3/2022 737 Systems Study Guide Flashcards
What will cause the emergency exit lights to illuminate when armed?
Loss of AC power OR loss of DC Bus 1
Are there any limitations on an aircraft with retractable landing lights?
There is no speed restriction for operation of the lights.
What do each of the exterior lights illuminate?
*Where are they and what do they do
Landing Lights (wing root) - shines straight ahead
Taxi - (nose or wing root) - shines straight ahead
Runway Turnoff - shine out at 45 degree angle (not forward facing)
Logo (on the tail) - Chester
Strobe (wings and tail) - strobe lights
Anti-collision (belly and roof) - red beacon
Position (wingtips) - nav lights
Wing lights (fuselage) - illuminates leading edge of the wing for inspection Wheel well (nose and main wheel wells) - illuminates wheel wells
When is 100% supplied to the flight deck oxygen masks?
Any time the switch is in position
NORM = 100% on demand
EMERGENCY = 100% with positive pressure (continuous flow)
*What triggers the MASTER CAUTION (amber) lights? What triggers the associated System Annunciator lights?
MASTER CAUTION = caution outside pilots’ normal field of view
What causes the MASTER CAUTION and System Annunciators to Extinguish?
A Master Caution Reset (pushing the light)
A Master Caution Reset is accomplished by pushing either MASTER CAUTION light. This resets the Master Caution System and results in
- Both MASTER CAUTION lights extinguishing
- All system annunciator lights extinguishing, and
- The Master Caution System is reset for further cautions
The caution light on the overhead panel remains illuminated until the caution condition no longer exists (except for single / simple faults)
What is the difference between single and dual channel systems? How are system indications different for single channel vs dual channel systems?
Dual channel = redundancy within system
Single channel = no redundancy within system
Dual channel system loses a single channel? No caution light, only found by recall and is stored in the Master Caution system - it won’t tell you!
Single channel system fails? You will have an annunciator - it will tell you!
What is the light logic of the aircraft?
RED = Immediate
AMBER = Timely
Dim blue = Status light (correct position)
Bright blue = Status light (in transition or disagreement)
Dark aircraft concept - normal conditions in flight = no lights (mostly)
How are the 6 Flight Deck windows different from each other? Which ones open?
On both sides, #1 and #2 are heated. #2 opens. #3 not heated and does not open. FO side #2 window opens from the outside.
What is the Flight Deck Access System (FDAS), and how does it operate?
Provides flight crew with full control of the flight deck door during normal operations.
- Automatically locks under DC power
- Manual control with deadbolt and FDAS switch
- Emergency code for access in case of pilot incapacitation
How is the Passenger Oxygen system actuated and how long does it supply oxygen?
Automatically - cabin pressure of 14,000ft
Manually - PASS OXYGEN switch ON
12 minute supply of oxygen
Which systems can pressurize the Potable Water System and what conditions must be met for it to operate?
Bleed air from engines or APU
OR if insufficient bleed air, an AC electric compressor IF:
- pressure in the water tank is less than 30 psig (pressure limit switch is closed)
- water service panel door is closed (compressor cut-out switch is closed)
- CAB/UTIL switch ON
Do the FAs have control of the Emergency lights? What priority do they have, if any?
Yes, they can override cockpit switch
Works even if flight deck switch is OFF or failure of automatic control with loss of power.
Where are the water fire extinguishers and halon fire extinguishers?
Water fire extinguishers - Passenger cabin only
Halon fire extinguishers:
- 1 behind FO seat mounted to CB panel
- 2 in pax cabin (1 forward, 1 aft, see fig 74) *2 in pax cabin required for dispatch
What do the fire extinguishers contain, and what kind of fires are they effective on?
Water fire extinguisher
- Contains water mixed with antifreeze
- Effective on class A fires only (wood, fabric, paper, etc) Halon fire extinguisher
- Contains 2.5 lbs of Halon at 100psi nitrogen charge
- can be used for all types of fires, but primarily class A+B electrical, fuel, and grease fires
How are the fire extinguishers pressurized, and how can you tell they are serviceable?
Water - pressurized by Co2 cartridge, trigger is safety wired
Halon - pressurized by nitrogen, gauge in green and pin in with red tie indicates it’s serviceable
What causes the overwing emergency exits to lock?
The overwing exit locks engage when:
- Minimum 3 of 4 entry/service doors closed AND
- Either engine running AND
- Airborne OR thrust levers advanced
Any of the above conditions not met or loss of DC power? Unlocked
What do the Emergency Exit Lights illuminate, and how are they powered? Activated?
Illuminate approved emergency exit routes (inside cabin) and evacuation areas (exterior)
- Powered by battery packs charged by AC power and the EMR EXIT Lights switch in OFF or Armed
- Activated manually by switch ON or automatically with loss of AC power or power to DC Bus 1
What sources supply air to the bleed air (pneumatic) system?
Engines, APU, or an external pneumatic air cart/source (on the ground)
What systems rely on bleed (pneumatic) air for operation?
Air Conditioning/Pressurization
Wing Thermal Anti-Icing
Engine Thermal Anti-Icing (respective engine bleed air) Engine Starting
Hydraulic Reservoir Pressurization
Water Tank Pressurization
Nitrogen Generation
What is the purpose of the Engine Bleed Air Valve, and how is it operated?
Acts as a pressure regulator and shutoff valve
*DC controlled, pneumatically actuated
Automatically closes when fire handle pulled & during engine start (isolate and ventilate)
What is the purpose of the Precooler System?
Precools the air
What causes Bleed Trip Sensors to automatically close the Engine Bleed Air Valve?
Overheat or overpressure.
Associated with a Master Caution and AIR COND annunciator.
How is the bleed trip condition reset?
