Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endocrinology > Practice questions > Flashcards

Practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is/are true?

(a) Acromegaly can lead to development of insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
(b) Adrenalectomy is the treatment of choice for primary adrenocortical tumors.
(c) Cretinism is hypothyroidism occurring during adulthood
(d) a and b
(e) all of the above

A

D) a and b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of these animals is the most likely to spontaneously recover?

(a) Dog with diabetes mellitus
(b) Cat with a pheochromocytoma
(c) Hyperthyroid cat
(d) Cat with diabetes mellitus
(e) Dog with panhypopituitarism

A

D) cat with diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Steroid hormones:

(a) are secreted on demand; not stored
(b) travel as free molecules (not bound to any protein or other carrier) through the blood.
(c) are produced by cells with abundant RER.
(d) bind to intracellular receptors in target cells and then the hormone-receptor complex binds directly to the DNA.
(e) a and d

A

E) a and d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which statement is true?

(a) DHEA can be converted to a potent glucocorticoid in the circulation.
(b) Radioactive iodine would be an appropriate treatment for hypothyroidism.
(c) Some types of diabetes mellitus do not (at least initially) involve a lack of insulin
(d) Right before a big exam, vet students will have low levels of epinephrine in the blood due to stress.
(e) Diabetes mellitus is often seen in young dogs

A

C) Some types of diabetes mellitus do not (at least initially) involve a lack of insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is/are true regarding the StAR protein?

(a) Facilitates transport of cholesterol across the mitochondrial membrane
(b) Found in Leydig cells
(c) Stimulated by LH
(d) all of the above are true
(e) none of the above are true

A

D) all of the above are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is true about insulin?

(a) Porcine insulin is not effective in dogs.
(b) Insulin causes glycogen catabolism in the liver.
(c) Insulin is secreted in response to low amino acid levels in the blood.
(d) Production of insulin can be inhibited by somatostatin.
(e) none of the above

A

D) production of insulin can be inhibited by somatostatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a goiter?

(a) enlargement of the thyroid gland
(b) enlargement of the adrenal due to Addison’s disease
(c) enlargement of the pituitary as a secondary result of hyperthyroidism
(d) a compound use to treat hyperthyroidism

A

A) enlargement of the thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mrs. Miller from down the street has called in saying that she thinks her female Dachshund Fluffy has developed diabetes mellitus. Which of the following symptoms might you see?

(a) glycosuria
(b) polyuria / polydypsia
(c) hyperphagia
(d) a and b
(e) all of the above

A

E) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In which of the following conditions might you see alopecia as a symptom?

(a) Growth hormone imbalance
(b) Thyroid hormone imbalance
(c) Glucocorticoid imbalance
(d) a and c
(e) all of the above

A

E) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following are not pulsatile?

(a) LH
(b) oxytocin
(c) testosterone
(d) GnRH
(e) none of the above are pulsatile

A

B) oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fluffy is a 5 year old unspayed female golden retriever showing signs of body weight gain, lethargy, decreased estrous cycling, and alopecia. Blood T4 levels are low but increase sharply following injection with TSH. However, T4 remains low following injection of TRH. Which of the following disorders would you consider to be most likely?

(a) primary hypothyroidism
(b) secondary hypothyroidism
(c) tertiary hypothyroidism
(d) cretinism
(e) terminal liver failure

A

B) secondary hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is stimulated by luteinizing hormone (LH)?

(a) testosterone production by the Leydig cells of the male
(b) GH release
(c) CRH production by the hypothalamus
(d) all of the above are stimulated by LH

A

A) testosterone produced by the Leydig cells of the male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Growth hormone causes ________ to decrease.

(a) glucose uptake by muscle and fat
(b) blood glucose
(c) insulin resistance
(d) lipolysis
(e) all of the above

A

A) glucose uptake by muscle and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Long-term exogenous glucocorticoid administration would be an appropriate treatment for…

(a) primary hyper adrenocorticism
(b) secondary hypoadrenocorticism
(c) iatrogenic hypoadrenocorticism
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above –glucocorticoids are potentially dangerous drugs and should never be used as a long-term treatment.

