if the fair value option had not been used with information related to fair value.

D. 	 Users being able to understand the difference between fair value and cash flows.
A

C
Correct!

The disclosures required when the fair value option is used are not intended to replace the kind and amount of information that would have been provided if the fair value option had not been used. Rather, the intent is to provide the same kind and amount of information that would have been provided if the fair value option had not been elected.

D
Incorrect…

The disclosures required when the fair value option is used are intended to enable users to understand the differences between fair value and cash flows.

B
Incorrect…

The disclosures required when the fair value option is used are intended to enable users to understand how changes in fair value affect net income.

A
Incorrect…

The disclosures required when the fair value option is used are intended to enable users to understand management’s reasons for electing (or partially electing) the fair value option.

22
Q

Which of the following is not a role of the trustees of the IFRS Foundation?
A. Appoint the members of the IASB and establish their contracts of service and performance criteria.
B. Appoint the members of the IFRS Interpretations Committee and the IFRS Advisory Council.
C. Approve the annual budget of the IFRS Foundation and determine the basis for funding.
D. Annually review the strategy of the IFRS Foundation and the IASB and its effectiveness, including the determination of the IASB’s agenda.

A

C
Incorrect…

One of the roles of the Trustees of the IFRS Foundation is to annually approve the budget of the IFRS Foundation and determine the basis for funding.

D
Correct!

The Trustees do not determine the agenda of the IASB. Rather, the Trustees annually review the strategy of the IFRS Foundation and the IASB and its effectiveness, including the consideration, but not the determination, of the IASB’s agenda.

23
Q

Which of the following is a member of the Monitoring Board?
A. Global Accounting Technical Officer of the World Bank.
B. CEO of the Financial Executives International.
C. Chair of the CFA Institute.
D. Chair of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission.

A

D
Correct!

The Chair of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission is a member of the Monitoring Board. The Monitoring Board provides a formal link between the Trustees and public authorities. The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission is the primary overseer and regulator of the U.S. securities markets. Its mission is to protect investors; maintain fair, orderly, and efficient markets; and facilitate capital formation.

24
Q

Which of the following is an objective of the IFRS Foundation?
A. To enforce the use and rigorous application of those standards.
B. To take account of, as appropriate, the needs of a range of sizes and types of entities in diverse economic settings.
C. To develop, in the public interest, a single set of high-quality, understandable, enforceable, and globally accepted financial-reporting standards (IFRSs) through its member associations.
D. To require adoption of international financial reporting standards (IFRSs) globally.

A

A
Incorrect…

The objective of the IFRS Foundation is to promote the use and rigorous application of those standards. The IFRS Foundation has no enforcement capabilities or authority.
B
Correct!
The objective of the IFRS Foundation is to take account of, as appropriate, the needs of a range of sizes and types of entities in diverse economic settings.

C
Incorrect…

The objective of the IFRS Foundation is to develop, in the public interest, a single set of high-quality, understandable, enforceable, and globally accepted financial reporting standards based upon clearly articulated principles. These standards should require high-quality, transparent, and comparable information in financial statements and other financial reporting to help investors, other participants in the world’s capital markets, and other users of financial information make economic decisions. There are no member associations of the IASB. Rather, representatives of many associations do partake in an advisory capacity, through the IFRS Advisory Council.

D
Incorrect…
Ideally, the IFRS Foundation would like to have all entities adopt IFRS outright. However, the objective of the IFRS Foundation is to promote and facilitate the adoption of the International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRSs), or the standards and interpretations issued by the IASB, through the convergence of national accounting standards and IFRSs. Currently the IASB is working with several national boards on the convergence of national standards with IFRS. The most prominent of these countries is the U.S.A., and the IASB is working with the FASB to bring about convergence.

25
Q
Which of the following is responsible for fund raising for entire operations involving the IASB?
	A. 	IFRS Interpretations Committee.
	B. 	IFRS Advisory Council.
	C. 	IFRS Foundation.
	D. 	Standard Advisory Council.
A

C
Correct!

The IFRS Foundation, as the legal entity of the entire organization, has the responsibility to ensure that the operations are sufficiently funded in order to ensure the fulfillment of the standard-setting objectives without compromising the independence and objectivity of the standard-setting process.

