4th set (final) Flashcards
(92 cards)
A 70-year-old white woman presents with LLQ abdominal pain, low-grade fever, and mild rectal bleeding. Examination shows LLQ tenderness.
Unprepped sigmoidoscopy reveals segmental inflammation beginning in the distal sigmoid colon through the mid-descending colon. The rest of the examination is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn disease
C. Ischemic colitis
D. Diverticulitis
E. Amebic colitis
F. Tuberculoma of the colon
C. Ischemic colitis
A 68-year-old male was intubated in the emergency room because of pulmonary edema. Stat echocardiogram reveals an ejection fraction of 45% and severe mitral regurgitation. In spite of aggressive diuresis with furosemide, the patient continues to require mechanical ventilation secondary to pulmonary edema. What is the best next step in treating this patient?
A. Arrange for mitral valve replacement surgery.
B. Place an intra-aortic balloon pump.
C. Begin metoprolol.
D. Begin a second loop diuretic.
E. Begin intravenous enalapril.
E. Begin intravenous enalapril.
Your patient is a 48-year-old Hispanic male with a 4-year history of diabetes mellitus type 2. He is currently utilizing NPH insulin/Regular insulin 40/20 units prior to breakfast and 20/10 units prior to supper. His supper time has become variable due to a new job and ranges from 5 to 8 PM. In reviewing his glucose diary you note some very low readings (40-60 mg/dL) during the past few weeks at 3 AM. When he awakens to urinate, he feels sweaty or jittery so has been checking a fingerstick blood glucose. Morning glucose levels following these episodes are always higher (200-250) than his average fasting glucose level (120-150). Which change in his insulin regimen is most likely to resolve this patient’s early AM hypoglycemic episodes?
A. Increase morning NPH and decrease evening NPH.
B. Decrease morning NPH and decrease evening regular insulin.
C. Change regimen to glargine at bedtime and continue morning and evening regular insulin.
D. Discontinue both NPH and regular insulin; implement sliding scale regular insulin with meals.
E. Change regimen to glargine at bedtime with lispro prior to each meal.
E. Change regimen to glargine at bedtime with lispro prior to each meal.
A 70-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease presents to the emergency department with 2 hours of substernal chest pressure, diaphoresis, and nausea. He reports difficulty “catching his breath.” An electrocardiogram shows septal T-wave inversion. The patient is given 325-mg aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin while awaiting the results of his blood work. His troponin I is 0.65 ng/mL (normal < 0.04 ng/mL). The physician in the emergency department starts the patient on low-molecular-weight heparin. His pain is 3/10. Blood pressure is currently 154/78 and heart rate is 72. You are asked to assume care of this patient. What is the best next step in management?
A. Arrange for emergent cardiac catheterization.
B. Begin intravenous thrombolytic therapy.
C. Admit the patient to a monitored cardiac bed and repeat cardiac enzymes and ECG in 6 hours.
D. Begin intravenous beta-blocker therapy.
E. Begin clopidogrel 300 mg po each day.
D. Begin intravenous beta-blocker therapy.
A 38-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of fever and confusion. She was previously healthy and is taking no medications. She has
not had diarrhea or rectal bleeding. She has a temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) and a blood pressure of 145/85. Splenomegaly is absent. She has no petechiae but does have evidence of early digital gangrene of the right second finger. Except for confusion the neurological examination is normal. Her laboratory studies reveal the following:
* Hemoglobin: 8.7
* Platelet count: 25,000
* Peripheral smear: numerous fragmented RBCs, few platelets
* LDH 562 (normal <180)
* Creatinine: 2.7
* Liver enzymes: normal
* Prothrombin time/PTT/fibrinogen level: normal
What is the most likely pathogenesis of her condition?
A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B. Antiplatelet antibodies
C. Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor multimers
D. Verotoxin-induced endothelial damage
E. Cirrhosis with sequestration of erythrocytes and platelets in the spleen
C. Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor multimers
A 48-year-old male is admitted to your service after an inhalational chemical exposure. He develops respiratory distress and requires endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. Which of the following is most likely to decrease his risk of developing ventilator acquired pneumonia?