A

B) secondary hypoadrenocortism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In conditions of stress, you would expect to see high levels of which hormone(s)?

(a) cortisol
(b) GnRH
(c) epinephrine
(d) a and c
(e) all of the above

A

D) a and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following hormones show marked diurnal variations?

(a) follicle stimulating hormone
(b) growth hormone
(c) cortisol
(d) b and c
(e) all of the above

A

D) b and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Fluffy the 8-year-old cat is not looking good. Her weight is normal, but the cartilage and bone in her ears, nose and jaw seem to be enlarged and, and she is mildly hyperglycemic. Fluffy has:

(a) developmental hypersecretion of growth hormone
(b) acromegaly
(c) panhypopituitarism (dwarfism)
(d) adult-onset growth hormone deficiency

A

B) acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is true about catecholamines?

(a) Epinephrine is the major regulator because there is more of it.
(b) Epinephrine is the major regulator because it is the only active catecholamine.
(c) Norepinephrine is the major regulator because there is more of it.
(d) Norepinephrine is the major regulator because it is the more active form.
(e) Epinephrine and norepinephrine are not catecholamines.

A

A) epinephrine is the major regulator because there is more of it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Catecholamines:

(a) are produced from the amino acid tryptophan.
(b) are stored in membrane-bound granules.
(c) cause vasodilation in all blood vessels of the body.
(d) Take 2-3 minutes to be released from the time of stimulation.
(e) none of the above

A

B) are stored in membrane-bound granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BPH is a significant clinical problem in:

(a) cats
(b) dogs
(c) humans
(d) b and c
(e) all of the above

A

D) b and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fluffy the dog has been diagnosed with a chromaffin cell tumor (pheochromocytoma), leading to excessive production of epinephrine. Which of the following symptoms would you not expect?

(a) dilated pupils
(b) decreased intestinal motility
(c) catabolism of muscle tissue
(d) increased fat deposition
(e) all of the above.

A

D) increased fat deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is/are necessary for normal growth?

(a) growth hormone
(b) epinephrine
(c) thyroxine
(d) a and c
(e) all of the above are necessary for growth

A

D) a and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Prolactin:

(a) is essential for bone growth
(b) is inhibited by dopamine.
(c) is not present in males.
(d) stimulates milk letdown from the mammary glands.
(e) all of the above

A

B) is inhibited by dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Injections of epinephrine would cause increases in blood glucose (TRUE/FALSE)

(a) True
(b) False

A

A) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which statement regarding parathyroid hormone (PTH) is correct?

(a) “Parathyroid hormone” is the same as “parathormone.”
(b) Hyperparathyroidism can result from tumors or adenomas of the parathyroid.
(c) High blood Ca2+ decreases PTH production.
(d) Calcitriol inhibits PTH production of PTH
(e) All of the above are correct

A

E) all of the above are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fluffy the cat’s blood work is not looking so great. Her calcium levels are normal or just a
bit depressed, she seems to have mild osteoporosis, and her PTH is high. Fluffy has:
(a) primary hyperparathyroidism
(b) secondary hyperparathyroidism
(c) hypervitaminosis D
(d) hypercalcemia resulting from a malignancy
(e) not enough information to say

A

B) secondary hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following are true?
(a) T3 is the more active form. T3 is present in higher levels in the blood.
(b) T3 is the more active form. T4 is present in higher levels in the blood.
(c) T4 is the more active form. T3 is present in higher levels in the blood.
(d) T4 is the more active form. T4
is present in higher levels in the blood.
(e) The only important thyroid hormone is T57.

A

B) T3 is the more active form. T4 is present in higher levels in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is true?

(a) Cretinism is developmental hyperthyroidism.
(b) Primary hypothyroidism is less common than the secondary or tertiary forms.
(c) Older cats are more likely to develop hyperthyroidism than younger dogs.
(d) Animals with hypothyroidism are likely to exhibit bulging of the eyes.
(e) none of the above

A

C) older cats are more likely to develop hyperthyroidism than younger dogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The following hormone(s) is/are produced by adipose tissue:

(a) leptin
(b) ghrelin
(c) cortisol
(d) a and b are correct
(e) a, b and c are correct

A

A) leptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Thyroid hormone deficiency in a puppy would lead to:

(a) fruity-smelling breath (a sign of ketosis)
(b) increased GH
(c) increased fat mobilization
(d) impaired growth
(e) all of the above

A

D) impaired growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which is false?

(a) Hypoadrenocorticism is uncommon in dogs and even rarer in cats.
(b) Hydrocortisone cream is topically effective at relieving inflammation because it contains glucocorticoids.
(c) Inadequate secretion of aldosterone by the neurohypophysis is the major cause of diabetes insipidus.
(d) Adipose tissue is regulated by many hormones.
(e) c and d

A

C) inadequate secretion of aldosterone by the neurohypophysis is the major cause of diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Glucophage is a drug used to increase the sensitivity of peripheral insulin receptors. In which species is Glucophage likely to be a more effective treatment?
(a) cats, because dogs will show allergic reactions to these drugs
(b) cats, because diabetic dogs rarely have many pancreatic B cells remaining.
(c) dogs, because cats rarely suffer from NIDDM.
(d) dogs, because diabetic cats
rarely have many pancreatic B cells remaining.
(e) None of the above

A

B) cats, because diabetic dogs rarely have many pancreatic B cells remaining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Which is false?
    (a) ADH is produced in the hypothalamus.
    (b) Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions.
    (c) Hyperprolactinemia could result from deficient production of dopamine by the hypothalamus.
    (d) Postparturient paresis (milk fever) is characterized by elevated blood calcium.
    (e) b and d
A

D) postparturient paresis (milk fever) is characterized by elevated blood calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Inhibition of the enzyme 1 α-hydroxylase in the kidney would likely lead to:
    (a) increased absorption of calcium by the intestinal tract.
    (b) increased calcitriol production.
    (c) decreased intestinal calcium absorption.
    (d) increased calcification of bone.
    (e) none of the above
A

C) decreased intestinal calcium absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Which of the following would NEVER measure serum cortisol in their patients?
    (a) small animal veterinarians
    (b) large animal veterinarians
    (c) lab animal (rats + mice) veterinarians
    (d) human doctors
A

C) lab animals (rats+mice) veterinarians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Which is true about glucocorticoid induced glucose “sparing?”
    (a) “Glucose sparing” is necessary because above all else, it is important that glucose be available for proper liver function.
    (b) “Glucose sparing” is necessary to insure an adequate supply of fuel for muscle
    (c) “Glucose sparing” is necessary because the brain is an obligatory user of glucose and low glucose levels will lead to unconsciousness and death
    (d) all of the above
A

C) “Glucose sparing” is necessary because the brain is an obligatory user of glucose and low glucose levels will lead to unconsciousness and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. Calcitonin:
    (a) decreases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium.
    (b) increases bone breakdown
    (c) is produced by the parathyroid gland
    (d) stimulates calcitriol production.
    (e) a and c are both correct
A

A) decreases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. Which of the following have effects on adipose tissue?
    (a) insulin
    (b) glucagon
    (c) epinephrine
    (d) a and b
    (e) all of the above
A

E) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Thyroid hormones:
    (a) are derived from cholesterol precursors.
    (b) act through only one type of receptor.
    (c) act via membrane-bound receptors.
    (d) feed back negatively on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary.
    (e) none of the above
A

D) feedback negatively on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Fluffy the poodle has never seen a veterinarian before but is showing signs of PU/PD, polyphagia, muscle weakness, lethargy, and distended abdomen. Blood tests show high glucose, high cortisol, low CRH, and high ACTH. Which of the following conditions do you expect that Fluffy has?
    (a) hypothyroidism
    (b) primary adrenocortical tumor
    (c) pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (PDH)
    (d) iatrogenic Cushings
    (e) tummy-ache
A

C) pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Fluffy the female cat suffers from the rare “Mullerian-ducts-are-goners” syndrome, where the animal does not develop Mullerian ducts. What organ(s) would Fluffy be missing in adulthood?
    (a) Ovary
    (b) Uterus
    (c) Mammary glands
    (d) Epididymis
    (e) both b and c are correct.
A

B) uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. “Killer” the male Basset hound suffers from the rare “Sertoli-no-go-ee” syndrome, where the animal does not develop Sertoli cells during reproductive tract development. What organ(s) would Killer HAVE in adulthood that his NORMAL male littermate “Bruiser” would not?
    (a) Ovary
    (b) Uterus
    (c) Testis
    (d) Epididymis
A

B) uterus

43
Q
  1. “Tiny” the male St. Bernard Basset suffers from a genetic mutation in his androgen receptor that renders it totally non-functional. What do you think happened to Tiny’s Wolffian duct during development?
    (a) formed an ovary
    (b) formed a uterus
    (c) degenerated and didn’t form anything
    (d) formed a prostate
A

C) degenerated and didn’t form anything

44
Q
  1. What would Tiny’s external genitalia look like? (I just mentioned this in passing, but you should be able to figure it out)
    (a) Typical male
    (b) Atrophic male external genitals
    (c) Typical female
    (d) No external genital structures of any type present.
A

C) typical female

45
Q
  1. You go for a relaxing weekend at your classmate’s farm. You ride Stanley the stallion, and he throws you off, then kicks you in the head. As you stagger back through the pasture, Bob
    the bull charges and gores you. As you almost get back to the house, Phil, a male Lowland Silverback gorilla, chases you for 300 yds, screaming at the top of his lungs (your classmate’s farm is in Central Africa). From this experience, you conclude that:
    (a) Androgens stimulate male aggressive behavior
    (b) Anything can happen in these questions
    (c) It is better to study over the weekend than try to go off and do something fun
    (d) a, b and c are all correct
A

D) a,b and c are all correct

46
Q

In secondary hyperadrenocorticism (PDH) in the dog, you would see:

(a) high ACTH production by the pituitary
(b) very high production of mineralcortocoids by the adrenal cortex
(c) elevated CRH, which would help to constantly stimulate ACTH production
(d) mineralocorticoid deficiency
(e) a, b, and c would all be seen
(f) a and b would both be seen
(g) the secondary form of the disease would not be accompanied by a, b, or c

A

A) high ACTH production by the pituitary

47
Q

You obtain a still-borne puppy that is chromosomally XY and had normally functional Leydig cells. You find that this animal has a total deficiency of the androgen receptor, but you find no other genetic or functional abnormalities in the testis. During development, what would have happened to the Mullerian duct in this male dog? What would have happened to the Wolffian duct?

A

Woffian duct would not develop, MIS is present so there will be degeneration of the Mullerian ducts; secondary sex characteristics will not develop and the dog will appear to be female; only partial formation of the vagina (non-functional)

48
Q

How does treatment of diabetic dogs differ from that for diabetic cats?

A

dogs- IDDM; give insulin injections

cats- IDDM + NIDDM (1/3) + transient diabetes; insulin injections or oral medications to stimulate cats own beta cells

49
Q

The most common form of hyperadrenocorticism in the dog is secondary hyperadrenocorticism, also know as PDH. What is the most common treatment for PDH, and how does this treatment work.

A

Treatment- mitotane (pp’-DDD)
Works by destroying some of the cells/receptors in the zona reticularis/zona fasciculata so the production of cortisol decreases; injection into the body destroys the adrenal cortex cells

50
Q

How do you treat primary hypoadrenocorticism, why do you give the treatment that you do?

A

Supplement with glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, due to intact but non-functioning cells in the zona glomerulosa, as well as atrophied receptors in the zona reticularis/fasciculata

51
Q

Name two hormones that are produced from the amino acid tyrosine

A

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, thyroxine (T4), dopamine, T3

52
Q

You determine that a dog has panhypopituritarism, where production and circulating concentrations of all major adenohypophysial hormones are low due to a defect in the pituitary gland. Which of the following would be HIGH in this animal?

