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Anatomy And Physiology 2 > Chapter 9 - Blood, Lymphatic System > Flashcards

Chapter 9 - Blood, Lymphatic System Flashcards

0
Q

What is blood mostly composed of

A

Rbc, wbc and platelets.

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1
Q

What is blood

A

Connective tissue with a plasma matrix. The protein fibers are only visible when the blood clots.

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2
Q

What are three functions of blood

A

Transport
Regulation (body temp, water balance, ph balance)
Defense (against pathogens, blood clotting)

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3
Q

What is plasma composed of

A

Water, proteins and other solutes

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4
Q

What are the formed elements composed of

A

Platelets, leukocytes and erythrocytes

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5
Q

Describe plasma

A

Fluid portion with dissolved substances: plasma proteins (albumin, globulins, clotting factors) and gases, nutrients, waste and hormones

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6
Q

What is % of blood volume dependant on

A

Species and amount of hydration. Cats have smaller rbc than dogs and a higher % of plasma in blood. Hemoconcentration vs. hemodilution

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7
Q

What is the normal yellow color in plasma due to

A

Bilirubin

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8
Q

Why can blood plasma appear cloudy

A

Due to postprandial lipemia. (Fat in blood after eating)

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9
Q

How do you avoid postprandial lipemia

A

Fast before taking a blood sample

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10
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma

A

Serum is the same as plasma except it lacks clotting factors

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11
Q

What does supernatant mean

A

Serum

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12
Q

What is the intrinsic blood coagulation pathway

A 
Surface contact
Hageman factor
(Active) hageman factor
Christmas factor
(Active) christmas factor 
Stable factor
Platelet membrane
Phospholipid
Calcium ions
(Active) stable factor
P.M.P
Calcium ions
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13
Q

Describe the extrinsic blood coagulation pathway

A 
Tissue damage
Tissue factor: stable factor
Stable factor 
Platelet membrane phospholipid 
Calcium ions
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14
Q

Describe the common coagulation pathway

A 
V, platelet membrane, phospholipid
Prothrombin
Thrombin
Fibrin stabilizing factor       OR fibrogen
Fibrin
Stable fibrin clot
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15
Q

What is an anticoagulant

A

Used to prevent blood clotting (coagulation) in vitro or in vivo. Substance blocks one of clotting factors in pathway

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16
Q

What does edta coagulation do

A

Binds ca++, used in lab (lavender top)

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17
Q

What does heparin anticoagulant do

A

Naturally occurring. Used to prevent thrombosis and embolism

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18
Q

What does warfarin anticoagulant do

A

In 1940: used as rat poison

In 1950: used medicinally as an oral anticoagulant

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19
Q

What are the three formed elements in blood

A

Erythrocytes
Leukocytes
Thrombocytes

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20
Q

How much percent of blood does plasma compose

A

55% of blood

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21
Q

What is a Buffy coat and what is it part of

A

It is leukocytes and thrombocytes, it’s part of the formed elements and its it greater than 1% of whole blood

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22
Q

What is an erythrocyte and what is it part of

A

It is red blood cells and it composed 45% of whole blood

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23
Q

Wbc are considered what

A

Complete cells

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24
Q

Describe the physiology of a rbc

A

Have no nuclei or most other organelles

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25
Q

What are platelets considered

A

Cell fragments

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26
Q

How long do formed elements last in blood

A

Survive in bloodstream for a few days with the exception of wbc

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27
Q

Where do blood cells originate

A

Originate in red bone marrow and do not divide (exception: some wbc)

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28
Q

What is hematopoiesis

A

The formation of blood cells. It is a continual process: stem cells formed element cells

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29
Q

How long does it take a stem cell to turn into a rbc

A

15 days

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30
Q

How long do red blood cells survive

A

100-120 days

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31
Q

What is step 3 in the stem cell conversion to rbc

A

Proerythroblast turns into basophilic erythroblast

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32
Q

What is the 4th step in the conversion from stem cells to rbc

A

From a basophilic erythroblast to polychromatic erythroblast.

