CPA excel 2 Flashcards

1
Q
According to the IASB Framework, the process of reporting an item in the financial statements of an entity is:
	A. 	Recognition.
	B. 	Statement of Financial Position.
	C. 	Disclosure.
	D. 	Presentation.
A

B
Incorrect…

The Statement of Financial Position is the name currently given to the “Balance Sheet” financial statement, according to IAS 1. It does not address the process of reporting an item in the financial statements.

A
Correct!
According to the IASB’s Framework, recognition is “the process of incorporating in the Balance Sheet or Income Statement an item that meets the definition of an element and satisfies the criteria for recognition.” The element must be both probable that any future economic benefit will flow to or from the entity and have a cost or value that can be measured with reliability. IASB Framework, para. 82-83.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When should an item that meets the definition of an element be recognized?
A. The item has a cost or value that can be measured reliably.
B. It is highly unlikely that any future economic benefit associated with the item will flow to the entity.
C. Both A and B.
D. Neither A nor B.

Correct!

Recognition is the process of incorporating an item in the financial statements when it meets the definition of the element and satisfies the criteria for recognition. That criteria states that there is the probability of future economic benefit associated with the item that will flow to or from the entity and that the item has a cost or value that can be measured with reliability. IASB Framework, para. 82-83.

A

A
Correct!

Recognition is the process of incorporating an item in the financial statements when it meets the definition of the element and satisfies the criteria for recognition. That criteria states that there is the probability of future economic benefit associated with the item that will flow to or from the entity and that the item has a cost or value that can be measured with reliability. IASB Framework, para. 82-83.

C
Incorrect…

In order to be recognized, an item must have both the probability of future economic benefit associated with the item that will flow to or from the entity and a cost or value that can be measured with reliability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The purpose of IASB’s Framework for the preparation and presentation of financial statements includes all of the following except:
A. Assist users of financial statements in interpreting the information contained in financial statements that are prepared in conformity with IFRSs.
B. Assist national standard-setting bodies in developing national standards.
C. Assist the IASB in the development of future IFRSs and in its review of existing IFRSs.
D. Assist the IASB in enforcing regulations, accounting standards and procedures relating to the presentation of financial statements by providing a basis for reducing the number of alternative treatments permitted by IFRSs.

A

A
Incorrect…

The purpose of IASB’s Framework includes assisting users of financial statements in interpreting the information contained in financial statements prepared in conformity with IFRSs. Remember that the IASB has no enforcement authority.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The purpose of IASB’s Framework for the preparation and presentation of financial statements includes all of the following except:
A. Assist users of financial statements in interpreting the information contained in financial statements that are prepared in conformity with IFRSs.
B. Assist national standard-setting bodies in developing national standards.
C. Assist the IASB in the development of future IFRSs and in its review of existing IFRSs.
D. Assist the IASB in enforcing regulations, accounting standards and procedures relating to the presentation of financial statements by providing a basis for reducing the number of alternative treatments permitted by IFRSs.

A

D
Correct!

Remember that the IASB has no enforcement authority. The enforcement is carried out by regulators, such as the SEC in the U.S., Central Banks, and governmental authorities. As such, the purpose of the IASB’s Framework is not to assist in enforcing regulations, accounting standards, and procedures but, rather, to assist in promoting the harmonization of regulations, accounting standards, and procedures relating to the presentation of financial statements by providing a basis for reducing the number of alternative treatments permitted by IFRSs. IASB Framework, para. 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
The SEC is comprised of five commissioners, appointed by the President of the United States, and four divisions. Which of the following divisions is responsible for overseeing compliance with the securities acts?
	A. 	Division of Corporate Finance.
	B. 	Division of Enforcement.
	C. 	Division of Trading and Markets.
	D. 	Division of investment management.
A

A
Correct!

The Division of Corporate Finance oversees the compliance with the securities acts and examines all filings made by publicly held companies.
B
Incorrect…

The Division of Enforcement completes the investigation and takes appropriate actions when there is a violation of a securities law (except the Public Utility Holding Company Act). This division makes recommendations to the Justice Department concerning any punishments or potential criminal prosecution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

SEC Reporting Requirements

A company is an accelerated filer that is required to file Form 10-K with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). What is the maximum number of days after the company's fiscal year end that the company has to file Form 10-K with the SEC?
	A. 	60 days.
	B. 	75 days.
	C. 	90 days.
	D. 	120 days.
A

B
Correct!

