27 - Lower Respiratory Problems Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

Pneumonia

A

acute infection of lung parenchyma

-PNA + influenza is 8th leading cause of deth in US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

incr risk for PNA

A
  • trache tube bypass filtration
  • weak cough/epiglottis incr risk asprtn
  • pollutn, cig, viral URI decr muciliary mech
  • chronic disease suppress immun
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 ways pathogen enters lungs 3 ways

A

1 aspiration
2 inhalation
3 hematogenous spread fr infection elsewhere in body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 classifications of PNA

A

1 community-acquired pneumonia
2 hospital-acquired pneumonia
3 ventilator-assoc pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CAP

A

infection in pt that have NOT been hospitalized or lived in longterm care facility w/in 14 days of onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HAP aka Nosocomial Pneumonia

A

NONintubated pt that begins 48 hr or longer after admission to hospital
-PNA was not present at time of admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VAP

A

type of HAP

-infection occurs more than 48 hr after ET tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

most common type of PNA

A

viral PNA

1/3 OF CASES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mycoplasma PNA

A

has traits of both bacterial + viral PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

bacterial PNA

A

pt may be extremely unwell + need hospital admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

aspiration pneumonia

A

abnormal entry of material into trachea or lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

incr risk for aspiration

A
  • decr LOC
  • seizure
  • anesthesia
  • head injury
  • stoke
  • alcohol
  • difficulty swallowing
  • NG tube
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

necrotizing PNA

A

rare complication of bacterial lung infection

  • often assoc w CAP
  • lung tissue is turned into liquid mass
  • staph, klebsiella, strep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

opportunistic PNA

A

inflammation + infection of lower resp tract in immunocompromised pt

  • due to normal flora
  • chemo, radiatn, HIV, malnourished are at risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

almost all pathogens trigger ___ in the lungs

A

inflammation response

> incr vasc permeability>incr neutrophils> engulfs pathogen> incr more neutrophils>edema of airway>fluid leaks fr capillaries+ tissues into alveoli> HYPOXIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ may occur in PNA but it only causes ____

A

atelectasis

shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

consolidation

A

common in bacterial PNA

-when normally filled alveoli is filled w water, fluid, or debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

over time w _____ therapy, macrophages will lyse debris.

A

ABX

-this allows lung tissue to recover + return gas exchange to normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most common s/s of pneumonia

A
  • cough
  • fever
  • chills
  • dyspnea
  • tachypnea
  • pleuritic chest pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

s/s in older patients

A

may not have classic s/s

  • confusion + stupor
  • —-may be r/t hypoxia
  • hypothermia instead of fever
  • diaphoresis, anorexia, fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

auscultation of PNA

A
  • crackles
  • egophony (incr in sound of pt voice)
  • incr fremitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PNA complications

A
  • atelectasis
  • pleurisy
  • pleural diffusion
  • bacteremia
  • pneumothorax
  • acute resp failure
  • sepsis/septic shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

supportive measures for PNA

A
  • o2 therapy > hypoxemia
  • analgesic>chest pain
  • antipyretic
  • 6-10 glasses/day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

corticosteroids, antitussives, mucolytics, bronchodilators for PNA

A

debatable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Tx for PNA
no tx for viral PNA | -often self-limiting
26
TB can infect which organs
any organ
27
most potent antitubercular drugs
isoniazid INH | rifampin
28
if TB develops resistance to INH + rifampin, then
it is defined as multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis | MDR-TB
29
TB | transmission
NOT highly infectious - airborne - --cough, sneeze, talk, breath - --able to suspend in air for min-hr - CANNOT spread by touching, kissing or sharing food utensils
30
factors that influence TB transmission
1 number of microbes expelled 2 concentrtn of microbes i.e. small space 3 length of time of exposure 4 immune systm of exposed
31
ghon lesion or focus
calcified TB granuloma | -hallmark of primary TB infectn
32
post primary TB or reactivation TB
TB disease occurs 2+ yrs after infection | -if laryngeal, then pt is infectious
33
latent TB infection LTBI
- positive skin test but asymptomatic, no disease | - not infectious
34
onset of TB s.s
2-3 wks after infection/reactivation
35
TB s/s
initial: dry cough later: productive w mucopurulent sputum, malaise, anorexia, low grade fever, night sweats late: dyspnea
36
when properly treated, TB usually heals without complications except for ______
scarring + residual cavitation in lung
37
miliary TB
widespread dissemination of TB in bloodstream
38
miliary TB s/s
``` fever cough lymphadenopathy hepatomegaly splenomegaly ```
39
Pott's disease
TB in spine
40
TB skin test aka
Mantoux Test
41
tb skin test/mantoux
uses purified protein derivative PPD | -standard for screening
42
Interferon Gamma Release Assays
detects INF gamma release fr T cells in response to TB
43
gold standard for Dx of TB
CULTURE - 3 consec sputum specimen - 8-24 hr intervals - atleast 1 early AM speciment
44
2 phases of TB Tx
initial + continuation
45
4 drugs in initial phase
isoniazid rifampin pyrazinamide ethambutol
46
2 drugs in continuation phase
isoniazid | rifampin
47
LTBI Tx
9 mos daily isoniazid
48
TB acute care
1 airborne isolation 2 chest x ray, sputum smeal, culture 3 appropriate drug therapy
49
tb patients are in a single occupancy room w ned airflow of _____
6-12 exchanged per hour
50
how often should sputum test or AFB smear + culture should be obtained
at minimum Qmonthly until 2 consec specimens are negative
51
pulmo embolism can be caused by
thombus, fat, air, or tumor
52
emboli
mobile clots
53
most affected part of lungs
lower lobes
54
saddle embolus
large thrombus lodged at an arterial bifurcation
55
PE | risk factors
- immobility - surgery in past 3mos - hx of VTE - cancer - obesity - contraceptives - hormone therapy - cig smoking - prolonged air travel - HF - pregnancy - clotting disorders
56
PE | s/s
- dyspnea - mild-mod hypoxemia - tachypnea - cough - chest pain - hemoptysis - crackl/wheezing
57
PE | complications
- 10% die - pulmo infarction - ---when there is occlusion or large/med size pulmo vessels, insufficient collateral blood flow, preexisting lung disease - pulmo hypertension fr hypoxemia
58
PE | diagnostic test
- D Dimer - Spiral helical CT scan - Vent perfusion scan - ABG (not diagnostic)
59
D Dimer
measures amount of cross-linked fibrin fragments | -result of clot degradation
60
most common test to diagnose PE
spiral helical CT scan
61
warfarin alternatives
- apixaban - dabigatran - edoxaban
62
how long does anticoag continue for?
3 mons
63
Pulmo hypertension
elevated pulmo artery pressure rest>25mmHg exercise>30mmHg