2nd set Flashcards
(90 cards)
A 42-year-old banker sees you as a new patient. He states that he is healthy and takes no regular medications. His examination is normal except for a blood pressure of 150/94. When questioning him about alcohol use, he admits that he goes out drinking with friends about 2 Saturdays each month to relieve stress. At these times he will often have 8 to 10 mixed alcohol drinks. He and his wife have recently had several arguments about this habit, and she has threatened to divorce him if he doesn’t change his ways. Despite this he has been unable to change. On one occasion he was arrested for driving while intoxicated. Nonetheless he has continued to be successfully employed, has never been hospitalized for an alcohol-related problem, and has never had symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following statements is true regarding treatment of this patient?
A. Advice from a physician to reduce his alcohol consumption is likely to be successful.
B. The patient should be advised that complete abstinence from alcohol and referral to a mutual aid group is the best strategy in treating his alcohol-related problem.
C. Abstinence from alcohol may necessitate treatment of his blood pressure because he is currently using alcohol to treat stress.
D. Medications for alcohol dependence are not usually helpful.
E. The fact that this patient has had no symptoms of alcohol dependence proves that he does not abuse alcohol.
B. The patient should be advised that complete abstinence from alcohol and referral to a mutual aid group is the best strategy in treating his alcohol-related problem.
A 67-year-old male presents to your clinic to establish primary care; he is asymptomatic. He has a history of hypertension for which he takes hydrochlorothiazide. His father had a myocardial infarction at age 62. The patient smoked until 5 years ago, but has been abstinent from tobacco since then. His blood pressure in the office today is 132/78. Aside from being overweight, the remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following preventive health interventions would be most appropriately offered to him today?
A. Carotid ultrasound to evaluate for carotid artery stenosis
B. Abdominal ultrasound to evaluate for aortic aneurysm
C. Lipoprotein(a) assay to evaluate coronary heart disease risk
D. Exercise (treadmill) stress testing to evaluate for coronary artery disease
E. Homocysteine level to evaluate coronary heart disease risk
B. Abdominal ultrasound to evaluate for aortic aneurysm
A 65-year-old man presents with painless hematuria. He has a 45-year history of tobacco use. He denies fever, chills, and dysuria. General physical examination is unremarkable. On rectal examination, the prostate is small, non-nodular, and nontender. A urinalysis shows 100 red blood cells per high-power field. No white cells or protein are present. Three months previously, the patient had an abdominal ultrasound for right upper quadrant pain; on review, both kidneys were normal.
Which of the following is the most useful diagnostic test at this time?
A. Urine culture and sensitivity
B. PSA
C. Bladder scan
D. Cystoscopy and retrograde pyelography
E. CT scan of the kidneys
D. Cystoscopy and retrograde pyelography
An active 78-year-old female with history of hypertension presents with the new onset of left hemiparesis. Cardiac monitoring reveals atrial fibrillation. She had been in sinus rhythm on checkup 3 months earlier. Optimal management at discharge includes a review of antihypertensive therapy, a ventricular rate control agent, and which of the following?
A. Automated implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (AlCD)/permanent pacemaker to avoid the need for anticoagulation
B. Immediate direct-current cardioversion
C. Antiplatelet therapy such as aspirin, without warfarin
D. Antiplatelet therapy plus warfarin with a target INR of 1.5
E. Warfarin with a target INR of 2.0 to 3.0.
E. Warfarin with a target INR of 2.0 to 3.0.
An 80-year-old white male is being evaluated as part of an annual physical examination. Examination reveals a large plaque on the left shoulder that is well demarcated, hyperkeratotic, and oily to palpation. It appears to be “stuck on.” Its surface includes keratin plugs. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Biopsy to rule out melanoma
B. Advice about sun exposure and actinic keratosis
C. Reassurance of the benign nature of this seborrheic keratosis
D. Removal of basal cell carcinoma
E. Treatment with topical steroids for psoriasis
C. Reassurance of the benign nature of this seborrheic keratosis
A 30-year-old male complains of bilateral leg weakness and clumsiness of fine movements of the right hand. Five years previously he had an episode of transient visual loss. On physical examination, there is hyperreflexia with Babinski sign, and cerebellar dysmetria with poor finger-to-nose movement. When the patient is asked to look to the right, the left eye does not move normally past the midline. Nystagmus is noted in the abducting eye. A more detailed history suggests the patient has had several episodes of gait difficulty that have resolved spontaneously. He appears to be stable between these episodes. He has no systemic symptoms of fever or weight loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate next test to order?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. MR scan with gadolinium infusion
C. Quantitative CSF IgG levels
D. Testing for oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid
E. CT scan of the head with intravenous contrast
B. MR scan with gadolinium infusion
A 20-year-old nursing student complains of asthma while on her surgical rotation. She has developed dermatitis of her hands. Symptoms are worse when she is in the operating room. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. This allergic reaction is always benign.