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33
Q

What is the 7th step of the conversion from stem cell to rbc

A

From orthochromatic erythroblast to reticulocyte

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34
Q

Describe phase 1 of the development pathway

A

Ribosome synthesis

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35
Q

What is phase 2 of the development pathway

A

Hemoglobin accumulation

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36
Q

What is phase 3 in the development pathway

A

Ejection of nucleus

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37
Q

What is polychromasia

A

Lavender cytoplasm. Hemoglobin production begins

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38
Q

What does the erythropoietin hormone

A

Stimulates erythropoiesis, always have a small amount in blood. High rbc or O2 levels depress production. Released by kidneys in response to hypoxia

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39
Q

What are the causes of hypoxia

A

Decreased rbc numbers due to hemorrhage or increase destruction. Insufficient hemoglobin per rbc (iron deficiency) or reduced availability of o2 (high altitudes)

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40
Q

In early fetus, what organs are responsible for hematopoiesis

A

Liver and spleen

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41
Q

When fetus ages, what becomes more prominent

A

Red bone marrow

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42
Q

As an animal ages what happens to red bone marrow

A

Red bone marrow is reduced to epiphyses and replaced by yellow bone marrow in diaphyses

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43
Q

What does anucleation mean in terms of erythrocytes

A

Making more space for hemoglobin

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44
Q

What are the benefits of having biconcave disks (erythrocytes)

A

Higher surface area to transport gases across membrane.

Flexible; can squeeze through small capillaries

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45
Q

What type of respiration do erythrocytes have

A

Anaerobic

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46
Q

Do erythrocytes have mitochondria ?

A

No

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47
Q

Do erythrocytes have a nucleus?

A

Only in non mammalian species

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48
Q

What do red blood cell size and color vary on

A

Species

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49
Q

How much of the cell does hemoglobin compose

A

35%

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50
Q

What is hemoglobin composed of

A

Globular proteins (4 polypeptides) + heme groups (containing iron )

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51
Q

How many O2 can each hemoglobin carry

A

4 O2

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52
Q

How many hemoglobin. Do we have in our body

A

250 million hb/rbc

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53
Q

Animals with smaller cells have

A

More rbc

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54
Q

What are the three types of hemoglobin

A 
Embryonic hemoglobin (HBe)
Fetal hemoglobin (HbF)
Adult hemoglobin (Hb)
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55
Q

What’s the difference between fetal hemoglobin and adult hemoglobin.

A

Fetal has a higher affinity to O2 than adult Hb. Very good in low O2 environment

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56
Q

Describe O2 loading in lungs

A 
Produces oxyhemoglobulin (ruby red)
Hb+O2 ➡️ HbO2
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57
Q

Describe O2 unloading in tissues

A

Produces deoxyhemoglobin or empty hemoglobin (dark red)

Hb+o2➡️HbO2

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58
Q

Describe CO2 loading in tissues

A

20% of CO2 in blood binds to Hb

Hb + CO2 ➡️ HbCO2

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59
Q

What does the lifespan of red blood cells depend on

A

Varies by species. Large animals have longer living rbc

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60
Q

What does senesce mean

A

Age

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61
Q

As red blood cells age what happens

A

Become rounder with less surface area and get trapped in spleen

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62
Q

What happens to old rbc when they get trapped in the spleen

A

Most are phagocytized by macrophages (wbc) in spleen, some destroyed in blood vessels.

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63
Q

What happens when rbc die

A

Replaced by young cells from red bone marrow

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64
Q

What happens to globins when they’re separated from heme

A

Globins are metabolized into amino acids which are sent to liver for production of new proteins

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65
Q

What happens to iron when it’s Seperated from heme and globin

A

Iron salvaged for reuse; sent to red bone marrow

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66
Q

What happens to heme when it’s Seperated from globin

A

Heme is degraded to yellow pigment called bilirubin. Sent to liver to be used in bile which is secreted into the small intestine

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67
Q

What happens if liver is unable to process all the bilirubin,

A

it can collect in the tissues which is jaundice

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68
Q

What is anemia ?