A. Daily interruption of sedation to assess respiratory status
B. Nasopharyngeal rather than oropharyngeal endotracheal intubation
C. Institution of protocol to keep bed flat during ventilation
D. Intermittent nasopharyngeal suctioning
E. Prophylactic narrow spectrum intravenous antibiotics
A. Daily interruption of sedation to assess respiratory status
A 73-year-old female with arthritis presents with confusion. Neurologic examination is nonfocal, and CT of the head is normal. Laboratory data include
* Na: 140 mEq/L
* K: 3.0 mEq/L
* CI: 107 mEq/L
* HCO 3: 12 mEq/L
* Arterial blood gases: PO 2 62, PCO 2 24, pH 7.40
What is the acid-base disturbance?
A. Respiratory alkalosis with appropriate metabolic compensation
B. High anion-gap metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation
C. Combined metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
D. No acid-base disorder
E. Hyperchloremic (normal anion gap) metabolic acidosis with appropriate respiratory compensation
C. Combined metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
A 19-year-old man with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is taking 30 units of NPH insulin each morning and 15 units at night. Because of persistent morning glycosuria with some ketonuria, the evening dose is increased to 20 units. This worsens the morning glycosuria, and now moderate ketones are noted in urine. The patient complains of sweats and headaches at night. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Measure blood glucose levels at bedtime.
B. Increase the evening dose of NPH insulin further.
C. Add regular insulin to NPH at a ratio of 2/3 NPH to 1/3 regular.
D. Obtain blood sugar levels between 2:00 and 5:00 AM
E. Add lispro via a calculated scale to each meal; continue NPH.
D. Obtain blood sugar levels between 2:00 and 5:00 AM
A 30-year-old man is evaluated for a thyroid nodule. The patient reports that his father died from thyroid cancer and that a brother had a history of recurrent renal stones. Blood calcitonin concentration is 2000 pg/mL (normal is less than 100); serum calcium and phosphate levels are normal. The patient is referred to a thyroid surgeon. Which of the following studies should also be obtained?
A. Obtain a liver scan.
B. Measure parathormone level.
C. Measure urinary catecholamines.
D. Administer suppressive doses of thyroxine and measure levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone.
E. Treat the patient with radioactive iodine.
C. Measure urinary catecholamines.
A 30-year-old male complains of unilateral headaches. He was diagnosed with migraine headaches at age 24. The headaches did not respond to triptan therapy at that time, but after 6 weeks the headaches resolved. He has had 3 or 4 spells of severe headaches since then. Currently his headaches have been present for the past 2 weeks. The headaches start with a stabbing pain just below the right eye. Usually the affected eye feels “irritated” (reddened with increased lacrimation). He saw an optometrist during one of the episodes and a miotic pupil was noted.Each pain lasts from 60 to 90 minutes, but he may have several discrete episodes each day. The neurological examination, including cranial nerve examination, is now normal. What is your best approach to treatment at this time?
A. Prescribe oral sumatriptan for use at the onset of headache.
B. Prednisone 60 mg daily for 2 to 4 weeks.
C. Obtain MRI scan of the head with gadolinium contrast.
D. Begin propranolol 20 mg bid.
E. Refer for neuropsychiatric testing.
B. Prednisone 60 mg daily for 2 to 4 weeks.
A 64-year-old woman presents with diffuse hair loss. She says that her hair is “coming out by the handfuls” after shampooing. She was treated for severe community-acquired pneumonia 2 months ago but has regained her strength and is exercising regularly. She is taking no medications. Examination reveals diffuse hair loss. Several hairs can be removed by gentle tugging. The scalp is normal without scale or erythema. Her general examination is unremarkable; in particular, her vital signs are normal, she has no pallor or inflammatory synovitis, and her reflexes are normal with a normal relaxation phase. What is the best next step in her management?
A. Reassurance
B. Measurement of serum testosterone and DHEA-S levels
C. Topical minoxidil
D. Topical corticosteroids
E. CBC and antinuclear antibodies
Reassurance
You have been asked to see a 58-year-old male admitted to the ICU after coronary artery bypass surgery yesterday. He has no history of
diabetes, but his blood sugars have ranged from 59 to 225 over the past 24 hours. His nurse reports that he has been nauseated and ate very little of his clear liquid diet this morning. His current medications include “sliding scale” insulin, a beta-blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. What is the best next step in managing this patient’s blood sugar?
A. Begin metformin 500-mg po bid.
B. Begin scheduled subcutaneous long-acting insulin and scheduled short-acting insulin with meals.
C. Begin intravenous insulin drip.
D. Continue sliding scale insulin and make patient NPO until blood sugars stabilize.
E. Continue sliding scale and stop the beta-blocker as this may mask signs of hypoglycemia.
C. Begin intravenous insulin drip.
On routine physical examination, a 28-year-old woman is found to have a thyroid nodule. She denies pain, hoarseness, hemoptysis, or local symptoms. Serum TSH is normal. Which following is the best next step in evaluation?
A. Thyroid ultrasonography
B. Thyroid scan
C. Surgical resection
D. Fine needle aspiration of thyroid
E. No further evaluation
D. Fine needle aspiration of thyroid
A 73-year-old male undergoes abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Postoperatively, his blood pressure is 110/70, heart rate is 110, surgical wound is clean, and a Foley catheter is in place. His urine output drops to 40 cc/h, and creatinine rises from 1.5 to 2.2 mg/dL. Hemoglobin and hematocrit are stable, K 4.6, uric acid 8.2. Which initial diagnostic test is most useful for this patient?
A. Urine sodium/creatinine ratio
B. Urinalysis
C. Renal ultrasound
D. Urine uric acid/creatinine ratio
E. CT renal arteriogram
B. Urinalysis
A 32-year-old white woman complains of abdominal pain off and on since the age of 17. She notices abdominal bloating relieved by defecation as well as alternating diarrhea and constipation. She has no weight loss, Gl bleeding, or nocturnal diarrhea. On examination, she has slight LLQ tenderness and gaseous abdominal distension. Laboratory studies, including CBC, are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial approach?
A. Recommend increased dietary fiber, antispasmodics as needed, and follow-up examination in 2 months.
B. Refer to gastroenterologist for colonoscopy.
C. Obtain antiendomysial antibodies.
D. Order UGl series with small bowel follow-through.
E. Order small bowel biopsy.
A. Recommend increased dietary fiber, antispasmodics as needed, and follow-up examination in 2 months.
A 40-year-old man with long-standing alcohol abuse complains of abdominal swelling, which has been progressive over several months. He has a history of gastrointestinal bleeding. On physical examination, there are spider angiomas and palmar erythema. Abdominal collateral vessels are seen around the umbilicus. There is shifting dullness, and bulging flanks are noted. Which of the following is the most important first step in the patient’s evaluation?
A. Diagnostic paracentesis
B. Upper Gl series
C. Ethanol level
D. CT scan of the abdomen
E. Examination of peripheral blood smear
A. Diagnostic paracentesis
A 30-year-old male develops skin rash, pruritus, and mild wheezing about 20 minutes after an intravenous pyelogram performed for theevaluation of renal stone symptoms. Which of the following is the best approach to diagnosis of this patient?
A. Perform 24-hour urinary histamine measurement.
B. Measure immunoglobulin E to radiocontrast media.
C. Diagnose radiocontrast media sensitivity by history.
D. Recommend intradermal skin testing.
E. The patient cannot be exposed to iodinated contrast agents in the future.
C. Diagnose radiocontrast media sensitivity by history.
A 47-year-old premenopausal woman of Mediterranean descent presents with a painless breast mass. Her mother underwent a mastectomy at age 74 because of breast cancer. Her sister has had ovarian cysts but no cancer. There is no other cancer in the family. Biopsy of the mass reveals infiltrating ductal carcinoma. The patient has two daughters and asks about genetic testing. What is the most likely cause of her malignancy?
A. A germline mutation in the p53 suppressor gene
B. A germline mutation in the BRA1 gene
C. A somatic mutation in the BRCA1 gene
D. Exposure to a carcinogen such as diethylstilbestrol in utero
E. Unknown
E. Unknown
A 63-year-old retired farmer presents to the clinic complaining of red scaly spots on his head for the past 9 months. Physical examination is remarkable for numerous erythematous hyperkeratotic papules and plaques. The lesions are confined to the head and forehead and have poorly defined borders. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Punch biopsy of one of the lesions
B. Application of hydrocortisone cream to affected areas and follow-up in 4 weeks
C. Reassurance that this is a benign finding and follow-up in 6 months
D. Application of fluocinide cream to affected areas and follow-up in 4 weeks
E. Application of 5-fluorouracil cream to affected areas and follow-up in 4 weeks
E. Application of 5-fluorouracil cream to affected areas and follow-up in 4 weeks
A 50-year-old construction worker continues to have elevated blood pressure of 160/95 even after a third agent is added to his antihypertensive regimen. Physical examination is normal, electrolytes are normal, and the patient is taking no over-the-counter medications. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
A. Check pill count.
B. Evaluate for Cushing syndrome.
C. Check chest x-ray for coarctation of the aorta.
D. Obtain a renal angiogram.
E. Obtain an adrenal CT scan.
A. Check pill count.
A 72-year-old man presents with progressive abdominal pain over the last 2 days. He has had several loose stools, subjective fever, and decreased appetite. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, diet-controlled diabetes mellitus, and one admission to the hospital for heart failure 2 years ago. He takes a beta-blocker and loop diuretic faithfully as prescribed by his physician. Vital signs include heart rate 92 and blood pressure 126/64. Physical examination reveals mucosal stranding of the oropharynx, no JVD, no lower extremity edema, and tenderness to palpation of the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. CT scan with contrast of the abdomen has been ordered. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Administer low-dose aspirin for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism.
B. Administer low-dose low-molecular-weight heparin for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism.
C. Administer treatment dose of low-molecular-weight heparin for presumed ischemic colitis.
D. Administer 600-mg N-acetylcysteine for prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy.
E. Administer 150-mEq sodium bicarbonate in 1-L D5 water for prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy.
E. Administer 150-mEq sodium bicarbonate in 1-L D5 water for prevention of contrast-induced nephropathy.
A 32-year-old woman experiences a severe anaphylactic reaction following a sting from a hornet. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. She would not have a similar reaction to a sting from a yellow jacket.
B. She would have a prior history of an adverse reaction to an insect sting.
C. Adults are less likely to die as a result of an insect sting than children with the same history.
D. She should be skin-tested with venom antigens and, if positive, immunotherapy should be started.
E. She cannot use an epinephrine self-injector because of her age.
She should be skin-tested with venom antigens and, if positive, immunotherapy should be started.
A 78-year-old man complains of increasing fatigue and bone pain, especially around the knees and ankles. He has been anemic for several years, with hemoglobin of 9 to 10 g/dL and MCV of 102. His leukocyte and platelet count have been normal; he has not had lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly. He had not responded to therapeutic trials of iron and vitamin B 12, but has been symptomatically stable until the past month. Examination reveals pallor and spleen tip at the left costal margin. CBC reveals hemoglobin of 8.2 g/dL, but for the first time his platelet count is low (15,000); the white blood cell count is 14,000. What is the likely cause of his worsening anemia?
A. Folic acid deficiency
B. Acute myeloid leukemia
C. Myelofibrosis
D. Tuberculosis
E. Viral infection
B. Acute myeloid leukemia
A 60-year-old heavy smoker has severe chronic bronchitis, peripheral edema, and cyanosis. Which arterial blood gas and pH values are likely?
A. pH 7.50, PO2 75, PCO2 28
B. рН 7.14, РО2 78, PCO2 95
C. pH 7.06, PO2 36, PCO2 95
D. рН 7.06, РО2 108, PCO2 13
E. pH 7.37, P02 48, PCO2 54
E. pH 7.37, P02 48, PCO2 54