Push the TRIP RESET switch
(Condition must no longer exist for a successful reset).
What do the WING-BODY OVERHEAT, BLEED TRIP OFF, and DUAL BLEED amber lights on the Bleed Air Panel indicate? What causes these lights to illuminate?
WING-BODY OVERHEAT = leak in a critical area air duct (no reset possible)
BLEED TRIP OFF = overheat or overpressure (TRIP RESET possible)
DUAL BLEED = indicates APU bleed valve is open and
- engine #1 bleed switch is on, or
- engine #2 bleed switch is on and isolation valve is open
What is the purpose of the APU Bleed Air Valve, and how is it operated?
To provide bleed air to the left duct. *DC controlled, pneumatically operated.
What is the purpose of the Isolation Valve?
The Isolation Valve isolates the left and right bleed air ducts during normal operations, when in the closed position.
What do the Isolation Valve positions CLOSE, OPEN, and AUTO do?
*opens when any L/R pack or L/R engine bleed turned OFF (four corner switches)
CLOSE = forces valve closed, isolating L & R bleed air ducts OPEN = forces valve open, allowing flow between L & R AUTO = valve will be closed when
- Both engine bleed are switched are ON and
- Both Air Conditioning PACK switches are in AUTO or HIGH
**How do the Engine BLEED Air or Air Conditioning PACK switches impact operation of the Isolation Valve?
Turning any engine bleed air switch or pack switch OFF will OPEN the valve
*Isolation valve position is not affected by the APU BLEED AIR Switch
Where is the external pneumatic air connection located?
Located on the right side of the aircraft (immediately aft of the right landing light) underneath a quick release access panel.
What is the path of conditioned air from an external (ground) source?
Pre-conditioned ground air enters directly into the mixing manifold downstream of the packs.
When connected to external air, which position should the PACK switches be in?
OFF - with external air connected, packs must be OFF (limitation)
Leaving packs on will reduce efficiency of external cart. Flight deck controls are ineffective for external preconditioned air.
What is the primary source of conditioned air to the Flight Deck? To the passenger cabin?
Flight Deck = Left pack
Pax Cabin = Right pack and some left pack air through mix manifold
How is the forward cargo compartment heated?
Exhaust air from the equipment cooling fans
How is the the aft cargo compartment heated?
Aft cargo is unheated.
What do the PACK amber lights on the Bleed Air Panel indicate? What causes these lights to illuminate?
PACK (with MC/AIR COND) = overheat condition OR fault of both primary and secondary controllers (TRIP RESET possible)
PACK (on recall only) = failure of primary OR standby controller
What happens with the Master Caution light during a failure of Primary pack control? Standby pack control?
Nothing - single failure is only shown in recall
Both fail? MASTER CAUTION and AIR COND annunciator with PACK light
A single pack in high flow mode can maintain pressurization and comfort up to what altitude?
41,000 ft
Explain the auto logic for high airflow during normal operations and with a pack or engine failure.
In AUTO: Pack fails or engine fails? Automatically goes into HIGH with the flaps up
What controls pack temperature control?
Zone that needs the most cooling is what decides what the packs do, then the Trim Air System regulates the other 2 zones
What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?
Reduces demand on the bleed air system and recirculates air.
RIGHT recirc fan takes air from holes in floor and runs it to mix manifold
LEFT recirc fan takes in air from the air conditioning distribution compartment
What is the purpose of the Equipment Cooling System?
Cools electronic equipment in the Flight Deck and the E/E bay.
Smoke removal (drives to full open and allows smoke to escape)
Heats FWD cargo compartment (keeps the puppies warm)
What does the EQUIP COOLING OFF (amber) light indicate?
loss of airflow due to the failure of the respective Equipment Cooling Fan.
(Checklist will lead you to use alternate fan)
What causes the AUTO FAIL and OFF SCHED DESCENT amber lights to illuminate?
AUTO FAIL = primary controller has failed
OFF SCHED DESCENT
Aircraft begins to descend without having reached the preset cruise altitude.
always set lower altitude before descending will extinguish if you return to altitude or set lower altitude
How does the primary heat exchanger lower the bleed air temperature?
Ram air lowers the bleed air temperature. Insufficient ram air flow is augmented with an induction impeller driven by an extension of the air cycle machine (ACM) shaft.
What is indicated by a bright blue RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light? Dim blue? Extinguished?
RAM DOOR FULL OPEN = Ram door full open
Dim blue = never
Extinguished = closed or modulating ram airflow
What do the ALTN (green) light and MANUAL (green) light on the Cabin Pressurization panel indicate?
ALTN - Alternate pressurization mode is on and active
MANUAL - manual pressurization mode, selected by mode switch
What causes the ALTN(green) and MAUNUAL(green) lights to illuminate?
ALTN - manually selected or main CPC unit has failed (AUTO FAIL is illuminated)
MANUAL - mode selected to manual pressurization
What does the Pressurization Mode Selector do?
Selects Cabin Pressure Controller mode
Describe the 3 temperature control zones.
CONT CAB - flight deck
FWD CAB - forward cabin
AFT CAB - aft cabin
What happens with the Master Caution light when ZONE TEMP illuminates?
Master caution (AIR COND) illuminates
What is the purpose of the Mix Manifold?
Mixes recirculated air with conditioned air from the packs
On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, what do the FLT ALT indicator and LAND ALT indicator display?
FLT ALT - scheduled cruise altitude
LAND ALT - altitude of intended landing field
*What are indications and impact of a Cabin Pressurization panel failure?
Display 8888888 or all dashes
8888888 = panel is still operating with pressurization control ———– = panel is no longer operating (Dashes = trash)
What is indicated by the CABIN ALTITUDE (red) light and the Cabin Altitude Warning Horn? How can this horn be silenced?