B. The patient should be evaluated for latex allergy by skin testing.
C. This syndrome is less common now than 10 years ago.
D. Oral corticosteroid is indicated.
E. She will have to change her career since there is no substitute for latex gloves.
B. The patient should be evaluated for latex allergy by skin testing.
A 76-year-old white man presents with painless hematemesis and hypotension. He has no previous Gl symptoms but did have resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 12 years previously. EGD shows no bleeding source in the stomach or duodenum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Aortoenteric fistula
C. Mallory-Weiss tear
D. Esophageal varices
E. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT)
F. Colon polyp
G. Adenocarcinoma of the colon
B. Aortoenteric fistula
A 70-year-old patient with chronic obstructive lung disease requires 2 L/min of nasal O 2 to treat his hypoxia, which is sometimes associated with angina. The patient develops pleuritic chest pain, fever, and purulent sputum. While using his oxygen at an increased flow of 5 L/min he becomes stuporous and develops a respiratory acidosis with CO 2 retention and worsening hypoxia. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Stop oxygen.
B. Begin medroxyprogesterone.
C. Intubate and begin mechanical ventilation.
D. Observe patient 24 hours before changing therapy.
E. Begin sodium bicarbonate
C. Intubate and begin mechanical ventilation.
A 17-year-old girl noted a 2-cm annular pink, scaly lesion on her back. Over the next 2 weeks she develops several smaller oval pink lesions with a fine collarette of scale. They seem to run in the body folds and mainly involve the trunk, although a few occur on the upper arms and thighs. There is no adenopathy and no oral lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea versicolor
B. Psoriasis
C. Lichen planus
D. Pityriasis rosea
E. Secondary syphilis
D. Pityriasis rosea
A 53-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with a minor injury and is found to have a blood pressure of 150/102, possibly elevated as a result of pain. On follow-up at your office, her BP on two occasions is 142/94 despite good dietary habits and reasonable exercise. Her history and physical are normal except that she has had a hysterectomy. Basic laboratory evaluation reveals no significant abnormalities. Based on recent recommendations of the JNC 7 (The Seventh Report of the Joint National Committee on Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Treatment of High Blood Pressure) which of the following is accurate information to give her?
A. At age >50, high diastolic BP becomes a more important cardiovascular risk factor than high systolic BP.
B. The new classification of prehypertension fits her latest BP readings; continue close follow-up.
C. Thiazide diuretics would be a good initial choice for her.
D. Initiating therapy with two antihypertensives would be preferred based on her current BP.
E. Estrogen-replacement therapy would be helpful in delaying her need for antihypertensives.
C. Thiazide diuretics would be a good initial choice for her.
A 72-year-old woman presents with poor coordination and frequent falls. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and uses alcohol modestly. She takes raloxifene for osteoporosis and a daily multiple vitamin. She has lost 10 pounds of weight over the past 6 weeks and notices some diminution of appetite. Her general physical examination shows evidence of mild temporal muscle wasting and diminished breath sounds over both lung fields. On neurological examination her strength, sensation (including vibratory sensation), and reflexes are normal. She walks with an uncoordinated unsteady gait. On testing of coordination in the upper extremities, she displays past pointing and poor rapid alternating movements. The findings are symmetrical. In the lower extremities, her heel-shin testing also reveals poor coordination symmetrically. What is the most likely cause of her condition?
A. Tumor in the right lobe of the cerebellum
B. Multiple small infarcts in the basal ganglia
C. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration
D. Alcohol abuse
E. Posterior column degeneration as a result of vitamin deficiency
C. Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration
A 35-year-old alcoholic man is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that radiates to the back. He has had several previous episodes of pancreatitis presenting with the same symptoms. Which of the following laboratory values suggests a poor prognosis in this patient?
A. Elevated serum lipase
B. Elevated serum amylase
C. Leukocytosis of 20,000/um
D. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 90 mm Hg
E. Heart rate of 100 beats/minute
C. Leukocytosis of 20,000/um
A 64-year-old African American man presents for evaluation of a painless “lump” in the left thigh. He first noticed the abnormality about 1 month previously and thinks it has increased in size; there is no prior history of trauma. On examination, you find a 5-cm soft tissue mass, firm to hard in consistency, in the soft tissue above the knee. There is no tenderness or erythema; the mass is deep to the subcutaneous tissue and appears fixed to the underlying musculature. Inguinal lymph nodes are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
A. Reexamine the lesion in 3 months, as it is probably a lipoma.
B. Obtain a bone scan.
C. Treat with cephalexin 500 mg po qid for presumed abscess
D. Refer the patient for surgical biopsy.
E. Aspirate the mass as it is probably a hematoma.
D. Refer the patient for surgical biopsy.
A 25-year-old female complains of watery rhinorrhea and pruritus of the eyes and nose that occurs around the same season each year. Symptoms are not exacerbated by weather changes, emotion, or irritants. She is on no medications and is not pregnant. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Her symptoms are likely produced by an IgE antibody against a specific allergen.
B. She has vasomotor rhinitis.
C. The patient’s nasal turbinates are likely to be very red.
D. Avoidance measures alone are almost always effective.
E. Decongestant nasal sprays can suppress her symptoms.
A. Her symptoms are likely produced by an IgE antibody against a specific allergen.
A 52-year-old man with cirrhosis resulting from chronic hepatitis C presents with increasing right upper quadrant pain, anorexia, and 15-Ib weight loss. The patient is mildly icteric and has moderate ascites. A friction rub is heard over the liver.