A

Blood has abnormally low O2 carrying capacity. Low O2 levels cannot support metabolism.

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69
Q

What are the symptoms of anemia

A

Fatigue, pallor

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70
Q

What is the cause of anemia

A

Blood loss, decreased erythropoiesis, decreased hemoglobin production

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71
Q

What is polycythemia

A

Abnormally high number of rbc

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72
Q

What are the three types of polycythemia

A

Relative polycythemia
Compensatory polycythemia
Polycythemia ruba Vera

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73
Q

Define relative polycythemia

A

Hemoconcentration (loss of plasma) due to dehydration

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74
Q

Define compensatory polycythemia

A

Increased erythropoiesis due to hypoxia

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75
Q

Define polycythemia ruba Vera

A

Rare idiopathic bone marrow disorder

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76
Q

How do you determine amount of cells in blood

A

❤️Manually count with the hematocytometer slide

❤️Hematocrit or packed cell volume

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77
Q

What does a hematocrit do

A

Calculate % of rbc (+ Buffy coat plasma)

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78
Q

What are thrombocytes

A

Platelets that are fragments of larger cells (megakaryocytes)

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79
Q

What are the functions of platelets

A

❤️Nurture endothelial cells, reduce potential hemorraging
❤️Form temporary platelet plug that helps seal breaks in blood vessels
❤️Contain some clotting factors required for coagulation

80
Q

What is the steps in the formation of platelets

A

Stem cell (hemocytoblast)➡️megakaryoblast(stage 1)➡️megakaryocyte(stage 2-3)➡️️megakaryocyte (stage 4)➡️platelets

81
Q

What are leukocytes

A

White blood cells

82
Q

Describe white blood cells

A

Nucleated
Make up less than 1 percent of total blood volume
Function in defense against pathogens

83
Q

What is leukocytosis

A

Increased wbc

84
Q

What is leukocytopenia

A

Decreased wbc

85
Q

What do leukocytes do

A

Function in defense against pathogens by leaving capillaries and travel into tissues

86
Q

Describe granulocytes

A

Visible cytoplasmic granules

87
Q

What are three granulocytes

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

88
Q

What are agranulocytes

A

No cytoplasmic granules

89
Q

What are the two agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes (microphages)

90
Q

What are the leukocytes in decreasing order of abundance

A

Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

91
Q

Describe granulocytes

A

❤️Larger and shorter lived than rbc.
❤️Lobed nuclei (polymorphonuclear)
❤️Cytoplasmic granules stain specifically with wright’s stain
❤️all phagocytic to some degree (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)

92
Q

What does red wright’s stain mean

A

Acidic

93
Q

What does a blue wright’s stain mean

A

Basic

94
Q

What does a lavender wright stain mean

A

Neutral

95
Q

Describe neutrophils

A

❤️Most numerous wbc (50-70%)
❤️also called polymorphonuclear leukocytes
❤️granules stain lavender contains enzymes and antimicrobial proteins that kill pathogens
❤️bacteria slayers

96
Q

Describe eosinophils

A

❤️<5% total wbc
❤️red staining granules
❤️bilobed nucleus
❤️granules released enzymes to digest parasitic worms

97
Q

What is a basophils

A

❤️Least numerous wbc (0.5-1%)
❤️nucleus deep purple with 1-2 constrictions
❤️large, purpleish black granules containing histamine
❤️are functionally similar to mast cells

98
Q

What is histamine

A

Inflammatory chemical that acts as a vasodilator to allow wbc to reach site of infection

