2P Tactics Exam

Question 1

When Flying with NVD in IMC, the primary flight reference shall be________. Positive radar Control _______ required.

Answer 1

an instrument scan / is not - NVD Manual Chpt 11/ CNAF 3710 Chpt 5

Question 2

The _____ air delivery ingress profile may keep the aircraft out of a small arms or IR threat WEZ for a longer period and may be a more efficient flight profile for extended range missions.

Answer 2

High-Low-High - ANTTP Figure 8-6

Question 3

Any crewmember, jumpmaster, or safety NCO may call a no drop after the one minute warning.

Answer 3

True - ANTTP 8-33

Question 4

Emission Option (EMCON) _____ is the desired standard for day-to-day TAAR.

Answer 4

2 - ANTTP 2-4

Question 5

At or above 20,000 feet to 24,999 feet, prebreathing time is _____ minutes when conducting a HALO/HAHO drop for _____ aboard the aircraft.

Answer 5

30 / All personnel - ANTTP 8-8

Question 6

For ALZ operations, a minimum of _____ feet is required for runway width and taxiways should be no less than _____ wide.

Answer 6

60 / 40 - ANTTP 6-5

Question 7

During maximum effort takeoff, accelerate on the runway to Vr, and then pull the nose up at ______ per second to the target pitch attitude.

Answer 7

5 degrees - NATOPS Chapt 7

Question 8

During ADGR, the in-flight refueling para-drogues _____ be used on the ground and adaptors _____ required.

Answer 8

May / Are - ANTTP Chapt 7

Question 9

Loading / downloading of ordnance and fueling shall be conducted as separate evolutions.

Answer 9

False

Question 10

Types of illumination flares deliverable from the KC-130 include the _____ and the _____ .

Answer 10

LUU-2B/B, LUU-19/B, LUU-19A/B, LUU-19B/B

Question 11

When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-radar display, the system gives TCAS information higher priority.

Answer 11

False

Question 12

Heavy Equipment airdrops must be accomplished from aircraft with an operable dual rail system, and the load must weigh no less than _____ pounds and no more than _____ pounds.

Answer 12

2,520 / 42,000

Question 13

JPADS-rigged containers require separation of _____ seconds.

Answer 13

3

Question 14

Sensed Winds are always used on the active leg, even if a different wind is loaded on the PERF INIT CRUISE page.

Answer 14

True

Question 15

For airdrops less than 2,000 feet above PI elevation, CARP VERT will appear in the HUD when the aircraft altitude is _____ feet above the drop altitude or _____ percent below the AGL drop altitude (to a minimum of 50 feet).

Answer 15

200 / 10

Question 16

During HAAR, a flashing light from the tanker observer to an engaged receiver means:

Answer 16

the tanker is experiencing a malfunction

Question 17

For HAAR RV Delta, the tanker should arrive abeam the ARIP _____ minutes prior to the ARCT.

Answer 17

3

Question 18

The maximum allowable extending/retracting/engaging airspeed for low-speed drogues is _____ KIAS, while the maximum airspeed with reveiver engaged is _____ KIAS.

Answer 18

120 / 130

Question 19

Closure rate above _____ knots on a known dead or poorly responding hose can lead to large sine wave formation.

Answer 19

2

Question 20

The 20 and 10 minute advisories in the CNI-MU are based

Answer 20

Entered TOT on CARP or CNI-computed time to CARP when TOT has not been entered.

Question 21

the CNI will continually update the ballistic wind and adjust the CARP until

Answer 21

10 seconds prior to the CARP

Question 22

the HUD activates unusual attitude recovery mode at

Answer 22

> 65 degrees AOB, 30 degrees Nose up, 20 Nose down

Question 23

TCAS is capable of tracking a total of 45 transponder-equipped targets, with boundary limits approximately _____ nm off the nose, _____ nm either side of the aircraft, and ____ nm off the tail.

Answer 23

40 / 15 / 12

Question 24

Illumination level of 0.0022 LUX is LLL

Answer 24

False

Question 25

The minimum ignition altitude for the LUU-2 B/B is _____ feet and LUU-19 B/B is _____ feet.

Answer 25

2,500 / 3,000

Question 26

The TAWS low density yellow color depiction is used to display terrain separation

Answer 26

250 feet below to 1,000 feet above current altitude

Question 27

Recovery fuel is either 6,000 pounds overhead destination or the sum of alternate (if required), approach and landing, and ____ fuel, whichever is greater.

Answer 27

holding

Question 28

Enemy interceptors, optical tracking systems, and small arms are at their optimum efficiency during

Answer 28

day VMC

Question 29

Bulleye calls are utilized to pass location information between aircrews, other aircraft, and C2 assets and shall only be passed on secure communication nets.

Answer 29

False

Question 30

When designing an IPRA, the initial fix (IF) must be _____ to _____ nm from the Finaly Approach Fix (FAF).

Answer 30

5 / 15

Question 31

AMFLMETO is the distance required to accelerate on all engines to critical engine failure speed, experience an engine failure, then in the same distance either stop or accelerate to liftoff at or above Vmca and _____.

Answer 31

the three-engine minimum liftoff speed

Question 32

A _____ -knot tolerance is applied to the check speed to determine the minimum acceptable airspeed when conducting acceleration check times.

Answer 32

3

Question 33

Maximum Effort threshold speeds are

Answer 33

1.1Vs + 5.5

Question 34

For fixed wing receivers on drogue equipped tankers with refueling observers, the _____ position is defined as stepped down, aft of the tanker wingline, and one receiver wingspan outboard or the tanker wingtip.

Answer 34

Echelon

Question 35

The tilt rotor rendezvous procedure utilizing an en route, overtanking method is RV _____.

Answer 35

Golf

Question 36

Cruise formations are defined as those with a nose to tail separation of ____ to ____ feet withing 500 feet vertically.

Answer 36

20 / 3,000

Question 37

Every exterior light has a normal and covert IR operation mode, except the

Answer 37

Leading Edge Light

Question 38

Assault support requests (ASR's) are assigned based on the following precedence levels:

Answer 38

Emergency, Urgent, Priority, Routine

Question 39

The LASER Infrared Countermeasure system installed on the KC-130J is the

Answer 39

AN/AAQ-24

Question 40

With the low speed drogue extended, the AR pod can provide refueling up to _____ feet.

Answer 40

10,000

Question 41

Formation Takeoff Interval is _____ seconds or the preceding aircraft breaking the deck, whichever occurs first

Answer 41

15

Question 42

Low-Altitude Tactics (LAT) is the briefed intent to conduct tactical flight where terrain avoidance is a significant factor and further defined as intent to fly below _____ feet AGL

Answer 42

500

Question 43

Unless otherwise assigned, aircraft should sqwuak _____ on SR MTRs

Answer 43

1200

Question 44

For Long-range overwater navigation with an alternate required, fuel required to proceed to the alternate should be calculated using _____ KTAS at 10,000 feet MSL for alternates withing 200nm.

Answer 44

245

Question 45

A high-speed zoom climb (without flaps) should results in an altitude gain of ____ to _____ feet.

Answer 45

2,000 / 2,500

Question 46

To provide an accurate top of descent (TOD) point for an IR-cooled descent, one should ____ the descent angle on the PERF DESCENT page to an anticipated tailwind.

Answer 46

subtract from

Question 47

The Drop altitude on CARP INIT 4/5 should be ____ and is a/an _____ altitude base on the ____ altimeter setting.

Answer 47

small front / MSL / pilots

Question 48

_____ is the minimal standardized airfield marking pattern.

Answer 48

AMP-3

Question 49

The Maximum wright for the ramp pallet position is ____ lbs.

Answer 49

4,664