(a) TRH
(b) ACTH
(c) T4
(d) IGF-1
(e) T3

A

A) TRH- responding to low thyroid levels

53
Q

A dog is hit by a car, and its hypothalamus is damaged and no longer produces hormones. Everything else remains intact and functional. Which of the following hormones would be high?

(a) GnRH
(b) TSH
(c) T4
(d) Prolactin
(e) ACTH

A

D) prolactin- dopamine is no longer being produced and is therefore not inhibiting prolactin production

54
Q

What is the major endocrine function of GnRH?

A

stimulates pituitary secretion of LH and FSH

55
Q

A cat presents with symptoms of hyperthyroidism. What would be the first assay you would use to assess the thyroid status of this animal? Be specific.

A

Total T4 assay to assess free and bound T4 hormone

56
Q

What is the major endocrine regulator of ACTH production?

A

CRH (Corticotropin releasing hormone) produced by the hypothalamus

57
Q

What is the drug methimazole used for clinically?

A

Treatment for hyperthyroid cats, inhibits TPO enzyme

58
Q

You obtain a serum sample from a 10-yr-old acromegalic dog. What would serum GH concentrations be in this animal compared to a normal dog?

A

increased (high)

59
Q

What would serum IGF-1 concentrations be in the dog with acromegaly compared to a normal dog?

A

increased (high)

60
Q

A zebra is chased by a lion for 5 minutes. At the end of the chase, you grab a quick blood sample from the zebra, no small feat considering he is still a bit jumpy. If you measured blood glucose in this zebra, would it be increased, decreased or the same as before the lion attack?

A

increased; epinephrine/norepinephrine are hyperglycemic hormones

61
Q

The StAR protein regulates what step of Leydig cell steroidogenesis?

(a) transport of cholesterol across the mitochondrial membrane
(b) conversion of androstenedione to testosterone
(c) conversion of pregnenolone to androstenedione
(d) none of the above
(e) all of the above

A

A) transport of cholesterol across the mitochondrial membrane

62
Q

Among the following, which one is the most common regulatory mechanism for hormone secretion?

(a) negative feedback
(b) antagonism
(c) pull-push
(d) positive feedback
(e) synergism

A

A) negative feedback

63
Q

Which of the following properties does not belong to the steroid receptors?

(a) they do not need mediators (second messengers) to affect the target cell
(b) use transport proteins to circulate in the blood
(c) they are located at the level of the membrane of the cell
(d) lipophylic
(e) they have a long half-life

A

C) they are located at the level of the membrane of the cell

64
Q

Where are cathecolamine receptors normally found?

(a) in mitochondria of target cells
(b) in the cytoplasm of target cells
(c) in nuclei of target cells
(d) on the plasma membrane of target cells
(e) at the same sites as steroid hormone receptors

A

D) on the plasma membrane of target cells

65
Q

Antidiuretic hormone is:

(a) released from the posterior pituitary gland
(b) released from kidney medulla
(c) stimulated by increased plasma osmolality and decreased blood volume
(d) stimulated by increased blood pressure
(e) a and c

A

E) a and c

66
Q

Which of the following is not a biological effect of Ghrelin?

(a) stimulation of gastric emptying
(b) regulation of energy balance
(c) stimulation of growth hormone
(d) increased fat utilization in adipose tissue
(e) increased cardiac output

A

D) increased fat utilization in adipose tissue

67
Q

What proposition describes the best the Growth Hormone (GH)?

(a) it is a steroid hormone, with a long half-life and a high percentage of the hormone bound to specific binding proteins in the blood
(b) it is a proteic hormone, with a long half life, a specific binding protein and an intracellular receptor
(c) it is a proteic hormone, with a short half life and a high percentage of the hormone bound to a specific binding protein which is in fact the extracellular part of the receptor
(d) it is a proteic hormone, with a long half life and no binding proteins in the plasma
(e) it is a proteic hormone, with a short half life, no specific binding protein and an intracellular receptor

A

C) it is a proteic hormone, with a short half life and a high percentage of the hormone bound to a specific binding protein which is in fact the extracellular part of the receptor

68
Q

Which of the following ones does not belong to the family of steroid hormones?

(a) testosterone
(b) mineralocorticoids
(c) cortisol
(d) prolactin
(e) estrogens

A

D) prolactin

69
Q

Which of these statements is FALSE:

(a) hypothalamic neurons are known to liberate releasing and/or inhibiting factors into the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system
(b) the anterior pituitary, like the posterior, stores neuropeptides
(c) hormones of the neurohypophysis are products of hypothalamic neurosecretory cells
(d) oxytocin is secreted from the posterior lobe of the pituitary but produced at the level of the hypothalamus
(e) CRF is known to promote ACTH secretion from the pituitary

A

B) the anterior pituitary, like the posterior, stores neuropeptides

70
Q

Which of the following hormones is not produced by the pituitary:

(a) FSH
(b) LH
(c) Prolactin
(d) ACTH
(e) oxytocin

A

E) oxytocin

71
Q

Which of the following statements about peptide-protein hormones is usually true:

(a) they have slower onset of action than both steroid and thyroid hormones
(b) they have receptors on the cell membrane
(c) they are not stored in endocrine-producing glands
(d) they have longer half-lives than steroids

A

B) they have receptors on the cell membrane

72
Q

The following is true about the adrenal gland except:

(a) the cortex is responsible for production of glucocorticoids and catecholamines
(b) the cortex makes up 80% of the adrenal
(c) it is located just cranial to the kidneys
(d) all of the above are true of the adrenal gland

A

A) the cortex is responsible for production of glucocorticoids and catecholamines

73
Q

The regulation of cortisol plasma concentration involves the following except:

(a) positive feedback by ACTH on the adrenals
(b) negative feedback of cortisol on the anterior pituitary
(c) negative feedback of cortisol on the adrenals
(d) positive feedback by CRH on the anterior pituitary
(e) negative feedback of cortisol on the hypothalamus

A

C) negative feedback of cortisol on the adrenals

74
Q

All of the following statements are true except:

(a) both zona fasciculata and reticularis produce glucocorticoids
(b) the zona glomerulosa is responsible for mineralocorticoid production
(c) the zona fasciculata makes up the largest portion of the adrenal glands
(d) the zona fasciculata is responsible for glucocorticoid production
(e) the medulla is responsible for sex steroid production

A

E) the medulla is responsible for sex steroid production

75
Q

Which of the following has the highest glucocorticoid potency compared to cortisol?

(a) Dexamethasone
(b) Bethamethasone
(c) Hydrocortisone
(d) Prednisolone/Prednisone

A

A) Dexamethasone

76
Q

The anti-inflammatory effects of cortisol include all of the following except:

(a) suppresses wound healing
(b) suppresses T cells, but increases lymphocytes and eosinophils
(c) decreases the capillary permeability
(d) stabilizes the lysosomal membrane
(e) depresses the ability of white blood cells to digest phagocytosed tissue

A

B) suppresses T cells, but increases lymphocytes and eosinophils

77
Q

The effects of cortisol include the following except:

(a) hyperinsulinemia secondary to increase in blood glucose
(b) increases the rate of glucose utilization by cells
(c) decreases the rate of glucose utilization by cells
(d) gluconeogenesis in the liver by increasing glycogen storage
(e) increased blood glucose levels

A

B) increases the rate of glucose utilization by cells

78
Q

Cortisol affects protein metabolism in the following ways except:

(a) cortisol causes protein catabolism and decreased protein synthesis in all cells except the liver
(b) cortisol causes increase of protein synthesis by the liver
(c) cortisol causes a decrease of protein synthesis by the liver
(d) cortisol causes an increase in blood amino acid concentration
(e) cortisol increased gluconeogenesis by conversion of amino acids to glucose in the liver

A

C) cortisol causes a decrease of protein synthesis by the liver

79
Q

The most common cause of hyperadrenocorticism in a dog is:

(a) pituitary adenoma
(b) adrenal carcinoma
(c) pituitary carcinoma
(d) adrenalcortical adenoma
(e) iatrogenic causes

A

A) pituitary adenoma

80
Q

One of the more common presentations of hyperadrenocorticism in cats which rarely occurs is:

(a) fragile, easily torn skin
(b) muscle wasting
(c) increased appetite
(d) pot bellied appearance
(e) PU/PD

A

A) fragile, easily torn skin

81
Q

The “pot-bellied” appearance of dogs with hyperadrenocorticism is typically due to each of the following except:

(a) weakness of the abdominal muscles
(b) redistribution of fat to the abdomen
(c) an enlarged liver
(d) wasting of the abdominal muscles
(e) accumulation of fluid in the abdomen

A

E) accumulation of fluid in the abdomen

82
Q

Tests to differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism and adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism would be:

(a) Low dose dexamethasone stim test
(b) High dose dexamethasone stim test
(c) ACTH stim test
(d) urinary cortisol:creatinine ratio
(e) single cortisol value

A

B) high dose dexamethasone stim test

83
Q

Spermatogenesis is regulated by FSH which stimulates the different steps in sperm cell formation. What is the negative feedback associated with sperm cell production that inhibits pituitary formation of FSH?

(a) Estrogen
(b) Inhibin
(c) LH
(d) testosterone

A

B) inhibin

84
Q

A birth control device for men has been sought for decades. Which of the following would provide effective sterility?

(a) a substance that blocks the action of FSH
(b) a substance that blocks the action of inhibin
(c) a substance that mimics the actions of LH
(d) a substance that mimics the action of GnRH

A

A) substance that blocks the action of FSH

85
Q

If a dog suffers from a syndrome of feminization and abnormally high levels of blood estrogens are detected, you will suspect:

(a) an adrenal gland disease
(b) a prostate disease
(c) a pathology affecting primarily the Leydig cells
(d) a pathology affecting primarily the Sertoli cells

A

A) an adrenal gland disease (?) I believe–adrenal androgens can act as substrate for estrogens and disease can cause feminization

86
Q

The epididymes have an important role in male fertility. Which of the following is true?

(a) the epididymes are responsible for the negative feedback on spermatogenesis and may shut down production of sperm cells
(b) the epididymes are responsible for storage and maturation of the sperm cells, any trouble at their level may result in decreased fertility or in sterility
(c) the epididymes are mostly interfering with the testosterone production and the secondary sexual characteristics
(d) the epididymes are involved in the last meiosis, insuring the production of gametes with no chromosomes

A

B) the epididymes are responsible for storage and maturation of the sperm cells, any trouble at their level may result in decreased fertility or in sterility

87
Q

Which of the following sentences concerning long term continuous stimulation of the GnRH receptors by an agonist is correct?

(a) after the initial stimulation, a desensitization of the receptor will be observed associated with an increased response to stimulation
(b) after the initial stimulation, a down regulation of the receptor will be observed associated with an increased response to stimulation
(c) after the initial stimulation, a desensitization of the receptor will be observed associated with an decreased response to stimulation
(d) after the initial stimulation, a down regulation of the receptor will be observed associated with an decreased response to stimulation
(e) the GnRH agonist will continuously stimulate FSH/LH production

A

D) after the initial stimulation, a down regulation of the receptor will be observed associated with an decreased response to stimulation

88
Q

Which of the following sentences concerning homeostasis is NOT correct:

(a) homeostasis is regulation around a fixed point
(b) homeostasis is typically observed during pregnancy
(c) homeostasis alone would never allow for the maintenance of life
(d) homeostasis and hemorrhesis coexist and are the base of life
(e) a typical example of homeostasis is hydration maintenance

A

B) homeostasis is typically observed during pregnancy

89
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the endocrine system?

(a) regulation of sodium and water balance
(b) pain integration and perception
(c) reproduction
(d) regulation of energy balance
(e) coordination of growth and development

A

B) pain integration and perception

90
Q

Which of the following sentences concerning peptide hormones is not correct?

(a) they are the products of cholesterol transformation into the cell
(b) they generally do not need transporters
(c) they have a short half-life
(d) they are often produced as pro-hormones
(e) they activate second-messengers at the cellular level

A

A) they are the products of cholesterol transformation into the cell

91
Q

Which of the following concerning hormones is incorrect?

(a) hormones are secreted in the circulation
(b) hormones are released in low concentration and may need transporters
(c) hormones interact with cytoplasmic lipids to induce biological effects
(d) hormones are synthesized by endocrine cells
(e) hormones can be steroids or peptides

A

C) hormones interact with cytoplasmic lipids to induce biological effects

92
Q

All of the following are considered to be endocrine organs except the:

(a) pineal gland
(b) lung
(c) pancreas
(d) kidney
(e) parathyroids

A

B) lung

93
Q

Hormones affect diverse metabolic functions by:

(a) serving as substrates for various reactions inside target cells
(b) contributing energy to various anabolic and catabolic processes
(c) increasing or decreasing the rates of specific reactions within target cells
(d) acting as enzymes for specific reactions within target cells
(e) all of the above

A

C) increasing or decreasing the rates of specific reactions within target cells

94
Q

What is the largest endocrine organ (or organ system) in the body?

(a) GI tract
(b) Thyroid
(c) Pituitary gland
(d) Brain
(e) Liver

A

A) GI tract

95
Q

In primary hypoadrenocorticism:

(a) decreased production of ACTH by the pituitary leads to decreased production of glucocorticoids and/or mineralocorticoids
(b) destruction of the adrenal glands leads to decreased production of glucocorticoids and/or mineralocorticoids
(c) decreased production of ACTH by the hypothalamus leads to decreased production of glucocorticoids and/or mineralocorticoids
(d) destruction of the adrenal glands leads to decreased production of mineralocorticoids but not glucocorticoids
(e) destruction of the adrenal glands leads to decreased production of glucocorticoids but not mineralocorticoids

A

B) destruction of the adrenal glands leads to decreased production of glucocorticoids and/or mineralocorticoids

96
Q

PTH causes a:

(a) decrease in blood Ca, increase in PO4
(b) increase in blood Ca, decrease in PO4
(c) increase in blood Ca, increase in PO4
(d) no effect

A

B) increase in blood Ca, decrease in PO4

97
Q

Where is most PO4 reabsorbed?

(a) bone
(b) spleen
(c) kidney
(d) eye
(e) all of the above

A

C) kidney

98
Q

Calcitonin is stimulated by:

(a) increase PO4
(b) decrease PO4
(c) increase blood Ca
(d) decrease blood Ca
(e) none of the above

A

C) increase blood Ca

99
Q

PTH acts to:

(a) increase Ca2 mobilization from bone
(b) decrease vitamin D activation
(c) increase resorption of PO4
(d) none of the above

A

A) increase Ca2 mobilization from bone

100
Q

PTH and calcitonin are both regulated by:

(a) blood PO4 levels
(b) vitamin D levels
(c) blood Ca levels
(d) Na levels
(e) all of the above

A

C) blood Ca levels

101
Q

All of these listed are functions of calcium in the body except:

(a) urinary buffer
(b) muscle contraction
(c) cell secretion
(d) blood coagulation

A

A) urinary buffer

102
Q

Which hormone will increase in order to deal with a calcium rich meal?

(a) PTH
(b) cortisol
(c) calcitonin
(d) 7-dehydrocholesterol

A

C) calcitonin

103
Q

Which disease is not associated with bone weakness and fractures?

(a) Pseudohyperparathyroidism
(b) Secondary hyperparathyroidism nutritionally induced
(c) eclampsia
(d) Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

C) eclampsia

104
Q

Calcitonin results in excretion of:

(a) calcium only
(b) phosphate only
(c) both calcium and phosphate
(d) neither calcium nor phosphate

A

C) both calcium and phosphate

Endocrinology (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions