Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Medical Microbiology > 2SCT > Flashcards

2SCT Flashcards

1
Q

Mention four E. coli pathogenetic groups involved in enteric diseases!

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
Enterotoxic E. coli (ETEC)
Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) Enteroaggregative E. coli (EAggEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the most important extraintestinal infections caused by E. coli? Mention at least 3 of them!

A

urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, nosocomial wound infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most frequent causative agent of urinary tract infections is:

A

Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which 2 diseases are caused by E. coli O157:H7?

A

hemorrhagic colitis +/- HUS (hemolytic uraemic syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the reservoir of Salmonella typhi?

A

humans (with disease, or healthy carriers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which bacteria cause most frequently typhoid fever and enteric fever, respectively?

A

Salmonella typhi (typhoid)
Salmonella paratyphi A, B, C (enteric fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When typhoid fever is suspected, what kinds of clinical samples should be used to isolate the causative agent in the first 2 weeks of the disease?

A

Blood, (bone marrow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the route of infection in Salmonella gastroenteritis?

A

Ingestion of contaminated food (such as eggs, cream, mayonnaise, creamed foods, etc.) containing a sufficient number of Salmonella.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which antibacterial drugs should be administered in gastroenteritis caused by Salmonella?

A

Antibiotics are usually contraindicated unless the infection is generalised. In case of extraintestinal infection (very young, very old or immunosuppressed patients): ampicillin, gentamicin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, third generation cephalosporins, or ciprofloxacin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List the 4 Shigella species causing human disease!

A

Shigella dysenteriae, S. flexneri, S. boydii, S. sonnei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mention 2 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae, (Shigella flexneri, Shigella boydii, Shigella sonnei), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that cause enteritis or enterocolitis!

A

Campylobacter jejuni, Escherichia coli, Salmonella enteritidis, Shigella, Yersinia enterocolitica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the modes of transmission for the 2 different epidemiologic forms of plague?

A
  • Bubonic plague is transmitted by the bite of infected rat fleas from rats to humans.
  • Primary pneumonic plague spreads directly from human to human via respiratory droplets.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the possible portals of entry of Francisella tularensis? Specify at least 4!

A

tick bite, conjunctiva, skin abrasions, resp. tract, gastroint. tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do humans acquire brucellosis? Where do the bacteria replicate in the human body?

A

Via contaminated milk products or through skin abrasions (contact with animals). Organisms spread to the mononuclear phagocytes of the reticuloendothelial system (lymph nodes, liver, spleen, bone marrow).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the reservoirs of the different Brucella species, respectively?

A

B. abortus: cattle
B. melitensis: goat, sheep B. suis: swine
(B. canis: dog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cholera toxin?

A

Cholera toxin activates the adenylate cyclase enzyme in cells of the intestinal mucosa leading to increased levels of intracellular cAMP, and the secretion of large amount of water, Na+, K+, Cl-, and HCO3- into the lumen of the small intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the principle of the treatment for cholera?

A

Rapid intravenous or oral replacement of the lost fluid and ions. In severe cases: administration of tetracycline (in addition to rehydration).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Mention 4 diseases caused by Haemophilus influenzae!

A

purulent meningitis
epiglottitis (obstructive laryngitis)
otitis media and sinusitis
pneumonia
(cellulitis, arthritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which disease is caused by Haemophilus ducreyi?

A

Chancroid (soft chancre or ulcus molle), which is an STD (sexually transmitted disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mention 4 diseases that are frequently caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa!

A

urinary tract infections, wound infections (burns), otitis externa, pneumonia, sepsis (immunosupression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mention at least 3 drugs which may be effective to treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa!

A

certain penicillins: piperacillin/tazobactam combination
a 3rd generation cephalosporin: ceftazidim
a 4th generation cephalosporin: cefepime certain aminoglycosides: gentamycin, amikacin carbapenems: imipenem, meropenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the frequent sources of infection for Legionella pneumophila?

A

air conditioners, water taps, showers, evaporators, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which 2 diseases are caused by Legionella pneumophila?

A
  • legionellosis, legionnairs’ disease (atypical pneumonia) - Pontiac fever (mild, flu like illness without pneumonia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
List 3 important virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis!
pertussis toxin, filamentous hemagglutinin, adenylate-cyclase toxin, tracheal cytotoxin
26
What is the precise definition of bacterial food poisoning?
Acute disease, usually with vomiting and diarrhea, usually caused by preformed toxins produced by bacteria contaminating the food. The period between consumption of food and the appearance of symptoms is short (< 4-6 hours).
27
Mention 3 bacterium species causing food poisoning!
Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium botulinum
28
Which bacterium has the highest germ number in the colon?
Bacteroides fragilis
29
Mention 4 bacterial genera that are obligate anaerobes!
Clostridium, Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Fusobacterium, Actinomyces, Bifidobacterium, Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium
30
Which is the most important gas gangrene Clostridium? What is its main virulence factor?
Clostridium perfringens alpha-toxin (lecithinase)
31
Mention 3 Clostridium species causing gas gangrene! How are they acquired?
Clostridium perfringens, C. novyi, C. septicum, C. histolyticum, C. tertium, C. bifermentans, C. sporogenes The site of infection is usually a wound that comes into contact with Clostridium spores that germinate in an anaerobic environment.
32
How can be tetanus prevented in patients who have wounds possibly contaminated with C. tetani spores?
tetanus injection, tetanus immunoglobulin (TETIG) in previously unvaccinated patients
33
What are the main symptoms of tetanus? Specify at least 3!
Spastic paralysis: muscle spasms; respiratory paralysis
34
What is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin?
Blocks release of acetylcholine in peripheral nerve synapses;
35
What are the main symptoms of botulism? Specify at least 3!
diplopia (double vision), dysphagia (difficulty to swallow), dysphonia,
36
What kind of therapy is used to treat botulism?
Treatment: respiratory support + trivalent antitoxin
37
Explain whether or not antibiotic treatment is useful in botulism!
Not, because antibiotics are not effective against preformed toxins.
38
Mention at least 2 drugs that can be used to treat diseases caused by Clostridioides difficile!
vancomycin, metronidazole, fidaxomicin
39
What diseases may be associated with Helicobacter pylori? Specify at least 3!
Gastritis, peptic and duodenal ulcers, gastric carcinoma, MALT lymphoma
40
What is the most important virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
Diphtheria toxin
41
What is the mechanism of action of the diphtheria toxin?
Inhibits protein synthesis. Inhibits peptide elongation in eukaryotic ribosomes by ADP ribosylation of EF-2 (elongation factor-2)
42
How long does immunity against diphtheria exist?
Which immune effector mechanism is involved? long lasting immunity; antitoxic antibodies
43
Which assays must be performed in the laboratory diagnosis of diphtheria?
Smears of the throat swab should be stained with methylene blue or Neisser stain; bacteria are cultured on Löffler’s or tellurite (Clauberg) medium; toxin production must be demonstrated by agar precipitation ( ELEK-test)
44
What are the 2 main forms of leprosy?
Tuberculoid (paucibacillary) or lepromatous (multibacillary) form
45
Mention 3 Gram-negative bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis!
Brucella, Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis, Pasteurella
46
Mention 2 Gram-positive bacteria belonging to different genera causing zoonosis!
listeria monocytogenes, Bacillus anthracis, Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
47
Mention 3 bacterial species belonging to different genera that are frequent causes of urinary tract infections!
E. coli, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas aeruginosa
48
Mention one aerobic and one anaerobic bacterium of the normal flora of the skin!
aerobic: Staphylococcus epidermidis anaerobic: Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium) acnes
49
Give two genera for each category of bacteria! Gram positive aerobic: Gram positive anaerobic:
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Bacillus, Corynebacterium Clostridium, Actinomyces, Propionibacterium
50
Give two genera for each category of bacteria! Gram negativ aerobic: Gram negativ anaerobic:
Vibrio, Neisseria, Haemophilus Bacteroides, Prevotella, Porphyromonas, Veillonella
51
Give 2 genera for each category of bacteria! Gram positive coccus: Gram negative coccus: Gram positive rod:
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus Neisseria, Veillonella Clostridium, Bacillus
52
Give 2 genera for each category of bacteria! Gram negative rod: Spirochetes:
E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira
53
Describe the color and the shape of Clostridia in a Gram stained smear of gas gangrene exudate!
Gram positive (dark blue) rod (it usually does not form spores in vivo)
54