An accelerated filer has an aggregate worldwide market value of the voting and nonvoting common stock held by nonaffiliates of $75 million or more, but less than $700 million on the last business day of the issuer’s most recently completed second fiscal quarter. A large accelerated filer has market capitalization (as described) of $700 million or more. Beginning in 2006 the SEC changed the 10-K filing deadline for large accelerated filers to be 60 days from the fiscal year end. Accelerated filers still have 75 days to file their 10-K.

A
Incorrect…

Careful reading of the questions always pay off. Here is another example of the “A” response appearing to be the correct answer but is it not! The CPAs and psychometricians who write exam questions will provide a response to “A” that sounds like the correct answer is not, because they are testing the care and thoroughness of your reading. The person who is hurrying through the questions (not you) will select “A” because 60 days is the correct answer for large accelerated filers; however, the question does not ask about large accelerated filers, just accelerated filers. Here is where careful reading will pay off and is why you have to read through EVERY response before you choose your answer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
SEC Reporting Requirements
Which of the following is not a required component of the 10-K filing?
	A. 	Product market share.
	B. 	Description of the business.
	C. 	Market price of common stock.
	D. 	Executive compensation.
A
A
Correct!
The market share of the company's product is not a required disclosure. The company may chose to voluntarily present this information, but it is not a required disclosure.
B
Incorrect...
The description of the business is a required disclosure in Part I, 1
C
Incorrect...

The market price of the common stock is a required disclosure in Part I, 5.
D
Incorrect…

The executive compensation is a required disclosure in Part III, 11.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Balance Sheet 1
Could a firm with an operating cycle of three years in duration report as current a liability due two years from the balance sheet date?
Yes
No

A

YES
Current Asset (CA) –
a. An asset expected to be realized in cash or to be consumed or sold during the normal operating cycle, or within one year of the balance sheet date, whichever is longer.
b. The operating cycle is the period of time from purchasing inventory to paying for the payable incurred on inventory purchase to the sale of goods to the collection of receivable and then to purchasing inventory all over again.
c. For most firms the operating cycle is less than one year, but some firms, such as construction and engineering companies, have operating cycles exceeding one year. Construction in process, an inventory account found in construction firms’ balance sheets, is a current asset even though the constructed asset may require several years to complete.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All contra accounts are also valuation accounts.

True
False
A

False

Valuation Accounts –

a. A valuation account is one used to increase or decrease the book value of an item to a measure of current value.
b. Not all contra or adjunct accounts are valuation accounts, but all valuation accounts are contras or adjuncts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
In analyzing an entity's annual financial report, which financial statement would an analyst primarily use to assess the entity's liquidity?
	A. 	Statement of Cash Flows.
	B. 	Balance Sheet.
	C. 	Statement of Profit or Loss.
	D. 	Statement of Changes in Equity.

Incorrect…

An entity’s liquidity is usually assessed from another financial statement. However, the Statement of Cash Flows does help an investor assess the entity’s needs for cash for operating activities by looking at past cash needs. However, it does not consider the current amount of outstanding debt.

A

A
Incorrect…

An entity’s liquidity is usually assessed from another financial statement. However, the Statement of Cash Flows does help an investor assess the entity’s needs for cash for operating activities by looking at past cash needs. However, it does not consider the current amount of outstanding debt.
B
Correct!

An entity’s liquidity is usually assessed from the Balance Sheet, by calculating the liquidity ratios, such as Current Ratio [(current assets) / (current liabilities)]; Quick Ratio [(cash + accounts receivable + short-term or marketable securities) / (current liabilities)]; and Cash Ratio [(cash + short-term or marketable securities) / (current liabilities)].
C
Incorrect…

An entity’s liquidity is usually assessed from another financial statement. However, the Statement of Profit or Loss does help an investor assess the entity’s revenue and expenses on an accrual basis, not on a cash basis. However, it does not consider the current amount of outstanding debt.
D
Incorrect…

An entity’s liquidity is usually assessed from another financial statement. The Statement of Changes in Equity does not help an investor assess the entity’s liquidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
Balance Sheet 1
Reporting accounts receivable at net realizable value is a departure from the accounting principle of:
	A. 	Conservatism.
	B. 	Fair value.
	C. 	Market value.
	D. 	Historical cost.
A

A
Incorrect…
Reporting accounts receivable at net realizable value is not a departure from the principle of conservatism. In fact, it is just that principle that requires reporting accounts receivable at net realizable value.

D
Correct!
Reporting accounts receivable at net realizable value is a departure from the principle of historical cost. Accounts receivable is usually aged by some method and reported at net realizable value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Balance Sheet 1
The following trial balance of JB Company at December 31, year five, has been adjusted except for income taxes. The income tax rate is 30%.
DR	CR
Accounts receivable, net	725,000	
Accounts payable		250,000
Accumulated depreciation		125,000
Cash	185,000	
Contributed capital		650,000
Expenses	3,750,000	
Goodwill	140,000	
Prepaid taxes	225,000	
Property, plant and equipment	850,000	
Retained earnings, 1/1/Yr. 5		350,000
Revenues	        	4,500,000
5,875,000	5,875,000
During year five, estimated tax payments of $225,000 were paid and debited to prepaid taxes. There were no differences between financial statement and taxable income for year five.

Included in accounts receivable is $400,000 due from a loyal customer. Special terms were granted to this customer to make payments of $100,000 semi-annually every March 1 and September 1.

In JB Company’s December 31, year five Balance Sheet, what amount should be reported as total retained earnings?

A. 	225,000
B. 	525,000
C. 	750,000
D. 	Some other amount.
A

D
Correct!

Retained earnings are calculated as follows:
Revenue [4,500,000] - Expenses [3,750,000] 750,000
Income taxes = 0.30 * 750,000 (225,000)
Net income 525,000
Retained earnings, 1/1/Yr. 5 350,000
Retained earnings, 12/31/Yr. 5 875,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Balance Sheet I
The following trial balance of JB Company at December 31, year five, has been adjusted except for income taxes. The income tax rate is 30%.
DR	CR
Accounts receivable, net	$725,000	
Accounts payable		250,000
Accumulated depreciation		125,000
Cash	185,000	
Contributed capital		650,000
Expenses	3,750,000	
Goodwill	140,000	
Prepaid taxes	225,000	
Property, plant, and equipment	850,000	
Retained earnings, 1/1/Year five		350,000
Revenues	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_	4,500,000
5,875,000	5,875,000
During Year five, estimated tax payments of $225,000 were paid and debited to prepaid taxes. There were no differences between financial statement and taxable income for year five.

Included in accounts receivable is $400,000 due from a loyal customer. Special terms were granted to this customer to make payments of $100,000 semi-annually every March 1 and September 1.

In JB Company’s December 31, Year five Balance Sheet, what amount should be reported as total assets?

A. 	1,575,000
B. 	1,775,000
C. 	2,000,000
D. 	5,875,000
A

B
Correct!

Total assets are calculated as follows:
Cash	185,000
Accounts receivable, net	725,000
Property, plant, and equipment	850,000
Accumulated depreciation	(125,000)
Goodwill	140,000
Total assets	1,775,000
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Balance Sheet 1
The following trial balance of JB Company at December 31, Year five, has been adjusted except for income taxes. The income tax rate is 30%.
DR	CR
Accounts receivable, net	$725,000	
Accounts payable		250,000
Accumulated depreciation		125,000
Cash	185,000	
Contributed capital		650,000
Expenses	3,750,000	
Goodwill	140,000	
Prepaid taxes	225,000	
Property, plant, and equipment	850,000	
Retained earnings, 1/1/year five		350,000
Revenues	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_	4,500,000
5,875,000	5,875,000
During year five, estimated tax payments of $225,000 were paid and debited to prepaid taxes. There were no differences between financial statement and taxable income for year five.

Included in accounts receivable is $400,000 due from a loyal customer. Special terms were granted to this customer to make payments of $100,000 semi-annually every March 1 and September 1.

In JB Company’s December 31, year five Balance Sheet, what amount should be reported as current assets?

A. 	710,000
B. 	910,000
C. 	935,000
D. 	1,135,000
A

A
Correct!