CABIN ALTITUDE = cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft +/- 1000
Silenced with ALT HORN CUTOUT switch, located on the overhead panel
What are the components of the rain removal system on the 737-800?
Windshield wipers and hydrophobic rain repellent coating on #1 windows
Which external probes, vanes, ports, antennas, etc. are electrically heated?
Anything that sticks out and has a light on the overhead Heated anytime engine(s) are running (dark unless malfunction):
CAPT/FO PITOT
L/R ELEV PITOT
L/R ALPHA VANE
TEMP PROBE
AUX PITOT
We turn switch ON after start to match the condition (even though they’re already hot - we cannot turn them off)
Which Flight Deck windows are heated?
1 and #2 (both sides)
What causes the ON (green) lights and OVERHEAT (amber) lights to illuminate and extinguish?
ON = power is being applied to the respective window. The light will extinguish if:
- Overheat condition = OVERHEAT + MC/ANTI-ICE
- Switch turned OFF
- Failure in system
OVERHEAT = overheat condition for respective window (power is removed automatically and cannot be reset until cooled) OR electrical power has been interrupted.
The light will extinguish if overheat or power condition is corrected (if power is removed, you must recycle switch to get power back)
What does the Engine Anti-Ice System protect from icing?
The engine cowl lip.
How is heat provided for engine anti-ice?
5th and 9th stage bleed air off the respective engine.
*if you close an engine bleed air valve you will still have anti-ice
When should the engine anti-ice system be on? What is affected by it being on?
Controlled by ENG ANTI-ICE switches, ON or OFF on the ground and in flight in icing conditions (+10 TAT to -40 SAT with visible moisture, and/or visibility less than 1sm) in climb and cruise, During descent in visible moisture even when temp is below -40 SAT .
FMC and EEC monitor the status of the switches. Increase engine idle and stall speed when switch is on.
What is the logic associated with ENG ANT-ICE positioned to ON?
COWL VALVE OPEN - Cowl anti-ice valve opens
TAI (Thermal Anti-Icing) displayed above N1 indication (EECs command approach idle) Sets stall warning for icing conditions (while switch is ON)
What does a COWL ANTI-ICE (amber) light indicate?
overpressure within the cowl lip
The ANTI-ICE annunciator and MASTER CAUTION lights will also illuminate.
When does the COWL ANTI-ICE illuminate/extinguish?
COWL ANTI-ICE = overpressure (greater than 65 psi) in the duct leading from the Cowl Anti-Ice Valve to the cowl lip.
Extinguishes when condition no longer exists/valve is closed?
What does a COWL VALVE OPEN bright blue light indicate? Dim blue? Extinguished?
Bright Blue = the valve is in transit or disagrees with the ENG ANTI-ICE switch position
Dim Blue = the valve is open with the ENG ANTI-ICE switch ON
The light is extinguished when the valve is closed and the switch is OFF
What does an amber TAI indication above the engine N1 gauge mean? A green TAI?
TAI = the valve fails to move to the position selected by the ENG ANTI-ICE switch TAI = the valve is open with the ENG ANTI-ICE switch ON
With TAI on, the EEC changes flight idle to approach idle
What does the Wing Anti-Ice System protect from icing?
3 inboard slats only
How is heat provided for wing anti-ice?
Bleed air
How does the WING ANTI-ICE system operate?
The WING ANTI-ICE switch controls the wing anti-ice control valve Valve open = bleed air flows to slats then is exhausted overboard
What is the ground/flight logic associated with WING ANT-ICE positioned to ON? Off? What does it do to stall speed?
Stall speed increased for the rest of the flight
On the ground (shouldn’t be used on ground anyways) lower overheat temp threshold, thrust lever advancement will turn them off
How is wing anti-ice operation/logic different for ground ops vs in-flight?
On ground: valves open IF:
Thrust is below config warning position (60 degrees)
Temp inside ducts is less than thermal activation temperature (125 degrees))
valves close IF:
- Either engine thrust is above config warning position (53 degrees)
- An overheat
In the air:
- Valves open
- Stick shaker logic is for icing conditions
What does a Wing Anti-Ice L or R VALVE OPEN bright blue light indicate? Dim blue? Extinguished?
Bright Blue = in transit or disagree
Dim blue = switch on (valve agrees with switch)
Extinguished = switch off (valve agrees with switch)
With the PROBE HEAT switches in AUTO, under what conditions will heat be applied to probes?
After first engine start
What do CAPT PITOT, L/R ELEV PITOT, L/R ALPHA VANE, TEMP PROBE, and AUX PITOT amber lights indicate?
When do they illuminate/extinguish?
Electrical power not provided to prospective sensor
Illuminate with a fault/failure, extinguish when operating normally
Normally, the A/T is controlled automatically by which system to fly an optimized lateral and vertical flight path through climb, cruise and descent?
LEFT FMC
How can the A\P be disengaged?
Pushing either A/P disengage switch
Engaging electric trim on yoke
Pushing CMD button
Column or wheel force override
Pushing the A/P disengage bar down
…also TO/GA W/ single channel approach engaged below 2,000 or any alt with flaps extended and GS engaged
With both FCC MA lights illuminated, how are the F/Ds being operated?
Independently - each FCC is controlling modes for related F/D Used during takeoff and during approaches
What does an amber CWS R above the attitude indicator mean?
ROLL mode - will hold bank angle - we do not use CWS Will show above attitude indicator
From left to right, what are the three flight mode annunciations displayed above the attitude indicator?
AUTOTHROTTLE - ROLL - PITCH
When will LNAV automatically disconnect?
Reaching end of route or discontinuity or not a valid TO waypoint
Intercepting an approach in APP or VOR/LOC
HDG mode
Loss of capture criteria (See engagement criteria, 3 nm, 90 deg. etc)
What happens when deviating by 200ft or more from the selected altitude?