Abdominal paracentesis reveals blood-tinged fluid, and CT scan shows a 4-cm solid mass in the right lobe of the liver. Which of the following is the most important initial diagnostic study?
A. Serum a-fetoprotein level
B. Colonoscopy to search for a primary neoplasm
C. Measurement of hepatitis C viral RNA
D. Upper Gl endoscopy
E. Positron emission tomography scan
A. Serum a-fetoprotein level
A 65-year-old male inquires about the pneumonia vaccine. He had a friend who died of pneumonia. The patient is in good health without underlying disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
A. Recommend the pneumococcal vaccine and check on the status of other immunizations, particularly tetanus vaccination.
B. Inform the patient that he has no risk factors for pneumonia.
C. Report that the present pneumonia vaccine does not work.
D. Emphasize that the influenza vaccine is more important.
E. Give pneumonia vaccine and influenza vaccine 4 weeks apart.
A. Recommend the pneumococcal vaccine and check on the status of other immunizations, particularly tetanus vaccination.
A 32-year-old stockbroker sees you because she has felt anxious almost every day for the past 9 months. She feels “keyed up” at work. At times she has difficulty concentrating and has made several minor errors in clients’ accounts. For the past year she has frequently had trouble falling asleep at night despite the fact that she always feels tired. She does not fall asleep during the day at inopportune times. She takes supplemental calcium but no other medications. She denies substance or alcohol abuse. Her vital signs and physical examination are normal. CBC and chemistry panel are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Obstructive sleep apnea
E. Frontal lobe dementia
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
As part of a review of systems, a 55-year-old male describes an inability to achieve erection. The patient has mild diabetes and is on an ACE inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step in evaluation?
A. Penile Doppler ultrasound
B. Serum gonadotropin level
C. Information about libido and morning erections
D. Therapeutic trial of sildenafil
E. Nocturnal penile tumescence testing
C. Information about libido and morning erections
A 45-year-old woman has pain in her fingers on exposure to cold, arthralgias, and difficulty swallowing solid food. What is the best diagnostic test?
A. Rheumatoid factor
B. Antinucleolar antibody
C. ECG
D. BUN and creatinine
E. Reproduction of symptoms and findings by immersion of hands in cold water
B. Antinucleolar antibody
A 55-year-old type-2 diabetic patient has lost weight and has had good control of his blood glucose on oral metformin, with HgA1c of 6.4%. He has a history of mild hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Which of the following statements is correct regarding routine testing for diabetic patients?
A. Dilated eye examination twice yearly
B. 24-hour urine protein annually
C. Home fasting blood glucose measurement at least once per week
D. Urine microalbumin annually
E. Referral to neurologist for peripheral neuropathy evaluation
D. Urine microalbumin annually
A 42-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. On the third day of his hospitalization he becomes agitated and confused. He reports feeling “spiders” crawling on his skin. You note that he has a blood pressure of 172/94 mm Hg, heart rate of 107/minute, and temperature of 38°C (100.4°F). With the exception of agitation and tremor, the remainder of his physical examination is unchanged from earlier in the day. What is the best initial step in management of this patient?
A. Emergent noncontrast CT scan of the brain
B. Emergent administration of intravenous haloperidol
C. Emergent administration of intravenous lorazepam
D. Emergent administration of intravenous labetalol
E. Placement of physical restraints for patient safety
C. Emergent administration of intravenous lorazepam
A 60-year-old woman presents with complaints of pain during intercourse. She describes the pain as sharp and constant during sexual activity, and there is a lack of lubrication. This discomfort is very bothersome to her because she wishes to continue an active sex life. She underwent surgical menopause at age 44 due to uterine fibroids and heavy bleeding. She used oral estrogen until age 50; she has used no hormonal therapy since then. On physical examination you note significant urethral and vaginal atrophy. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
A. Commercial lubricant (K-Y lubricating jelly)
B. Oral estrogen
C. Vaginal estrogen preparation
D. Sildenafil
E. Topical antifungal therapy
C. Vaginal estrogen preparation
A 60-year-old white man has just moved to town and needs to establish care. He had a “heart attack” last year. Preferring a “natural” approach, he has been very conscientious about low-fat, low-cholesterol eating habits, and a significant exercise program. He has gradually eliminated a number of prescription medications (he does not recall their names) that he was on at the time of hospital discharge. Past history is negative for hypertension, diabetes, or smoking. The lipid profile you obtain shows the following:
* Total cholesterol: 194 mg/dL
* Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL
* HDL: 42
* ECG shows Q waves in lead II, II, and avE
Which of the following recommendations would most optimally treat his lipid status?
A. Continue current dietary efforts and exercise.
B. Add an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (statin drug) to reduce LDL cholesterol to less than 100.
C. Add a fibric acid derivative such as gemfibrozil.
D. Review previous medications and resume an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
E. Begin aspirin 81 mg daily.
E. Begin aspirin 81 mg daily.