Current assets are calculated as follows:
Cash 185,000
Accounts receivable, net 725,000
Reclassification of o/s receivable (200,000)
Total current assets 710,000

B
Incorrect…

The 400,000 receivable should be divided between current assets and noncurrent assets (200,000 each), which reduces current assets by 200,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the steps of the accounting cycle?

A

(1) Analyze source documents, (2) Post to ledger, (3) Make adjusting entries, (4) Prepare trial balance, (5) Prepare income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statements, (6) Close temporary accounts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Balance Sheet 2
A control account is used for every balance sheet account.
True
False

A

False

17
Q

The principal purpose of posting is to:
A. Help identify errors made in the journal.
B. Help determine if the financial statements are ready to be prepared.
C. Enter transactions directly into the ledger.
D. Obtain account balances.

A

A
Incorrect…

By only posting, errors made in the journals are not easily identified. It is best to balance the journals before posting to identify errors made in recording individual transactions.
B
Incorrect…

Posting distributes the information from the journals to the accounts in the ledger and is performed on a periodic basis. After posting, the account balances are updated, but adjusting entries still need to be recorded before a trial balance is prepared.
C
Correct!

The purpose of posting is to enter transactions directly into the ledger. Posting distributes the information from the journals to the accounts in the ledger, and is performed on a periodic basis. After posting, the account balances are updated, but adjusting entries still need to be recorded before a trial balance is prepared.
D
Incorrect…

Posting distributes the information from the journals to the accounts in the ledger, and is performed on a periodic basis. After posting, the account balances are updated, but adjusting entries still need to be recorded before a trial balance is prepared.

18
Q
Which of the following accounts is not closed?
	A. 	Common stock.
	B. 	Dividends.
	C. 	Interest income.
	D. 	Profit summary.
A

B
Incorrect…

The Dividends account is an account that is closed to Retained Earnings at the end of the reporting period.
C
Incorrect…

Interest income is an Income Statement account and is closed to the Profit Summary at the end of the reporting period.

19
Q

Income Statement 1
Both losses and expenses cause income to decrease and cause a benefit for the firm.
True
False

A

False

Definition
Expenses : Expenses represent decreases in net assets or incurred liabilities through the provision of goods or services. Expenses are related to the company’s primary business operations. Expenses provide benefit to the firm. Losses do not.

Definition
Losses : Losses represent decreases in equity or net assets from peripheral or incidental transactions. Losses do not provide value or benefit to the firm.

20
Q

In Baer Food Co.’s 2005 single-step Income Statement, the section titled “Revenues” consisted of the following:
Net sales revenue $187,000
Results from discontinued operations:
Loss from operations of the segment (net of $1,200 tax effect) $(2,400)
Gain on the disposal of segment (net of $7,200 tax effect) 14,400 12,000
Interest revenue 10,200
Gain on the sale of equipment 4,700
Total revenues $213,900
In the revenues section of the 2005 Income Statement, Baer Food should have reported total revenues of:
A. $216,300
B. $215,400
C. $203,700
D. $201,900

A

C
Incorrect…

This answer does not subtract the discontinued operations.
Total revenues may be found as:
Net sales $187,000
Interest revenue 10,200
Gain on equipment 4,700
Total revenues $201,900
This answer includes the gain on the sale of equipment. It is the best answer from among the four because this answer less the gain is not represented.
However, many would argue that the gain is not a revenue. Discontinued operations is not a revenue; rather, it is a special item of disclosure found below income from continuing operations in the Income Statement.
A

Incorrect…

This answer includes the gain on the disposal of segment.
This item is not a revenue; rather, it is part of the special category “discontinued operations” found below income from continuing operations in the Income Statement.
D
Correct!

Net sales $187,000
Interest revenue 10,200
Gain on equipment 4,700
Total revenues $201,900

This answer includes the gain on the sale of equipment. It is the best answer from among the four because this answer less the gain is not represented. However, many would argue that the gain is not a revenue. Discontinued operations is not a revenue; rather, it is a special item of disclosure found below income from continuing operations in the Income Statement.

21
Q

Lew Co. sold 200,000 corrugated boxes for $2 each. Lew’s cost was $1 per unit.
The sales agreement gave the customer the right to return up to 60% of the boxes within the first six months, provided an appropriate reason was given.
It was immediately determined, with appropriate reason, that 5% of the boxes would be returned. Lew absorbed an additional $10,000 to process the returns and expects to resell the boxes.

What amount should Lew report as operating profit from this transaction?

A. 	$170,000
B. 	$179,500
C. 	$180,000
D. 	$200,000
A

C
Correct!

Lew’s operating profit is computed and explained as follows:

Sales 200,000 units x $2 selling price =
$400,000
Less: Provision for returns 200,000 x .05 x $2 = 20,000[1]
Net Sales = $380,000
COGS 200,000 units x $1 cost = $200,000
Less: Provision for returns 10,000 x $1 = 10,000
Net COGS 190,000 units x $1 = 190,000
Gross Profit $190,000
Less: Return processing cost 10,000[2]
Operating profit $180,000
[1] The facts state that 5% of the (all) boxes sold would be returned. The fact that 60% could be returned only established the maximum returnable rate, whereas 5% is the expected return rate.

[2] Since Lew has “absorbed” $10,000 to process returns, it has charged that amount to sales. The fact that Lew expects to resell the boxes is not recognized until the boxes are actually resold.

22
Q

A multi-step Income Statement is prepared:
A. By all corporations.
B. By a company whose main activity is sales.
C. Because it is required by FASB.
D. Because it is more meaningful presentation of revenue and expenses.

A


Correct!

A multi-step Income Statement is not required but is prepared because it is a more meaningful presentation of revenue and expenses. In a multi-step Income Statement, gross profit (margin), operating profit (margin), and pretax income from continuing operations are determined. The focus is on the determination of operating profit rather than simply income from continuing operations.

A
Incorrect…

A multi-step Income Statement is not required but is prepared because it is a more meaningful presentation of revenue and expenses. In a multi-step Income Statement, gross profit (margin), operating profit (margin), and pretax income from continuing operations are determined. The focus is on the determination of operating profit rather than simply income from continuing operations.

23
Q

The following costs were incurred by Griff Co., a manufacturer, during 2004:

Accounting and legal fees	
$ 25,000
Freight-in	
175,000
Freight-out	
160,000
Officers' salaries	
150,000
Insurance	
85,000
Sales representatives' salaries	
215,000
What amount of these costs should be reported as general and administrative expenses for 2004?
A. 	$260,000
B. 	$550,000
C. 	$635,000
D. 	$810,000
A

B
Incorrect…

This answer misclassifies some of the costs. The general and administrative cost category includes costs that serve the entire firm or several functions and cannot be identified with separate and unique activities. G&A costs are:

Accounting and legal	
$ 25,000
Officers' salaries	
150,000
Insurance	
85,000
Total G&A cost	
$ 260,000
The remaining costs are classified (in order of appearance) as product cost, distribution cost, and sales/promotional costs.
24
Q

Brock Corp. reports operating expenses in two categories: (1) selling and (2) general and administrative. The adjusted trial balance at December 31, 2005 included the following expense and loss accounts:
Accounting and legal fees $120,000
Advertising 150,000
Freight-out 80,000
Interest 70,000
Loss on the sale of long-term investments 30,000
Officers’ salaries 225,000
Rent for office space 220,000
Sales salaries and commissions 140,000
One-half of the rented premises is occupied by the sales department.

Brock’s total selling expenses for 2005 are:

A. 	$480,000
B. 	$400,000
C. 	$370,000
D. 	$360,000
A

A
Correct!

Advertising $150,000
Freight-out 80,000
Rent for office space ($220,000 x .50) 110,000
Sales salaries and commissions 140,000
Equals total selling expenses $480,000
Advertising is part of the overall selling effort. Freight-out is delivery expense. Offering delivery service is also part of the overall sales effort. Only 1/2 the rent is included in selling expenses because the sales department occupies only 1/2 the premises.

25
Q

The following items were among those reported on Lee Co.’s Income Statement for the year ended December 31, 2005:
Legal and audit fees $170,000
Rent for office space 240,000
Interest on inventory floor plan 210,000
Loss on abandoned data processing equipment used in operations 35,000
The office space is used equally by Lee’s sales and accounting departments. What amount of the above-listed items should be classified as general and administrative expenses in Lee’s multiple-step Income Statement?
A. $290,000
B. $325,000
C. $410,000
D. $500,000

A

C
Incorrect…

This amount is the sum of the audit and legal fees, plus all the rent on the office. Only 1/2 of the rent is allocated to G & A expense because the other half is selling expense. Sales is a significant activity, the costs of which are separately reported.

26
Q

Net income is always included in comprehensive income.
True
False

A

True
Definition
Comprehensive income : Is the sum of (1) net income, and (2) other comprehensive income. CI = NI + OCI

27
Q

The accumulated other comprehensive income (AOCI) beginning balance for the current year was $6,000 dr. Net income for the period is $21,000. During the year the following two other comprehensive income items were recognized: •foreign currency translation loss, $2,000
• and unrealized gain on securities available for sale, $9,000.

What amount is reported for comprehensive income (CI) for the year, and what is the ending AOCI balance?

CI

AOCI

$7,000 $1,000 cr.
$28,000 $1,000 cr.
$21,000 $7,000 cr.
$28,000 $6,000 dr.

A

B
Correct!
CI ($28,000) is the sum of income ($21,000) and other comprehensive income (-$2,000 + $9,000 = $7,000). AOCI is the running OE account, which is increased or decreased by other comprehensive income for the period. Ending AOCI = $6,000 dr. - $7,000 other comprehensive income (positive) = $1,000 cr. AOCI began the year with a new loss of $6,000 (debit balance), but the $7,000 positive other comprehensive income for the year turned the beginning dr. balance of AOCI into a net credit of $1,000.

28
Q

When a full set of general-purpose financial statements are presented, comprehensive income and its components should:
A. Appear below income from continuing operations in the Income Statement.
B. Reported net of related income tax effect, in total and individually.
C. Appear in a supplemental schedule in the notes to the financial statements.
D. Be presented as part of the Income Statement or as a separate a financial statement following the Income Statement.

A

B
Incorrect…
An entity may report components of other comprehensive income either net of the tax for each component or net of tax for the total of all components.

29
Q

When a full set of general-purpose financial statements are presented, comprehensive income and its components should:
A. Appear below income from continuing operations in the Income Statement.
B. Reported net of related income tax effect, in total and individually.
C. Appear in a supplemental schedule in the notes to the financial statements.
D. Be presented as part of the Income Statement or as a separate a financial statement following the Income Statement.

A

D
Correct!
The components of comprehensive income are net income (or loss) plus/minus items of other comprehensive income, possibly including, for a period: (a) a minimum pension liability adjustment, (b) any unrealized gain or loss on available-for-sale investments, (c) a foreign currency translation adjustment and gain/loss on related hedge, and (d) the effective portion of cash flow hedges. U.S. GAAP requires that for-profit entities report comprehensive income and its components for a period (unless the entity has no items of other comprehensive income) in one of two statements: 1.as a separate “Statement of Comprehensive Income”
2. or combined with the Income Statement to provide a “Statement of Net Income and Comprehensive Income”

30
Q

Burns Corp. had the following items:

Sales revenue $45,000
Loss on early extinguishment of bonds 36,000
Realized gain on sale of available-for-sale securities 28,000
Unrealized holding loss on available-for-sale securities 17,000
Loss on write-down of inventory 3,100

Which of the following amounts would the statement of comprehensive income report as other comprehensive income or loss?

A. $11,000 other comprehensive income.
B. $16,900 other comprehensive income.
C. $17,000 other comprehensive loss.
D. $28,100 other comprehensive loss.

A

C

Correct!
Other comprehensive income is comprised of unrealized gains/losses on available-for-sale securities, minimum pension liability adjustment, foreign currency translation adjustment, and unrealized gains/losses on cash flow hedges. The only other comprehensive income item listed is the $17,000 unrealized gains/losses on available-for-sale securities

31
Q

What is the purpose of reporting comprehensive income?

A.
To summarize all changes in equity from nonowner sources.

B.
To reconcile the difference between net income and cash flows provided from operating activities.

C.
To provide a consolidation of the income of the firm’s segments.

D.
To provide information for each segment of the business.

A

A
Correct!

The purpose of comprehensive income is to show all changes to equity, including changes that currently are not a required part of net income. Comprehensive income reflects all changes from owner and nonowner sources. The other comprehensive income items are: unrealized G/L on AFS securities, unrealized G/L on pension costs, foreign currency translation adjustments, and unrealized G/L on certain derivative transactions.