Momentary ALT tone, flashing ALT box
If you are outside of 3NM of the active route segment, how will LNAV engage?
Intercept course of 90 degrees or less
Going to intercept the route PRIOR to waypoint
Which FMA annunciation indicates that power has been removed from the auto throttle servos during takeoff?
THR HOLD will occur at 84 knots
What is the initial pitch attitude that the F/D will command after TO/GA is selected on a two-engine go around?
Single-engine go-around?
15 degrees nose up
13 degrees
On a go-around with the auto throttle armed, after the second push of either TO/GA switch, the thrust levers advance to ______.
Full G/A N1 Limit from EEC, provided to FMC, provided to autothrottles (bucking bronco mode)
One click = reduced G/A mode - roughly 1000-2000fpm
If windshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go around, what does the F/D pitch command bar command?
The F/D pitch command bar provides commands to maintain “target speed” until vertical decreases to approximately +600 fpm, then it commands 15 degrees nose up, then respects the PLIs
follow the flight director
After localizer and glideslope capture, what will exit the APP mode?
TO/GA or
Cycling FDs or
Swapping nav frequencies
Except for when APP mode is engaged, selecting the non-operating A/P will do what?
Engages the other A/P (Cannot have two at once unless in APP mode)
What mode will the A/T be in during a V/S descent?
MCP SPD
Autothrottles try to maintain speed in MCP window at selected VS rate, but its not guaranteed to hold that speed
What does the STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light indicate?
STAB OUT OF TRIM = the autopilot is not trimming the stabilizer properly A/P will stay engaged
With the pitch mode in MCP SPD, how is aircraft speed controlled?
Manually with the speed knob on MCP
The bank angle selector sets maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in which roll modes?
HDG SEL
VOR/LOC
Is the PA system available on battery power?
Yes! Powered on Battery Bus
Where are the audio systems for the flight deck located?
Physical radios are located in the E&E compartment
What is the purpose of the ALT-NORM switch on the ACP?
Allows use of radio in the event of a malfunction
Hardwires ACP1 to VHF1 and ACP2 to VHF2, ACP3 to VHF1
NORM-ACP = operating normally
ALT-ACP = operates in degraded mode (if you’re both in alternate, you will not get any aural callouts (GPWS, etc))
The Push-To-Talk switch, when toggled, transmits on which transmitter?
Whatever is selected
What does the Service Interphone switch do?
Connect external headset jacks on the airplane (on the aft overhead panel)
What does the VHF TEST switch do?
Removes Auto squelch feature - allowing background noise and potentially aiding reception of weak signals
What is the indication of tuning the offside Radio Tuning Panel (RTP)?
Offside Tuning (White) Light = indicates radio usually associated with that panel is being tuned by another RTP or vice versa
What failure messages display on the RTPs, and what do they mean?
FAIL/FAIL = the selected radio has failed
PANEL/ FAIL = panel has failed
What considerations should be made before keying the HF radio on the ground?
Do not key the HF Radio while the aircraft is being fueled/defueled. Injury to personnel or fire may result. Aft service doors should be closed.
What is the priority of source selection in the data mode?
VHF
—> SAT PHONE
——–> HF
What is the notification of an incoming SAT phone call?
aural chime - select ANSWER on SAT menu on CDU
How is communication established using the oxygen mask?
select MASK and SPKR on ACP (mask will activate speaker)
How can the flight deck alert the ground crew?
GRD CALL switch (overhead panel) sounds horn in nose wheel well.
How can a PA be made? Which ACP, hand mic, or interphone has priority?
Can use PA handset or standard microphone and related ACP (boom, oxymask, handheld mic)
Flight Deck has highest priority overall
- hand mic overrides ACP within the flight deck
What does the ATTEND button do?
two tone chime (bing bong!) in the pax cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights.
What does a SELCAL reset button do and when is it used?
extinguishes and resets the SELCAL light, used after a call RESET otherwise you cannot use it or receive another SELCAL
What does the STANDBY PWR switch do and when would you expect it to be used?
Controls Standby Buses:
AUTO - switches to battery power if AC power is lost
BAT - hardwires to battery
OFF - removes power from AC standby and DC standby buses (battery power removed with battery switch)
Expect it to be used in the even of a total AC power loss (engines + APU)
How is DC power supplied?
TRs (Transformer Rectifier (TR) Units - 3)
Batteries (main and aux)
How is AC power supplied?
IDGs
APU
External power
What are the basic principles of operation for the 737 Electrical system?
No paralleling of AC power sources
When a source of power is connected, it disconnects an existing source
Under normal conditions how is the AC Standby Bus powered by? The DC Standby Bus is powered by?
AC Transfer Bus 1 powers AC Standby Bus
TR1 OR TR2 or TR3 powers DC Standby Bus
What does the Static Inverter do?
Converts DC to AC
*What is the Cross Bus Tie Relay and what does it do?
isolates the DC buses
OPENS when BUS TRANS switch turned to OFF or,
automatically during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS approach
Normally CLOSED in cruise flight (allows any TR to power DC buses)
What protection, if any, is available if the APU is still powering both transfer buses after an aircraft takes off?
Automatic Generator On-line system
Would throw both generators on the bus if you took off with the APU running and it fails or gets turned off
What does the BUS TRANSFER switch do?
Allows for the automatic operation of the bus transfer system
AUTO - allows Bus Tie Breakers BTB’s to operate automatically to maintain power to the AC transfer buses
OFF - isolates AC buses if one IDG is powering the system
Through the Bus Transfer system, how can the transfer buses be powered?
Any combination of sources except external power and APU
What triggers the STANDBY PWR OFF Light?