99
Q

What is an agranulocytes

A

Lack visible cytoplasmic granules

Have spherical or kidney shaped nuclei: lymphocytes and monocytes

100
Q

What are lymphocytes

A

❤️2nd most numerous wbc
❤️Large, dark purple circular nuclei with a blue cytoplasm.
❤️Mostly in lymphoid tissue (lymph nodes, spleen) and a few are in blood.
❤️Crucial to immunity

101
Q

What are the two types of lymphocytes

A

➡️ T lymphocytes (T Cells): act against virus infected cells and tumor cells
➡️B lymphocytes (B Cells): give rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies

102
Q

What is a monocytes

A

❤️largest leukocytes
❤️abundant pale blue cytoplasm
❤️dark purple staining, u or kidney shaped nuclei

103
Q

What is the pathway of monocytes

A

Leave circulation, enter tissues and differentiate into macrophages ➡️ activate phagocytic cells and lymphocytes to trigger immune response

104
Q

What is hemostasis

A

❤️Rapid series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding.

❤️Require clotting factors and substances released by platelets and injured tissues.

105
Q

What are the three steps to hemostasis

A

➡️ Vasoconstriction
➡️platelet plug formation
➡️ coagulation

106
Q

What is vasoconstriction

A

❤️Narrowing of damaged blood vessel

❤️Most effective in smaller blood vessels

107
Q

What is vasoconstriction triggered by

A

➡️direct injury to vascular smooth muscle
➡️chemicals released by endothelial cell platelets
➡️pain reflex

108
Q

What is platelet plug formation

A

Damaged endothelium exposes collagen fibers;
➡️platelets stick to collagen fibers
➡️platelets swell, become spiked and sticky, and released chemicals to cause more platelets to aggregate (positive feedback)

109
Q

What is a basophils

A

❤️Least numerous wbc (0.5-1%)
❤️nucleus deep purple with 1-2 constrictions
❤️large, purpleish black granules containing histamine
❤️are functionally similar to mast cells

110
Q

What is histamine

A

Inflammatory chemical that acts as a vasodilator to allow wbc to reach site of infection

111
Q

What is an agranulocytes

A

Lack visible cytoplasmic granules

Have spherical or kidney shaped nuclei: lymphocytes and monocytes

112
Q

What are lymphocytes

A

❤️2nd most numerous wbc
❤️Large, dark purple circular nuclei with a blue cytoplasm.
❤️Mostly in lymphoid tissue (lymph nodes, spleen) and a few are in blood.
❤️Crucial to immunity

113
Q

What are the two types of lymphocytes

A

➡️ T lymphocytes (T Cells): act against virus infected cells and tumor cells
➡️B lymphocytes (B Cells): give rise to plasma cells, which produce antibodies

114
Q

What is a monocytes

A

❤️largest leukocytes
❤️abundant pale blue cytoplasm
❤️dark purple staining, u or kidney shaped nuclei

115
Q

What is the pathway of monocytes

A

Leave circulation, enter tissues and differentiate into macrophages ➡️ activate phagocytic cells and lymphocytes to trigger immune response

116
Q

What is hemostasis

A

❤️Rapid series of reactions for stoppage of bleeding.

❤️Require clotting factors and substances released by platelets and injured tissues.

117
Q

What are the three steps to hemostasis

A

➡️ Vasoconstriction
➡️platelet plug formation
➡️ coagulation

118
Q

What is vasoconstriction

A

❤️Narrowing of damaged blood vessel

❤️Most effective in smaller blood vessels

119
Q

What is vasoconstriction triggered by

A

➡️direct injury to vascular smooth muscle
➡️chemicals released by endothelial cell platelets
➡️pain reflex

120
Q

What is platelet plug formation

A

Damaged endothelium exposes collagen fibers;
➡️platelets stick to collagen fibers
➡️platelets swell, become spiked and sticky, and released chemicals to cause more platelets to aggregate (positive feedback)

121
Q

Describe the pathway of platelet plug formation

A

Injury to lining of a vessel exposes fibers and platelets adhere. The fibrin forms a mesh that traps red blood cells and platelets forming the clot. Releases chemicals that make nearby platelets sticky and platelet plug forms.

122
Q

What is coagulation

A

❤️Reinforce his platelet plug with fibrin threads.
❤️Blood transformed from liquid to gel.
❤️Series of reaction use 13 clotting factors.
❤️Clotting factor 1 to 13 are mostly soluble plasma proteins made a liver. ❤️Vitamin K is needed to synthesize four of them

123
Q

what is the first phase of coagulation

A

Prothrombin activator formed in both intrinsic (contact activation) and extrinsic (tissue factor) pathway

124
Q

What is the second phase of coagulation

A

Prothrombin (plasma protein) converted to enzyme thrombin

125
Q

What is the third phase of coagulation

A

Thrombin catalyzes fibrinogen (soluble plasma protein) into fibrin (insoluble plasma protein). Forms a fibrin and protein mesh stabilizing the internal platelet clot.

126
Q

Upon repair of an injury what happens to the coagulated factors

A

Upon repair other factors dissolve fibrin clot through fibrinolysis

127
Q

What is a normal clotting time

A

3 to 5 minutes

128
Q

How do you decrease clotting time

A

Use gauze which is a contact material to serve as a foundation for the clot

129
Q

What are factors that increase clotting time

A 
❤️Lack of vitamin K. 
❤️Liver disorders. 
❤️Hemophilia. 
❤️Thrombocytopenia. 
❤️Lack of blood calcium.
130
Q

What is immunity mean

A

Resistance to disease

131
Q

What is the immune system do

A

Keep pathogens out. destroys them if they get in. Body recognizes self from nonself

132
Q

What is an autoimmune disorder

A

Disorder where the body does not recognize itself

133
Q

What is considered the innate defenses

A

First and second line of defense

134
Q

What is considered acquired or adoptive defenses

A

The third line of defense which is composed of humoral immunity or cellular immunity

135
Q

What is the first line of defense considered. And what makes up it

A

Nonspecific physical and chemical surface barrier. The skin and mucous membranes make it up

136
Q

What is the second line of defense considered and what makes it up

A

Nonspecific internal cellular and chemical Defense. It is made up of Phagocytes,natural killer cells, inflammation, antimicrobial proteins, fever

137
Q

What is the third line of defense considered and what makes up it

A

Immune response. Humoral immunity which is B cells and cellular immunity which is T cells

138
Q

What does the humoral immunity involve

A

Involves anti-bodies made by B cells

139
Q

What does cellular immunity involve

A

Involve cytotoxic T cells

140
Q

Describe skin which is the first line of physical surface barriers

A

It is stratified, keratinized and relatively dry. Tight junctions seal epithelial cells together

141
Q

Describe mucosa which is the first line of physical surface barriers

A

Mucus traps dust and pathogens. Cillia of upper respiratory tract move mucus toward mouth to be coughed or swallowed

142
Q

Describe acidity which is the first line of chemical surface barriers

A

Skin, stomach, vagina, urinary tract. Acidity inhibits growth of many microbes

143
Q

Describe sebum which is the first line of chemical surface barriers

A

Some lipids released by sebaceous glands have antimicrobial properties

144
Q

Describe enzymes which is part of the first line of chemical surface barriers

A

Lysozymes in tears and saliva. Pepcin and proteases in G.I. tract. Antimicrobial proteins called defensins which are secreted by the skin and the mucous membrane

145
Q

Describe the second line of internal defense

A

Defensive cells which are phagocytes and natural killer cells. Antimicrobial proteins. Inflammatory response. Fever.

146
Q

What are neutrophils

A

Phagocytes. Most abundant of white blood cells (50 to 70%). Short-lived and do not return to blood

147
Q

Describe macrophages

A

Develop from monocytes. Most effective.

148
Q

Define free macrophages

A

Wander through tissue spaces

149
Q

Define fixed macrophages

A

Permanent residents of many organs such as the lungs, liver, nerves, lymph nodes

150
Q

Describe the mechanism of phagocytosis

A

Phagocyte engulfs pathogens and toxins. Phagocyte must adhere to cell or substance.

151
Q

How can bacteria evade adherence from a macrophage

A

Have a capsule.

152
Q

What is opsonization

A

Marks pathogens by coating it with complement proteins which is a type of antimicrobial proteins. Phagocytes are assisted in recognizing by B cells which are making the anti-body specific to this bacterial strain

153
Q

Describe the natural killer cells

A

Non-phagocytic. Large granule lymphocytes. Similar to cytotoxic T cells but nonspecific in their targets. Attack cells that lack self cell surface receptors which Are MHC molecules. Also secrete chemicals that enhance inflammatory response

154
Q

How do natural killer cells Attack cells

A

Release proteins called perforins which form pores in target cells. Then release more chemicals into cells which induce apoptosis in cancer cells and virus-infected cells

155
Q

What is the inflammatory response

A

Triggered when tissue is damaged. Benefits is that it prevents the spread of pathogen or toxins which alerts the third line of defense

156
Q

What are the four signs of acute inflammation

A

Redness. Heat. Sweating. Pain

157
Q

What is cellulitis

A

Inflammation of the subdermal tissues

158
Q

Describe inflammatory response

A

Chemicals are released by cells which trigger inflammatory response. Injured mast cells release histamine and microphages, NK cells and tissue cells release other chemicals.

159
Q

What is the actual inflammatory response

A

Dilation of local arterioles.
Cause redness and heat of inflamed region.
Make capillaries leaky which causes increased permeability. Fluid enters tissues causing swelling.
Attracts leukocytes to area by chemotaxis

160
Q

What is the first stages of clot formation

A

. Blood vessels widen which causes redness. Bloodflow carries defensive cells and chemicals to damaged tissue and remove the toxins

161
Q

What is the second stage in clot formation

A

Heat. Increases metabolic rate of cells in the injured area to speed healing

162
Q

What is the third stage in clot formation

A

Swelling. Fluid containing defensive chemicals, blood clotting factors, oxygen, nutrients, defensive cells seep into the injured area

163
Q

What is the fourth stage of clot formation

A

Pain. Capillaries become more permeable. Movements hampered allowing the injured area to heal

164
Q

What is the fifth stage of clot formation

A

Complement destroys bacteria

165
Q

What is the sixth stage of clot formation

A

Phagocytose engulfs the bacteria

166
Q

What is the seventh stage of clot formation

A

Clot formation prevents loss of blood

167
Q

What is diapedesis

A

It’s the movement of leukocytes out of capillaries . They squeeze between endothelial cells

168
Q

What are interferons

A

Proteins released by virus-infected cells which prevent healthy cells from being infected by a virus. They activate microphages and natural killer cells. They are non-virus specific. Used medically as antivirals and cancer and viral disorders

169
Q

What are complement proteins

A

20 plasma proteins that circulate in the blood and then in an inactive form

170
Q

What are the three major mechanisms for destroying foreign substances

A

❤️stimulate inflammatory response and chemotaxis.
❤️enhance phagocytosis via opsonization.
❤️kill bacteria and other foreign cells directly via compliment fixation and cytolysis

171
Q

What is the classical complement pathway

A

Activated by anti-bodies coding the target cell

172
Q

What is the lectin complement pathway

A

Activated by lectin’s binding to specific sugars on micro organisms surface

173
Q

What is the alternative complement pathway

A

Activated spontaneously. Lack of inhibitors on micro organisms surface allows process to proceed

174
Q

What is the opsonization complement pathway

A

Coats pathogen surface which enhances phagocytosis

175
Q

What is the inflammation complement pathway

A

Stimulates histamine release increases blood vessel permeability and attracts phagocytes by chemotaxis.

176
Q

What happens when complement components are active

A

Macs form from active complement components that insert into the target cell membrane creating pores that can lyse the target cell

177
Q

What is a fever or pyrexia

A

❤️Abnormally high body temperature. ❤️Systemic response to invading microorganisms.
❤️Leukocytes and macrophages exposed to foreign substances secrete pyrogens.
❤️Pyrogens act on the bodies thermostat in hypothalamus raising setpoint for body’s temperature greater than 37

178
Q

What are the benefits of moderate fever

A

Causes liver and spleen to sequester iron and zinc which is needed by micro organisms to grow. Increases metabolic rate which makes a faster repair

179
Q

What are three characteristics of the third line of defense

A
  1. specific: recognizes and targets specific pathogens or foreign molecules.
  2. memory: remembers past pathogens so response will be faster next time.
  3. self tolerant: can distinguish self from nonself and won’t attack own tissues
180
Q

What is the specificity and memory of the immune system due to

A

The B lymphocytes and the T lymphocytes

181
Q

Where do B lymphocytes or B cells mature

A

Mature in bone marrow

182
Q

Where do you T lymphocytes or T cells mature

A

In the thymus gland

183
Q

Where do stem cells develop from

A

In bone marrow or in fetal liver

184
Q

What are antigens

A

Anti-body generators.
Substances that can stimulate B or T cells and provoke an immune response.
Most antigens are large complex molecules not normally found in the body however sometimes benign substances of self cells are treated as antigens

185
Q

What are antigenic determinants

A

Epitopes. The part of an antigen that causes an immune response.
Antibodies and lymphocyte receptors bind to them.
Most pathogenic antigens have numerous antigenic determinants.

186
Q

How is the body self tolerant and able to recognize its own cells

A

All nucleated cells have a molecular tag that identifies them as self. MHC molecules. Foreign cells have different tags. Only identical twins have the same MHC molecules. A self MHC marker labels the body cells as self

187
Q

Describe MHC molecules

A

Used by infected cells and macrophages use to present antigens to immune system cells. Lymphocytes and macrophages is only bind to antigens presented on MHC proteins.

188
Q

What is the humoral (antibody mediated) immunity

A

B cells make antibodies against specific pathogens or toxins

189
Q

What is cellular Immunity

A

T cells kill specific cells directly or indirectly. Also macrophages act as antigen presenting cells which present the antigens of pathogens they phagocytized

190
Q

What are anti-bodies

A

Proteins produced by plasma B cells which are short-lived. Circulate in body fluids. Bond to antigens marking it for destruction by Phagocytes or complements. Memory B cells remains in circulation once antibodies disappear.

191
Q

How do killer cytotoxic T cells kill directly

A

By killing infected or cancerous cells

192
Q

How do helper T cells kill indirectly

A

By releasing chemicals that enhance inflammatory response or by activating other lymphocytes or macrophages to kill affected cell.

193
Q

How do you suppressor or regulatory T cells work

A

Keep immune system a check through negative feedback

194
Q

What is the immunological memory

A

The Primal immune response. Clonal selection upon first antigen exposure. The lag Is 3 to 6 days. Peek antibody levels at 10 days and then they decline

195
Q

What is the secondary immune response

A

Re exposure to same antigen gives more prolonged, more effective response. Antibody levels peak into to three days at much higher levels and remain high for weeks

196
Q

What is active humoral immunity

A

Occurs when B cells encounter antigens and produce specific antibodies against them.

  1. Naturally acquired: which is a response to bacteria infection
  2. Artificially acquired: a response to vaccine of dead pathogens
197
Q

What is passive humoral immunity

A

Occurs when the antibodies are introduced into the body. Protection immediate but ends when anti-bodies naturally degrade in body because of no immunological memory.

  1. Naturally acquired: anti-bodies delivered to feed us via placenta or infant through colostrum.
  2. Artificially acquired: injection of antibodies. Given when exposed to rabies.

Anatomy And Physiology 2 (12 decks)

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