26
Q

IASB’s due process procedures includes the following steps.
I. Analyze comments to the Exposure Draft;
II. Issue the Exposure Draft;
III. Prepare the Discussion Paper;
IV. Add the item to the Working Agenda;
V. Discuss the issue;
VI. Issue the IFRS;
and VII. Publish the Discussion Paper.
What is the correct ordering of the steps?

A. 	IV, II, III, V, VII, I, VI
B. 	IV, V, II, III, VII, I, VI.
C. 	IV, III, VII, V, II, I, VI.
D. 	IV, V, III, VII, II, I, VI.
A

D
Correct!

The correct ordering is:
1) Add the item to the Working Agenda (IV),
2) Discuss the issue (V),
3) Prepare the Discussion Paper (III),
4) Publish the discussion paper (VII)
5) Issue the Exposure Draft (II)
6) Analyze comments to the Exposure Draft and (I)
7) Issue the IFRS (VI)
Per the IASB Due Process Handbook
27
Q
Which of the following best describes the term "public accountability" according to IFRSs and IFRS for SME?
I. Entity files, or is in the process of filing, its financial statements with a securities commission or other regulatory organization for the purpose of issuing any class of instruments in a public market.

II. Entity holds assets in a fiduciary capacity for a broad group of outsiders, such as a bank, insurance entity, securities broker/dealer, pension fund, mutual fund, or investment banking entity.

A. 	I. only.
B. 	II Only.
C. 	Both I and II.
D. 	Neither I nor II.
A

C

Correct!

Both statements are included in the definition of the term “public accountability.” The entity files, or is in the process of filing, its financial statements with a securities commission or other regulatory organization for the purpose of issuing any class of instruments in a public market, and the entity holds assets in a fiduciary capacity for a broad group of outsiders, such as a bank, insurance entity, securities broker/dealer, pension fund, mutual fund, or investment-banking entity. IFRS for SMEs, para. 1.3.

A
Incorrect…

The term “public accountability” is defined by both of the two statements. In order to qualify to report under IFRS for SMEs, the entity cannot file or be in the process of filing with a securities commission, or other regulatory commission, and cannot hold assets in a fiduciary capacity.

28
Q

IAS 8, Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates, and Errors includes the IFRS hierarchy. What is the second-level, or the level after the initial level, addressing the requirements and guidance in IFRS?
A. The definitions, recognition criteria, and measurement concepts for assets, liabilities, comprehensive income, revenue, expenses, and gains and losses in the Framework.
B. The definitions, recognition criteria, and measurement concepts for assets, liabilities, revenue, and expenses in the Framework.
C. Pronouncements of other standard-setting bodies, other accounting literature, and accepted industry practices.
D. Pronouncements of other standard setting bodies using a similar conceptual framework, other accounting literature, and accepted industry practices.

A


Correct!

The IFRS hierarchy, as presented in IAS 8, includes first, the requirements in IFRS dealings with similar or related issues; second, the definitions, recognition criteria, and measurement concepts for assets, liabilities, income, and expenses in the Framework; and lastly, the most recent pronouncements of other standard-setting bodies that use a similar conceptual framework to develop accounting standards, other accounting literature, and accepted industry practices, to the extent that these do not conflict with IFRS or the Framework. IAS 8, para. 12.

29
Q

the definition of that user?

 An entity that does not have public accountability.  	 An entity that publishes general purpose financial statements for external users.  
	 Yes 	 Yes 
	 Yes 	 No 
	 No 	 Yes 
	 No 	 No
A


Incorrect…

The IASB uses a broad definition of an SME. Rather than restrict it by revenue or number of employees, as other organizations, such as the World Bank and U.S. government, have done; the Board simply states that the entity does not have public accountability and that the entity publishes general purpose financial statements for external users, such as owners who are not involved in managing the business, existing and potential creditors, and credit rating agencies. 
A
Correct!

The IASB uses a broad definition of an SME. Rather than restrict it by revenue or number of employees, as other organizations, such as the World Bank and U.S. government, have done; the Board simply states that the entity does not have public accountability and that the entity publishes general purpose financial statements for external users, such as owners who are not involved in managing the business, existing and potential creditors, and credit rating agencies. IFRS for SME, para. 1.2.

30
Q
When referring to IFRS, which of the following are NOT included?
	A. 	IASs.
	B. 	SEC.
	C. 	IFRICs.
	D. 	IFRS Interpretations.
A

B
Correct!

SEC is the abbreviation for the Securities and Exchange Commission, and as such, is not included in the definition of IFRS, International Financial Reporting Standards. IAS 8, para. 5