Turning the STANDBY POWER switch OFF
OR
AC Standby Bus, DC Standby Bus, Battery BUS not powered
Which Display Units are available if all generators are inoperative (Standby Power)?
Captain PFD & ND
Upper Display Unit (N1, N2, etc)
What does the BAT Switch do?
ON: powers the Battery Bus, Switched Hot Battery Bus & Standby buses (HOT battery bus is always powered)
What does an ELEC (amber) light indicate? On the ground and airborne?
ELEC = a fault exists in the DC Power System or Standby Power System.
You won’t get ELEC in the air and it is non-dispatchable
What does an illuminated BAT DISCHARGE (amber) light indicate? When could you expect to see it?
BAT DISCHARGE = main OR aux battery is discharging
Current draw for either battery is greater than:
- 5 amps for 95 seconds
- 15 amps for 25 seconds, or
- 100 amps for 1.2 seconds
*we might not need to know these numbers - just know its discharging for a preset amount of time
What is the TR Unit light logic?
What do the Generator DRIVE lights indicate?
Drive is NOT producing power to the system
What happens when an IDG is decoupled?
Physically disconnects
(If done with the switch can only be reset on the ground by maintenance)
(If auto decoupled for high oil temp (182°C) IDG must be removed/replaced from the aircraft by maintenance)
How is the electrical system designed to work with a single generator in operation?
Single generator will load shed and provide power to essential and some non essential loads (you’ll lose Main and Galley buses sheds them off transfer bus 2 then transfer bus 1 if necessary, then IFE unless you supplement with the APU)
What does the GEN OFF BUS light indicate?
The generator is OFF THE BUS - not supplying power to the transfer bus
What does the APU GEN OFF BUS light indicate?
The APU is OFF THE BUS and operating above 95% RPM
What does the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light indicate?
Ground power is connected and within limits
What is the purpose of the Electronic Engine Control (EEC)?
- N1 thrust limits
- Redline protection: N1 & N2 overboost and EGT protection during ground starting only
- Minimum Idle power settings
Above the N1 on the upper display indicator is a REV indicator. What is the color logic of this indication?
REV(amber) = Reverser sleeve moves from the stowed position (in transit or disagree)
REV(green) = Thrust reverser is deployed properly & can be raised to detent 2
How do you display the Fuel Used?
Fuel Flow Switch spring loaded to Rate —> Used
USED position displays fuel used since last reset, and after 10 seconds the display will automatically revert to fuel flow
What is indicated by the ENGINE CONTROL light?
Illuminates when the EEC detects faults in the Engine Control System that are not dispatchable. The light is functional when all of the conditions listed below:
- a no dispatch engine fault occurs
- engine is operating (N2 is greater than 50% with start lever in IDLE)
- aircraft on ground:
• groundspeed is below 80 kts prior to takeoff
• approximately 30 seconds after touchdown
With the ENGINE CONTROL light illuminated is it dispatchable?
NO
Which light(s) indicate the EECs are in Normal Mode?
ON (white)
What indicates an EGT exceedance after engine shutdown?
Red Box around the EGT digital readout
How is a hot start indicated during ground starting?
Flashing white EGT value
Which position(s) does a start switch need to be in for both igniters to activate in case of an engine flameout?
ANY position
The EECs provide redline protection for which parameters?
N1 and N2 and EGT(on ground only during start)
EECs will abort an engine start for which start malfunctions?
All start malfunctions (on the ground) except a failure of the start valve (START annunciator will stay ON)
What causes the ENG FAIL alert on the N2?
4
Below 50% N2 and Engine Start Lever is in the IDLE position
What does the APU provide?
Auxiliary AC power source & bleed air for engine starting and air conditioning
What powers the APU Electronic Control Unit?
Battery
Switched Hot Battery Bus
*Turning the Battery Switch to OFF will shut down the APU
How long must you wait before turning the battery off after the APU is shut down?
2 minutes
Will the APU start without battery power?
NO
What indicates a thrust reverser malfunction?
REVERSER and ENG and MASTER CAUTION
What causes a REVERSER light?
REVERSER = on while stowing (should go out within 10 seconds)
Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than approximately 12 seconds, a malfunction has occurred and the ENG annunciator and MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate.
With an EEC light in ALTN, thrust lever not in IDLE, what mode is the EEC in?
ON and ALTN on = soft alternate mode
What does an illuminated Master FIRE WARN (red) light indicate? What causes it to illuminate?
FIRE (Engine, APU, Lower Cargo, Wheel Well) or TEST
Light Extinguished by pushing light or using BELL CUTOUT switch
What does an illuminated Engine Overheat (amber) light indicate? What causes it to illuminate? Extinguish?
an overheat condition, The temperature of a detector has increased to a predetermined limit.
Temperature drops below the predetermined limit - COOLS OFF
How many engine fire extinguisher bottles are there?
2 total
Can fire extinguisher bottles be discharged into both engines, or only the respective engine?
2 bottles total - 2 OR 1 discharges into one engine
What does pulling the engine fire switch do?
Lighter colors panels on overhead
Just think ISOLATE & VENTILATE and affects those panels
B - Bleed valve closes
R - Reverser disabled
G - Generator tripped
H - Hydraulic valve closes
F - Fuel valves close (engine fuel valve & spar valve)
S - Squibs & Switch (squib armed & switch able to be turned)
What does rotating the engine fire switch do?
Electronically “fires” a squib, discharging the extinguishing agent into the related engine. Rotating the switch the other way discharges the remaining bottle.
How many detector loops does each engine have?
2 loops
What are the indications of a single loop failure?
No flight deck indication of a single loop failure
What are the indications of a dual loop failure?
FAULT light (with OVHT DET switch in NORMAL)
What does an illuminated FAULT (amber) light indicate? What causes it to illuminate, extinguish?
Dual loop failure (with OVHT DET switch in NORMAL) A or B loop failure (with switch in associated position)
The fault detection loops detects a fault
Doesn’t extinguish
What does an illuminated Engine Fire (red) Switch indicate?
A fire (or a test)
handle is unlocked when lit
What are the components of the APU Fire Extinguishing system?
APU Fire switch
Single APU Fire bottle APU bottle discharge light
How many fire extinguisher bottles does the APU fire extinguishing system have?
ONE
What does pulling the APU Fire (red) switch up do?
Rotating the switch?
Fires the APU squib into the APU
GBFISH
G - generator tripped
B - bleed valve closed
F - fuel deactivated
I - inlet door closed
S - squib armed
H - handle unlocked
auto shutdown should have occurred, but this will happen anyways if you pull the handle up
Rotating = Fires the APU squib into the APU
Where is the APU Fire Protection Panel located, and what does it do?
RIGHT main wheel well. Same stuff as in the flight deck.
What are the components of the Main Wheel Well Fire Protection system?
Fire detection (only) and a single fire loop in the wheel well
What does an illuminated WHEEL WELL (red) light indicate?
Extinguish?
Indicates temp has exceeded predetermined limit
Extinguish = Temperature decreases below onset temp
What are the components of the Lower Cargo Fire Protection system?
Smoke detectors
2 fire extinguisher bottles
- First bottle discharges for 60 min
- Second bottle discharges for 135 additional min to maintain the level of halon in the compartment
What does an illuminated DETECTOR FAULT (amber) light indicate?
FAULT in one or more of the detectors
An illuminated Cargo Fire FWD/AFT (red) light?
One detector in each loop has detected smoke (they agree)
The FAULT/INOP and OVHT/FIRE TEST switch, when in the FAULT/INOP position, tests what? When in the OVHT/FIRE position?
FAULT/INOP = Testing the fault detection circuitry
OVHT/FIRE TEST = Testing the fire detection circuitry
How does placing a FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD affect the flight control panel lights?
STBY RUD ON light illuminates
Arms STBY HYD LOW PRESSURE light
Respective flight control light extinguishes If B system, will illuminate
How would a single channel failure of the Speed Trim system be indicated?
SPEED TRIM FAIL light during recall only
STS uses two FCCs (dual channel) - so you won’t get an indication unless both FCCs are incapable of providing the STS function
How would a single channel failure of the Mach Trim system be indicated?
MACH TRIM FAIL during recall only
Through the use of the Alternate Flaps UP/DOWN switch, how are the Leading Edge Devices and Trailing Edge Flaps operated?
LE devices are hydraulic using standby system and cannot be retracted Trailing edge flaps revert to electrical operation (very slow)
What protections are provided during an alternate flap extension?
3
No protections - you lose asymmetry and skew protections + more
What is the purpose of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light on the main panel, below the Trailing Edge Flaps indicator?
LE FLAPS TRANSIT - in transit or disagree with scheduled position
AND during alternate flaps extension until LE devices are fully extended and TE flaps reach 15
When will the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light illuminate?
in flight - SPEED BRAKE lever beyond the ARMED position with TE Flaps extended more than Flaps 10 OR radio altitude less than 800 ft
on the ground - Speed brake panels still out with the handle stowed (disagree)
NOTE: On the ground, the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light does not illuminate when Hydraulic System A pressure is less than 750 psi.
What is the light logic on the Leading Edge Devices annunciator panel on the Aft Overhead?
Position status of individual LE flaps/slats
GREEN = position
YELLOW = in transit
EXTINGUISHED = retracted
If both Capt and FO pitot tubes are inoperative (damaged/blocked), how is airspeed provided?
Standby airspeed indicator
What directly provides inertial position and track data to the associated FMC?
ADIRUs - Air Data Inertial Reference Units
Failure flags are used to display system failures on which displays?
PFD’s, NDs, ISFDs
What indicates maximum operating speed?
Top red barber pole
Pushing STD on the EFIS control panel does what?
Sets standard baro 29.92
Flight path angle is available on the PFD through use of what? How is it toggled ON/OFF?
Flight Path Vector (FPV) Indication via the FPV switch on the EFIS control panel
The location of the PFD, ND, and Engine Instrument displays may be moved using switches on what panel?
Display Select Panel.
What are the standby instruments?
Magnetic compass
ISFD or,
Standby attitude indicator
Standby altimeter and airspeed indicator Standby RMI
Can the Integrated Standby Flight Display operate separate from the electrical system?
Yes.
The Battery Pack provides power to the ISFD when power from the Battery Bus is not available.
If the outboard display fails, is automatic switching available? If so, where is the PFD displayed?
Yes - displayed on the inboard display unit
How are maneuver speeds indicated?
Amber band —— = Guarantees 15° of bank before buffet
Between upper and lower amber band - Guarantees 40° of bank before buffet Maximum Maneuvering speeds: bottom of amber band with flaps up Minimum Maneuvering speeds: top of amber band
How are airspeeds bugged if the FMCs are INOP?
The SPD REF Selector (Outer Knob)
When do the Pitch Limit Indicators populate?
When flaps are extended, OR
High AOA, approaching stick shaker
The Expanded Localizer Scale is used to clue a pilot to localizer deviation. What parameters cause the expanded scale to populate?
- Autopilot or FD is in LOC mode
- Deviation is slightly more than one half dot, and
- Track is within 5 degrees of the MCP-selected course
What is the logic of the Landing Altitude Indication (amber) on the PFD?
Indicates the airport elevation at departure point until 400nm or halfway to your destination
Using the VSD, how would you know that you will achieve a target speed within a certain distance?
A green dot indicates where the aircraft will achieve the FMC or MCP target speed at point shown on VSD.
“range to target speed indicator”
On the VSD, gates are provided at altitudes along an approach path?
500ft (amber) and 1000ft (white) above touchdown zone elevation
What causes the Altitude Disagree Alert, and where is it annunciated?
CAs & FOs altitude indications disagree by more than 200ft for more than 5 continuous seconds. ALT DISAGREE will display on both PFDs
What causes the Airspeed Disagree Alert and where is it populated?
CAs & FOs airspeed indications disagree by more than 5 kts for 5 continuous seconds. IAS DISAGREE will display on both PFDs airspeed tape.
AOA integrity is monitored by comparing left and right AOA values. How much disagree causes a disagree alert?
More than 10 degrees for more than 10 continuous seconds.
AOA DISAGREE will display on both PFDs.
What information do the IRSs provide?
Attitude, heading and position information (including groundspeed)
Are the IRS dependent on, or independent of, external navigation aids?
Independent
How is the GPS activated and what does it provide data for?
GPS is always on when aircraft is powered.
It provides an accurate aircraft geographical position to the FMC and other aircraft systems. GPS operation is automatic.
With the FMC SOURCE select switch in NORMAL, which FMC is primary and what does it control?
L FMC is PRIMARY and provides information for CDUs and autothrottles
When does an ALIGN (white) light illuminate steady?
when the respective IRS is operating in either the:
- ALIGN mode
- initial ATT mode, or
- shutdown cycle
What does a flashing ALIGN light (white) on the IRS panel during preflight indicate?
When alignment cannot be completed (Fault) due to IRS detection of:
- significant difference between previous and entered positions or an unreasonable present position entry (Gross error), or
- no present position entry
If IRS AC power has failed, how long can the right IRS operate?
5 minutes then you’ll still have 60 min on the left IRS
You would see an ON DC light
If a system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV modes has been detected, what indication will you get?
FAULT light
What will happen if both ON DC lights (amber) lights illuminate?
Both systems automatically switch to backup DC power from the Switched Hot Battery Bus
After 5 minutes, right IRS will be powered off and left will stay powered for 60 minutes
What could cause the call horn in the nose wheel well to sound while the aircraft is on the ground?
IRS is on battery power alerting that a battery drain condition exists
If position information while programming the FMC CDU on the ground is contradictory, what indication, if any, will alert the crew to this?
Flashing white ALIGN light
How is fueling and defueling accomplished?
At the single-point pressure fueling station in the right wing. Don’t need power on airplane to fuel (hot battery bus item)
What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed valve?
Any tank to any engine
With all pumps operating, which tank fuel is burned first?
Center fuel is burnt first (these pumps have a higher output pressure)
Then respective main tank fuel is burnt
What ensures center tank fuel is used before other tanks?
The Center Tank Pumps have a higher output pressure.
Can the APU suction feed fuel? From which tank?
Yes, from Main Tank No. 1
What causes the Center Tank Fuel Scavenge Jet Pump to activate?
A float valve when fuel in Main Tank 1 drops below 4500lbs.
What is the light logic of the Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light?
VALVE OPEN (Bright Blue) = in transit or disagree
VALVE OPEN (Dim Blue) = valve is open with selector open
Light goes out when the selector and switch are both closed.
What causes an IMBAL (amber) alert, and where do you see it?
IMBAL = more than 1000lb imbalance between tanks 1 & 2 for more than 60 sec
What causes a CONFIG (amber) alert, and where do you see it?
When either Eng is running, Center pumps are off and more than 1600lbs in Center Tank. UPPER DU.
Extra Knowledge - remains until Both Eng shutdown or less than 800lbs in Center Tank. OR you turn pumps on.
What causes a fuel LOW (amber) alert, and where is it indicated?
less than 2,000lbs in respective tanks for greater than 30 seconds.
Where is the Nitrogen Generation System indicator?
Main Wheel well adjacent to the APU Fire Control Panel.
With the loss of AC powered fuel pumps, how is fuel provided to the engine?
A suction feed line to main tanks that bypasses the pumps.
No center tank fuel with loss of AC power
What is the logic of the center tank fuel pumps?
10 sec after continuous LOW PRESSURE indicated - FUEL annunciator/ MASTER CAUTION
15 sec after continuous LOW PRESSURE indicated - Pump Shuts OFF.
When the switch is moved to off the shutoff logic resets.
What does the Engine Start Lever control? What occurs in each position?
ENG VALVE & SPAR VALVE
CUTOFF - ENG VALVE & SPAR VALVE(dim blue) = closed
MOVE TO IDLE - ENG VALVE & SPAR VALVE(bright blue) = in transit
IDLE - LIGHT EXTINGUISHED - ENG VALVE & SPAR VALVE(extinguished) = open
What do the ENG VALVE CLOSED and SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights indicate? What is their light logic?
Dim Blue = ENG VALVE & SPAR VALVE closed
Bright Blue = ENG VALVE & SPAR VALVE in transit
Extinguished = ENG VALVE & SPAR VALVE open
How many hydraulic systems are there? What are they called?
3,
A, B, Standby
What is the normal hydraulic pressure range?
3000 psi +/- 200 psi, max 3500
What is the purpose of the PTU? When would it operate?
Provide Hydraulic System B pressure sufficient to provide normal rates of operation for the Autoslats and Leading Edge Devices (LED) in the event the Hydraulic System B Engine-Driven Pump output pressure drops
Failure of Sys B
What are components specific to the Hydraulic System A?
Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator and Elevator Feel, Flight Spoilers (Two on Each Wing), Ground Spoilers, Alternate Brakes, No. 1 Thrust Reverser, Autopilot A, Normal NWS, Landing Gear, Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
What are components specific to the Hydraulic System A?
Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator and Elevator Feel, Flight Spoilers (Two on Each Wing), Ground Spoilers, Alternate Brakes, No. 1 Thrust Reverser, Autopilot A, Normal NWS, Landing Gear, Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
What are components specific to the Hydraulic System B?
Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator and Elevator Feel, Flight Spoilers (Two on Each Wing), Leading Edge Flaps and Slats, Normal Brakes, No. 2 Thrust Reverser, Autopilot B, Alternate NWS, Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU), Autoslats, Yaw Damper, Trailing Edge Flaps
What does positioning a FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD do? looking for the logic
Activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump
Deactivates FLT CONTROL low pressure light
Arms STBY hydraulic low pressure light
What is the light logic when positioning a FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD?
Illuminates STBY RUD ON, FLT CONT annunciator, and MASTER CAUTION lights
What would cause the automatic operation of the Standby Hydraulic System?
Loss of A and/or B with flaps extended with wheel speed greater than 60 kts
Loss of A and/or B with flaps extended airborne
OR:
The main PCU Force Flight Monitor (FFM) trips
STBY SYSTEM
-rudder
-thrust reversers
UNLESS you arm the Alternate Flaps and put the LE devices down
During normal operations, what could cause variations in hydraulic quantity indications?
High demand on the system
What would indicate a hydraulic system requires a refill? When would you see this annunciation, and where is it located?
quantity BELOW 76%, will show 30 seconds of flaps retracted on the ground. (Picture is wrong)
What pressurizes the Hydraulic System A & B reservoirs?
Regulated bleed air
When is the Standby HYD LOW QUANTITY (amber) light armed? When would it illuminate?
It’s always armed.
When the standby reservoir is below 50%
What does a LOW PRESSURE (amber) light indicate? OVERHEAT (amber) light?
LOW PRESSURE = indicate the respective pump output pressure is low.
OVERHEAT = an overheat condition is detected in the respective system.
Under normal conditions, which hydraulic system operates the landing gear?
A
Which hydraulic system(s) can pressurize the parking brake?
A or B during normal operations
If the #1 engine fails, is the hydraulic capability of system A greatly reduced? How is the gear raised at a normal rate to maintain climb performance?
Yes, raised via the landing gear transfer valve (LGTV)
B fluid transfers to A system to raise the gear (one way only)
How can the gear be lowered without hydraulic pressure? Can it be raised without hydraulic pressure? When is the landing gear lever locked? Can it be overridden?
Lowered by manual gear extension - releases uplocks and gravity falls
No, it needs HYD PRESS to be raised.
Landing gear lever is locked on the ground - can be overridden by the lever lock override trigger
When must RTO be selected? When is RTO braking available?
RTO must be selected prior to 60 kts wheel speed
RTO is available after 90 kts wheel speed (activates with thrust levers idle)
What could cause the ANTISKID INOP (amber) light to illuminate?
ANTISKID INOP = Fault in anti skid monitoring system or parking brake system
What do the red and green position lights on the forward landing gear panel indicate?
RED = gear unsafe or disagree (in transit)
GREEN = down and locked
What is the purpose of the aft overhead panel Supplemental Landing Gear indicator lights?
Redundancy
ONE green light = gear is down and locked
Is the Alternate Brake system capable of applying auto brakes?
NO, but anti skid is still available
What protects the aircraft from loose tread or foreign object debris in the main wheel well during landing gear retraction?
Frangible Fitting Valve (when impacted, relieves hyd pressure and drops the affected gear back down)
How is nose wheel steering powered?
Powered by A or B, activated with weight on wheels
If normal and alternate brake pressure is lost, how is braking accomplished? Are there any limitations?
By the brake accumulator - up to 6 applications, or 8 hours of parking brake engaged (you still have anti-skid)
What does a Parking Brake Warning (red) light indicate?
Parking brake set with adequate hydraulic pressure.
What does dotted green terrain display on the navigation display indicate? Amber? Red? Magenta?
RED - More than 2,000ft above
YELLOW - Terrain 500ft (250 w/ gear) to 2,000ft above GREEN - Terrain from 500ft (250 w/ gear) to 2,000ft below MAGENTA - No terrain data available
For takeoff, when does the PWS activate if the WXR switch is not selected ON during taxi?
Thrust lever angle advanced above 53 degrees and 12 seconds after (takes that long to initialize)
The predictive windshear (PWS) alert area extends how far?
3 NM ahead
30 degrees either side of course
What triggers a “WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural alert?
Predictive Windshear Ahead Warning
Windshear close to and directly ahead of the aircraft detected by the weather radar.
Predictive windshear - function of radar
- Active on takeoff and approach
- Activated by turning WXR ON or advancing TLs above 53 degrees TLA
- 12 second delay before active
- Cautions inhibited over 80kts/below 400ft (not on test)
- Warnings inhibited over 100kts/below 50ft (not on test)
- Requires visible moisture or particulate to work
- Works out to 3nm and 30 degrees of course on either side
“WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”
Caution: visual WINDSHEAR on ND outside your flightpath Warning: visual WINDSHEAR on ND on your flightpath
What are TCAS traffic advisory TA symbols? Resolution Advisory RA symbols?
Amber dot
Red box
When are TCAS RAs inhibited?
below 1000ft, goes to TA ONLY
Pushing the TERR Display select switch shows what (in expanded MAP)? What does it remove?
Shows terrain data and removes weather radar display.
What does dotted Green terrain display on the Navigation Display indicate?
Terrain 2000’ below to 500’ (250’ with gear down) below the aircraft’s current altitude.
What does an amber elevation under TERR on the Navigation Display indicate?
Terrain elevation which is between 500’ below and 2000’ above the aircraft altitude.
