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Pharmacology > Endocrine Pharmacology > Flashcards

Endocrine Pharmacology Flashcards

0
Q

Hormone that uses Dopamine as part of the negative feedback mechanism

A

Prolactin

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1
Q

Hormones secreted by the anterior Pituitary

A

Growth hormone, TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH, and Prolactin

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2
Q

A performance enhancing drug for growth hormone deficiency. For Turner, Noonan and Prader-Willi diseases.

A

Somatropin - increases release of IGF-1 in the liver and cartilage.

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3
Q

Somatostatin analog for acromegaly, pituitary adenoma, carcinoids and variceal bleeding. It suppresses IGF-1 secretion

A

Octreotide

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4
Q

A gonadotropin analog for controlled ovarian hyperstimulation and infertility due to hypogonadism in men.

A

Follitropin Alfa - activates FSH receptors. Mimics effects of endogenous FSH

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5
Q

A gonadotropin analog - that activated LH receptors, for controlled ovarian hyper-stimulation and hypogonadism

A

Choriogonadotropin alfa

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6
Q

GnRH analog, mimic GnRH secretion also used for endometriosis, precocious puberty and prostate cancer. May cause hot flashes, osteoporosis and temporary exacerbation of precocious puberty or prostate cancer

A

Euprolide - increased LH and FSH secretion with intermittent secretion

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7
Q

GnRH antagonist for prostate cancer. It does not cause tumor flare-up when used for treatment of advanced prostate cancer

A

Ganirelix - blocks GnRH receptors

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8
Q

Dopamine agonist for hyperprolactinemia, acromegaly and pituitary adenoma

A

Bromocriptine - inhibits prolactin release. Slightly inhibits GH release

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9
Q

For labor induction, labor augmentation and control of postpartum hemorrhage. Contraindicated to fetal distress, prematurity and abnormal presentation

A

Oxytocin

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10
Q

ADH agonist for central Diabetes insipidus, hemophilia A and also for primary nocturnal enuresis

A

Desmopressin

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11
Q

ADH antagonist for SIADH and hyponatremia. May cause central pontine myelinolysis due to rapid correction of hyponatremia

A

Conivaptan

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12
Q

Iodide ion is converted to iodine by what enzyme?

A

Thyroid peroxidase

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13
Q

Step in the synthesis of TH were tyrosine residues in thyroglobulin are iodinated to form monoiodotyrosine or diiodotyrosine

A

Iodine organification

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14
Q

Autoimmune disorder where B lymphocytes produce an antibody that activates the TSH receptor causing thyrotoxicosis. These B lymphocytes are not susceptible to negative feedback

A

Graves disease

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15
Q

Expected thyroid profile of patient with Graves disease

A

High T3, high T4 and low TSH

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16
Q

Which is more potent? T3 or T4?

A

T3 is 10 times more potent than T4. T4 is converted to T3 in target cells

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17
Q

Thyroid hormone drug used for hypothyroidism and myxedema coma

A

Levothyroxine

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18
Q

A medical emergency, representing the end state of untreated hypothyroidism. Treated with IV loading dose of Levothyroxine

A

Myxedema coma

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19
Q

A thioamide drug for hyperthyroidism and thyroid storm. Drug of choice for pregnant hyperthyroid patients with slow onset of actions

A

Propylthiouracil - inhibits thyroid peroxidase reactions

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20
Q

A thioamide drug for hyperthyroidism. Drug of choice for nonpregnant hyperthyroid patients. Prenatal exposure causes aplasia cutis congenita

A

Methimazole

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21
Q

Used for hyperthyroidism by emitting beta rays causing destruction of thyroid parenchyma. Preferred treatment for most patients

A

Radioactive iodine131

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22
Q

Drug for hyperthyroidism, thyroid storm and used also for radiation prophylaxis. It prevents radiation induced thyroid damage and causes fetal goiter during prenatal exposure

A

Potassium iodide - SIMD: Lugol’s solution

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23
Q

Condition that results from Ingestion of iodine causing hypothyroidism

A

Wolf-Chaikoff effect

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24
Q

Condition due to ingestion of iodine causes hyperthyroidism

A

Jod-Basedow phenomenon

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25
Q

A beta blocker drug used for hyperthyroidism and thyroid storm by inhibiting conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery.

A

Propanolol

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26
Q

Condition characterized by sudden acute exacerbation of all the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, presenting as a life threatening syndrome.

A

Thyroid storm

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27
Q

Drugs that inhibits conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery

A

Propylthiouracil
Propranolol
Hydrocortisone

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28
Q

Low potency hydrocortisone

A

Desonide

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29
Q

Slow-acting, low potency glucocorticoid for acute adrenal insufficiency, insect bites and thyroid storm

A

Hydrocortisone

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30
Q

A mineralocorticoid drug for chronic adrenal insufficiency, CAH and adrenal replacement therapy

A

Fludrocortisone - may cause salt and fluid retention and hypokalemia

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31
Q

Condition associated with adrenal insufficiency

A

Addison’s disease

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32
Q

Condition associated with adrenal excess

A

Conn’s disease

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33
Q

Syndrome caused by any condition that produces elevated glucocorticoid levels

A

Cushing syndrome

34
Q

Most common cause of Cushing syndrome

A

Iatrogenic Cushing syndrome due to exogenous steroid intake

35
Q

Glucocorticoid synthesis inhibitor drug used for breast cancer and Cushing syndrome by inhibiting Desmolase, blocking conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone

A

Aminoglutethimide

36
Q

Azole antifungal used for adrenal carcinoma. Hirsutism and cushing syndrome. May cause hepatotoxicity. Potent CYP450 inhibitor

A

Ketoconazole

37
Q

Drug of choice for pregnant patients with Cushing syndrome

A

Metyrapone

38
Q

Drug used for primary hypogonadism, postmenopausal hormonal replacement therapy and contraception. May cause breakthrough bleeding and increases risk of Endometrial Cancer and Breast cancer

A

Ethinyl estradiol

39
Q

A synthetic estrogen used for atrophic vaginitis, HRT and metastatic prostate cancer. May cause infertility, ectopic pregnancy, clear cell vaginal adenocarcinoma in daughters of mother who took DES

A

Diethylstilbestrol

40
Q

Also known as emergency contraception that prevents pregnancy if administered within 72 hours after unprotected intercourse

A

Postcoital contraceptives - progestin alone, estrogen alone or combination

41
Q

Combined oral contraceptive also for hypogonadism, acne, hirsutism and endometriosis. But may cause breakthrough bleeding, thromboembolism and breast cancer

A

Estradiol + norethindrone

42
Q

Mixed estrogen agonists that have estrogen agonists effects in some tissues and act as partial agonists or antagonists in other tissues

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs)

43
Q

SERM for hormone responsive breast cancer. May cause endometrial hyperplasia, hot flushes and endometrial cancer

A

Tamoxifen

44
Q

SERMs for breast cancer prevention and osteoporosis but no estrogenic effects on endometrial tissue

A

Raloxifene - increases bone mineral density.

45
Q

SERMs used for induction of ovulation. May cause hot flushes, ovarian enlargement and multiple pragnancies. Increased risk of low-grade ovarian cancer with ling term use

A

Clomiphene

46
Q

Antiandrogen used fir endometriosis, fibrocystic disease and hemophilia. Contraindicated during pregnancy and breast-feeding

A

Danazol

47
Q

Drug for medical abortion, Cushing syndrome. Combination with misoprostol results in abortion of 95% of early pregnancies.

A

Mifeprostone (RU -486)

48
Q

Androgen drug for male hypogonadism, delayed puberty and wasting syndrome. Contraindicated in pregnant women and patients with prostate cancer

A

Testosterone - activates androgen receptors.

49
Q

Androgen antagonist for prostate cancer and surgical castration by competetitive antagonist at androgen receptor

A

Flutamide

50
Q

An androgen antagonist, orphan drug status for hirsutism, component of combined oral contraceptives, decreases sexual drive in men.

A

Cyproterone

51
Q

An androgen synthesis inhibitor for benign prostatic hypereplasia, male pattern baldness and hirsutism. May cause impotence, gynecomastia and depression.

A

Finasteride - inhibits 5a-reductase enzyme that converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone

52
Q

Chronic disorder of carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism due to a relative or absolute deficiency in insulin secretory response

A

Diabetes Mellitus

53
Q

In patient with DM type II C peptide value would be? Increase or decrease?

A

Increase while in DM type I it is decreased

54
Q

Glucose transporter for brain

A

GLUT 1 and GLUT 3

55
Q

Rapid acting insulin

A

Lispro, Aspart and Glulisine

56
Q

Short acting Insulin

A

Regular insulin

57
Q

Long acting insulin

A

Ultralente, Glargine, Detemir, and Lantus

58
Q

Intermediate acting insulin

A

NPH and Lente

59
Q

Pancreatic hormone for diabetes mellitus, and diabetic emergencies. All preparations contain zinc

A

Insulin - beta blockers may mask sign of hypoglycemia

60
Q

Refers to a condition when the evening dose of intermediate insulin is high, hypoglycemia develops around 3:00am. As a result, counter regulatory hormones are produced, resulting in pre-breakfast hyperglycemia.

A

Somogyl effect - treatment would be decreasing dose of insulin

61
Q

Period in DM type I when exogenous insulin requirements decrease due to an increase in the endogenous production of insulin. Transient phase followed by total lack of endogenous insulin production.

A

Honeymoon Period

62
Q

Most physiologic strategy because it copies the body’s normal production of insulin as closely as possible.

A

Basal bolus - long-acting insulin (basal) + short acting insulin with every meal (bolus)

63
Q

Drugs that stimulate release of endogenous insulin by promoting closure of potassium channels in pancreatic B-cell membrane it depolarizes the cell and trigger insulin release

A

Insulin secretagogues - not effective in patients who lack functional pancreatic B-cells

64
Q

First generation sulfonylurea for DMTypeII. May cause hypoglycemia, weight gain and disulfiram reaction. Requires islet cell function

A

Chlorpropamide - increases insulin secretion from pancreatic cells by closing ATP sensitive K+ channels

65
Q

Second generation sulfonylurea for DMtype II. Causes less hypoglycemia, weight gain and cholestatic jaundice. Contraindicated in patients with hepatic impairment and renal insufficiency

A

Glipizide - Glimepiride, Glibenclamide and Gliclazide

66
Q

A meglitinide drug for DM type II with least hypoglycemia and upper respiratory tract infections. Can be used in patients with sulfa allergies

A

Repaglinide

67
Q

Drugs that reduces postprandial and fasting glucose levels by activating AMP-stimulated protein kinase leading to inhibition hepatic and renal gluconeogenesis.

A

Biguanides - stimulates glucose uptake and glycolysis in peripheral tissues. Slows glucose absorption from GI tract and reduces plasma glucagon levels. Reduce the risk of diabetes in high risk patients.

68
Q

First line drug for DM type II and Diabetes prevention, and PCOS

A

Metformin - causes GI disturbances, weight loss and lactic acidosis.

69
Q

Drug of choice for Obese diabetic patients.

A

Metformin - contraindicated in patients with renal disease, alcoholism, hepatic disease or conditions predisposing to tissue anoxia

70
Q

Drugs that increases target tissue sensitivity to insulin by activating the peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma nuclear receptor. Increases glucose uptake in muscle and adipose tissue. Inhibit gluconeogenesis and both fasting and postprandial hyperglycemia

A

Thiazolidinediones

71
Q

Thiazolidinedione drug fro DM type II and diabetes prevention. Contraindicated in pregnancy, chronic liver disease and congestive heart failure

A

Pioglitazone - Rosiglitazone, Troglitazone

72
Q

Drugs that inhibits a-glucosidase enzyme. Slowed absorption causes reduction of postprandial hyperglycemia. It reduces risk of diabetes in high risk patients.

A

Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

73
Q

Alpha glucosidase inhibitor drug for DM type II that causes Gi didturbances

A

Acarbose

74
Q

DPP-4 inhibitor drug, Incretin modulator for DM type II. Administered orally as monotherapy or in combination with metformin

A

Sitagliptin

75
Q

Antiobesity drug for obesity and Dm type II. May cause weight loss, flatulence and steatorrhea. Rebound weight gain upon discontinuation

A

Orlistat - inhibits Gi and pancreatic lipases. Reduces absorption of fats.

76
Q

Anti obesity drug withdrawn due to increased risk of suicides, depression and other serious psychiatric problems

A

Rimonabant

77
Q

Pancreatic hormone for severe hypoglycemia, beta-blocker overdose and radiology of the bowels

A

Glucagon - activates glucagon receptors

78
Q

Synthesis and secretion of PTH is primarily regulated by the?

A

Serum concentration of free ionized calcium

79
Q

A recombinant parathyroid hormone for osteoporosis. By acting on the PTH receptors to produce a net increase in bone formation

A

Teriparatide -must be administered in low intermittent doses to stimulate bone formation.

80
Q

Inactive vitamin D drug for vitamin D deficiency

A

Ergocalciferol - commonly added to dairy products and other food products

81
Q

Active vitamin D for secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD

A

Calcitriol - active vitamin D is required in CKD, liver disease and hypoparathyroidism

82
Q

A peptide hormone secreted by parafollicular C cells in the thyroid gland. It decreases serum calcium and phosphate by inhibiting bone resorption and inhibiting renal excretion.

A

Calcitonin

83
Q

Drug administered as nasal spray for Paget’s disease of bone, hypercalcemia, osteoporosis and tumor marker for thyroid cancer

A

Calcitonin

Pharmacology (11 decks)

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