Mention 2 antibiotics which can be used in the empirical treatment against Gram negative obligate anaerobic bacteria!
Metronidazol, amoxicillin + clavulanic acid
55
Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of neonatal (< 1 month of age) meningitis?
Streptococcus agalactiae, E. coli, Listeria monocytogenes
56
Which 3 bacterial species are the most important causative agents of meningitis among babies (> 1 month of age) and children?
Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
57
What is the empirical antibiotic therapy of bacterial meningitis?
ceftriaxone / cefotaxime
58
What is the causative agent of febris undulans (undulant fever)?
Brucellae
59
What are the main manifestations in early (primary and secondary) syphilis?
Primary syphilis: nontender ulcer (hard chancre) Secondary lesions: maculopapular rash on skin, and condylomata lata on mucous membranes
60
What are the main manifestations in late (tertiary) syphilis?
Granulomas
61
When syphilis is diagnosed in the laboratory, which antigens are used in the non- treponemal and in the specific treponemal antibody tests, respectively?
Non-treponemal antibody tests: cardiolipin Specific treponemal antibody tests: antigens originating from Treponema pallidum or whole bacterial cells of Treponema pallidum
62
Which are the two different groups of serological tests used in the diagnosis of syphilis? Give 2 examples for both groups of tests!
Non-treponemal tests: RPR, VDRL Specific treponemal tests: ELISA, Western blot
63
What is the advantage and disadvantage of the specific (treponemal) syphilis serologic tests compared to the nonspecific (nontreponemal) test?
Specific (treponemal) tests are more specific than the nontreponemal tests, but they can not be used to follow the efficacy of treatment (because the specific antibodies persist even after effective eradication of bacteria).
64
What is the drug of first choice in the treatment of syphilis?
penicillin G
65
What is the reservoir and what is the vector for Borrelia recurrentis?
Reservoir: human; vector: louse
66
What is used for the laboratory diagnosis of relapsing fever?
Direct demonstration of bacteria from peripheral blood smear by microscopy (Giemsa stain or dark field illumination)
67
What is the causative agent of Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
68
Mention 2 antibacterial drugs that are of first choice in early stage Lyme disease!
Doxycycline, amoxicillin
69
What is the first characteristic manifestation in the early phase of Lyme disease?
Erythema (chronicum) migrans
70
Which manifestations are characteristic for the late phases of Lyme disease?
Arthritis, cardiac manifestations (myocarditis, pericarditis) and neurological involvement (meningitis, peripheral neuropathies)
71
What is the reservoir of Leptospira interrogans?
rodents, household animals (dog, swine etc.)
72
Mention 2 obligate intracellular bacterial genuses!
Rickettsia, Chlamydia, (Coxiella, Ehrlichia)
73
Mention 4 bacteria causing atypical pneumonia!
Chlamydia pneumoniae Chlamydia psittaci Mycoplasma pneumonia Legionella pneumophila
74
Which two diseases are caused by Rickettsia prowazekii?
Louse-borne epidemic typhus Recurrent form: Brill-Zinsser disease
75
Mention an antibacterial drug active against rickettsial infections!
Tetracycline
76
What is the reservoir and the vector of Rickettsia prowazekii infections?
reservoir: human; vector: louse
77
What is the reservoir and the vector of Rickettsia typhi infections?
reservoir: rodents; vector: flea
78
What is the causative agent of epidemic typhus?
Rickettsia prowazekii
79
What is the causative agent of endemic typhus?
Rickettsia typhi
80
How can be Chlamydiae and Rickettsiae cultivated?
These are obligate intracellular bacteria, can be cultured in experimental animals, embryonated eggs, and cell culture
81
Mention an antibacterial drug active against chlamydial infections!
Tetracycline
82
List the serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis and the diseases caused by them!
Types A, B and C: trachoma (chronic conjunctivitis) Types D-K: genital tract infections (NGU, PID), inclusion conjunctivitis Types L1-L3: lymphogranuloma venereum (STD)
83
Mention an antibacterial drug effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections!
tetracycline
84
Why are penicillins not effective against Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections?
Because of the absence of a cell wall, penicillins are ineffective (penicillins inhibit cell wall synthesis)
85
Mention 4 bacteria frequently causing sexually transmitted diseases (STD)!
Treponema pallidum, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Haemophilus ducreyi, Chlamydia trachomatis, (Calymmatobacterium granulomatis)
86
Which bacterial species can cause hepatitis (jaundice)?
Leptospira interrogans
87
Mention 2 bacteria causing aseptic (serous) meningitis!
Treponema pallidum, Leptospira interrogans
88
Mention a bacterial pathogen which eludes the host immune response by frequent antigenic changes!
Borrelia recurrentis
89
What is the causative agent of febris recurrens (recurrent fever)?
Borrelia recurrentis

Medical Microbiology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions