3. Drug Interactions Flashcards

(139 cards)

1
Q

Concomitant use of benzodiazepines and opioids may result in ___, ___, ___, and death d/t additive effects

A

profound sedation, respiratory depression, coma, and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which drugs have concern for chelation and should be separated from polyvalent cations or other drugs with binding properties (e.g. antacids, multivitamins, sucralfate, bile acid resins, Al, Ca, Fe, Mg, Zinc, phosphate binders)

A

Quinolones, tetracyclines, levothyroxine, and oral bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CYP___ metabolizes ~34% of all CYP450 drug substrates

A

3A4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the active metabolite of capecitabine?

A

Fluorouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the active metabolite of clopidogrel?

A

Active metabolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the active metabolite of Codeine?

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the active metabolite of colistimethate?

A

Colistin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the active metabolite of coristone?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the active metabolite of Famciclovir?

A

Penciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the active metabolite of fosphenytoin?

A

Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the active metabolite of isavuconazonium sulfate?

A

Isavuconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the active metabolite of levodopa?

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the active metabolite of Lisdexamfetamine?

A

Dextroamphetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the active metabolite of Prednisone?

A

Prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the active metabolite of Primidone?

A

Phenobarbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the active metabolite of Tramadol?

A

active metabolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the active metabolite of Valacyclovir?

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the active metabolite of valganciclovir?

A

ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Codeine is metabolized by ____. What is the risk of use in pts who are ultrametabolizers (UM)?

A

2D6
Risk of toxicity (rapid conversion to morphine) - do not use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Codeine is metabolized by ____. What is the risk of use in pts who are poor metabolizers (PMs)?

A

2D6
Risk of poor analgesia effect - use alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Clopidogrel is metabolized by ____. What is the risk of use with inhibitors? Give 2 examples

A

2C19
Inhibitors will block conversion to active form - do NOT use with CYP2C19 inhibitors, including omeprazole and esomeprazole (can decrease antiplatelet effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clopidogrel is metabolized by ____. What is the risk of use in pts who are poor metabolizers (PMs)?

A

2C19
Lower conversion to active form, reduced antiplatelet activity - use alternative P2Y12 inhibitor in pts who are PM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are CYP450 enzymes involved in phase I or phase II reactions?

A

Phase IW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are some examples of phase II enzymes?

A

Uridine diphosphate glucuronosyltransferase (UGT)
N-acetyltransferase (NAT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
___ (a phase II enzyme) are highly polymorphic; differences in the degree of isoniazid toxicity were found to be d/t differences in the rate of acetylation by this enzyme
N-acetyltransferase (NAT)
26
What are some moderate or strong CYP3A4i examples? (Hint: mneumonic)
G <3 PACMAN Grapefruit <3 Protease inhibitors (esp ritonavir) Azole antifungals (fluconazole, itraconazole, ketoconazole, posaconazole, voriconazole, and isavuconazonium) Cyclosporine, cobicistat Macrolides (clarithromycin and erythromycin but NOT azithromycin) Amiodarone, dronedarone Non-DHP CCBs (diltiazem and verapamil) Note: Amiodarone has ability to inhibit multiple CYP enzymes (e.g. 3A4, 2C9, 1A2)
27
What are some moderate or strong CYP3A4 inducers examples? (Hint: mneumonic)
PS PORCS Phenytoin Smoking Phenobarbital Oxcarbazepine Rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine Carbamazepine (also an auto-inducer) St. John's wort Note: Rifampin has ability to inhibit multiple CYP enzymes
28
T/F: enzyme inhibition effects take 2-4 weeks
False - enzyme INDUCTION often requires additional enzyme production, which take times, may take up to 4 weeks
29
When inducer is stopped, it could take ___ for the induction effects to disappear completely
2-4 weeks
30
Do P-gp efflux pumps in the cell membranes of the GI tract pump drugs and their metabolites into or out of the gut?
They pump INTO the gut to be excreted in the stool Efflux = to flow out (but in this case out of the body, so pump INTO gut to get OUT of body)
31
When a drug inhibits P-gp, a P-gp substrate will have (increased/decreased) absorption and the substrate drug level will (increased/decrease)
increased absorption increased drug level
32
Common P-gp substrates
Anticoagulants (apixaban, rivaroxaban // edoxaban, dabigatran) CV drugs (digoxin, diltiazem, verapamil // carvedilol, ranolazine) Immunosuppressants (cyclosporin, tacrolimus // sirolimus) HCV drugs (sofosbuvir) Others (colchicine // atazanavir, dolutegravir, posaconazole, raltegravir, saxagliptin)
33
Common P-gp inducers
Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin, St. John's wort Others: dexamethasone, tipranavir
34
Common P-gp inhibitors
Anti-infectives (clarithromycin, itraconazole, posaconazole) CV drugs (amiodarone, diltiazem, verapamil // carvedilol, conivaptan, dronedarone, quinidine) HIV drugs (cobicistat, ritonavir) HCV drugs (ledipasvir) Others (cyclosporine // flibanserin, ticagrelor)
35
Which 3A4 inducers are also p-gp inducers (from mneumonic PS PORCS)
Phenytoin Phenobarbital Rifampin Carbamazepine St. John's Wort
36
Which 3A4 inhibitors are also p-gp inhibitors (from mnuemonic G<3PACMAN)
Protease inhibitor = ritonavir Azole inhibitors (itraconazole, posaconazole) Cyclosporin, cobicistat Macrolide (clarithromycin) Amiodarone Non-DHP CCBs (diltiazem, verapamil)
37
What is the DDI between amiodarone and warfarin?
Amiodarone inhibits multiple enzymes include CYP2C9, which metabolizes more potent warfarin isomer (decrease warfarin metabolism = increase INR and bleeding risk) If amiodarone (1st) + warfarin - start warfarin at lower dose If warfarin (1st) + amiodarone - decrease warfarin dose 30-50% depending on INR
38
Which drug needs to be decreased by 30-50% if starting amiodarone?
Warfarin
39
What is the DDI between amiodarone and digoxin?
Amiodarone inhibits P-gp Digoxin is P-gp substrate Decreased digoxin excretion, increased ADRs/toxicity Amiodarone and digoxin both decrease HR, increase bradycardia, arrhythmia, fatality If amiodarone (1st) + digoxin - start digoxin at lower dose If using digoxin (1st) + amiodarone - lower PO digoxin dose 50%
40
Which drug needs to be decreased by 50% if starting amiodarone?
Digoxin
41
If taking both amiodarone and digoxin, what are some other drugs to be careful of?
Drugs that decrease HR beta-blockers, clonidine, diltiazem, verapamil
42
What is the DDI between digoxin and loop diuretics?
Loop diuretics decrease K, Mg, Ca, and Na (low K, Mg, or Ca will worsen arrhythmias) Digoxin toxicity risk is increased with decrease K and Mg levels and increased Ca levels Caution: HF and renal failure often occur together. Digoxin is cleared by P-gp and excreted by kidneys = renal impairment increase digoxin levels and toxicity risk
43
What is the concern of concomitant use of drugs that decrease HR?
Additive effects Caution: amiodarone, digoxin, beta-blockers, clonidine, diltiazem, verapamil and dexmedetomidine (Precedex) Monitor HR
44
What is the DDI between statins and strong CYP3A4 inhibitors (G PACMAN)?
Increased levels of CYP3A4 substrates: lovastatin, simvastatin, atorvastatin Higher risk of myopathy, rhabdo risk
45
Which statins are contraindicated with strong CYP3A4 inhibitors (G PACMAN)?
Simvastatin and lovastatin Recommend a statin not metabolized by CYP450 enzymes like pitavastatin, pravastatin, and rosuvastatin
46
Which statins are NOT metabolized by CYP450 enzymes?
pitavastatin, pravastatin, and rosuvastatin
47
What is the DDI between warfarin and CYP2C9 inhibitors? (azole antifungals, SMX/TMP, amiodarone, metronidazole)
Increase levels of warfarin (increase INR = increase bleeding risk)
48
What is the DDI between warfarin and CYP2C9 inducers? (rifampin, St. John's wort)
Decrease levels of warfarin (decrease INR = increase clotting risk)
49
Which opioids are CYP3A4 substrates?
fentanyl, hydrocodone, oxycodone, and methadone Do NOT use CYP3A4 inhibitor with opioid metabolized by CYP3A4 - icnreased ADRs, including sedation, may be fatal
50
Which drugs should not be taken with grapefruit/ grapefruit juice?
Do NOT take with CYP3A4 substrates: amiodarone, simvastatin, lovastatin, nifedipine, and tacrolimus (others have similar risk)
51
What is the DDI between valproate and lamotrigine?
Valproate decreases lamotrigine metabolism Increased lamotrigine = increase risk of serious skin reactions (SJS/TEN), can be fatal Use starter kit (lower lamotrigine doses) and titrate carefully every 2 weeks
52
If using valproate and lamotrigine together, what should pharmacists recommend?
Initiate lamotrigine using the starter kit that begins with lower lamotrigine doses, titrate carefully every 2 weeks
53
What is the DDI between MAOi and drugs that increase Epi, Ne, DA, or 5-HT?
MAO enzyme metabolizes Epi, NE, DA, tyramine, and 5-HT MAOi = increase Epi, NE, DA, and 5-HT High Epi-NE, and DA = hypertensive crisis High 5-HT= serotonin syndrome Do NOT use together Use 2 week washout period when switching between drugs with MAOi or serotonergic properties (Except with fluoxetine, wait 5 weeks)
54
What are some examples of MAOi?
Isocarboxazid, phenelzine, tranylcypromine, rasagiline, selegiline, linezolid, methylene blue
55
What are some examples of drugs/foods that increase Epi, NE, or Dopamine?
SNRs, TCAs, bupropion, levodopa, stimulants, including amphetamines used for ADHD (e.g. methylphenidate, lisdexamfetamine, dextramphetamine), tyramine (From foods)
56
What are some examples of drugs/foods that increase 5-HT?
Antidepressants: SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, mirtazapine, trazodone Opioids and analgesics: fentanyl, methadone, tramadol Others: buspirone, dextromethorphan (when high doses taken as drug of abuse), lithium, St. John's wort
57
When is it recommended to use a 2-week washout period (exception: ____ with 5 week washout period)?
When switching between drugs with MAOi or serotonergic properties Fluoxetine = 5-week washout
58
What are some tyramine-rich foods?
Aged, pickled, fermented, or smoked foods like aged cheeses, air-dried meats, sauerkraut, some wines/beers
59
What is the DDI between CYP2D6 inhibitors and CYP2D6 substrates?
Decrease drug substrate metabolism, increase ADRs/toxicity (or decreased efficacy if prodrug) Avoid using together if possible
60
What are some 2D6 inhibitors?
Amiodarone, fluoxetine, paroxetine, fluvoxamine
61
What are some 2D6 substrates?
Many, including codeine, meperidine, tramadol, tamoxifen
62
What is the DDI between CYP3A4, P-gp inhibitors and Calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs) or mTOR kinase inhibitors?
Decrease drug substrate metabolism, increase ADR/toxicity including increased BP, nephrotoxicty, metabolic syndrome and other adverse effects CNIs = tacro, cyclosporine mTOR kinase inhibitors = sirolimus, everolimus AVOID using together or decrease dose of CNI or mTOR kinase inhibitor based on drug levels
63
What is the DDI between antiepileptic drug (AED) CYP inducers (phenytoin, phenobarbital, primidone, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine) and other drugs metabolized by CYP enzymes (oral contraceptives, other AEDs, carbamazepine (auto-inducer), others)
Increase substrate metabolism = decrease drug levels Decrease drug effects; with AEDs, loss of seizure control Monitor drug level; induction takes up to 4 weeks for full effect, may need to increase substrate drug dose If substrate is lamotrigine, use the starter kit that begins with higher lamotrigine doses
64
What is the DDI between rifampin and CYP and p-gp substrates?
Substrate drug conc will greatly decrease Example: warfarin!
65
What is the DDI between CYP3A4 inducers and opioids that are 3A4 substrates (fentanyl, hydrocodone, oxycodone, methadone)
Increased metabolism = decreased opioid conc = less analgesia (pain relief)
66
Patient is a ultrametabolizer of CYP2D6. Which drugs are we concerned about?
Codeine, tramadol 2D6 UM, prodrug will convert more rapidly into active drug = increased active drug conc = toxicity/risk and possible fatality Do NOT use codeine or tramadol in children <12 or <18yo following tonsillectomy and/or adenoidectomy (contraindication) Do NOT use opioid prodrug that is metabolized by CYP2D6 (tramadol, codeine) in a breast-feeding mother unless it is known she is NOT an UM.
67
Which opioids prodrugs are metabolized by 2D6?
Codeine, tramadol
68
What is the DDI between CYP3A4, P-gp inducers and Calcineurin inhibitors (CNIs) or mTOR kinase inhibitors?
Increased drug metabolism, decrease transplant drug level, increased risk of transplant rejection Avoid using together or monitor carefully
69
What is the DDI between smoking and some antipsychotics, antidepressants, hypnotics, anxiolytics, caffeine, theophylline, and warfarin (R-isomer)
Smoking induces CYP1A2 (both tobacco and marijuana) Smokers who quit: When the inducer (cigarettes) is stopped, drug conc of substrates will increase, causing toxicity Current smoker: CYP1A2 substrate levels decreased
70
Your patient who is on warfarin tells you they recently stopped smoking. What is your concern?
Monitor INR. The R-isomer of warfarin (less potent isomer) is metabolized by CYP1A2, but the therapeutic range is narrow and could be affected
71
T/F: Nicotine replacement products (NRT, such as patch/gum) induce CYP enzymes similar to smoking
False - they do NOT induce CYP enzymes
72
You are going to initiate warfarin in a pt with social hx (+) smoking. Do you consider starting with higher or lower dose?
Higher dose
73
What are some s/sx of serotonin syndrome?
Autonomic dysfunction (diaphoresis, N/V, hyperthermia) Altered mental status (akathisia, anxiety, agitation, delirium) Neuromuscular excitation (hyperreflexia, tremor, rigidity, tonic-clonic seizures)
74
Which drugs increase risk of serotonergic toxicity?
Anti-depressants: SSRIs, SNRIs, TCA, mirtazapine, trazodone MAOi antidepressants: isocarboxazid, phenelzine, tranylcypromine Selective MAO-Bi: selegiline, rasagiline Other MAOi: linezolid, methylene blue Opioids: fentanyl, meperidine, methadone, tramadol, tapentadol (risk with any opioid used in combo with serotonergic drug) Triptans: PRN may be safe, more frequent use can increase risk Natural products: St. John's wort, L-tryptophan Others: buspirone, lithium, dextromethorphan (when taken in excess as drug of abuse)
75
Doctor is switching med from fluoxetine to duloxetine. What is the washout period?
5 weeks
76
Doctor is switching med from citalopram to escitalopram. What is the washout period?
2 weeks
77
Avoid using drugs that increase risk of bleeding in combo with a few exceptions. What are the exceptions?
Aspirin (for cardioprotection) and occasional NSAID use for pain, fever, or inflammation SSRI/SNRI use and occasional NSAID use for pain, fever or inflammation Dual antiplatelet therapy for select patients (e.g. to prevent cardiac stent thrombosis) Bridging/overlap treatment (ex. enoxaparin + warfarin)
78
Which drugs increase risk for bleeding?
Anticoagulants: warfarin ,dabigatran, apixaban, edoxaban, rivaroxaban, heparin, enoxaparin, dalteparin, fondaparinux, argatroban, bivalirudin Antiplatelets: salicylates (including aspirin), dipyridamole, clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor NSAIDs: ibuprofen, naproxen, diclofenac, indomethacin, others SSRIs, SNRIs: citalopram, escitalopram, fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, duloxetine, venlafaxine, others Natural products: 5Gs: garlic, ginger, ginko biloba, ginseng, glucosamine, vitamin E, willow bark, fish oils (high doses)
79
What are the 5G natural products that increase risk of bleeding?
Garlic, ginger, ginko biloba, ginseng, glucosamine
80
What drugs increase risk for hyperkalemia?
RAAS drugs: ACEi/ARBs, aliskiren, sacubitril/valsartan, spironolactone, eplerenone (highest risk with aldosterone receptor antagonists) K-sparing diuretics: amiloride, triamterene Others: Salt substitutes (KCl), CNIs (tacro, cyclosporine), SMX/TMP, canagliflozin, drospirenone-containing oral contraceptives Do NOT use ACEi with ARBs Do NOT use sacubitril/valsartan with ACEi or ARBs Avoid salt substitutes If risk for hyperkalemia, suggest alternatives to canagliflozin (DM), SMX/TMP (infection) or drospirenone-containing oral contraceptives
81
The risk of QTc prolongation and TdP increases with:
higher doses higher drug levels d/t concurrent enzyme inhibitors higher drug levels d/t reduced drug clearance, such as renal/liver disease Multiple QT-prolonging drugs used together Elderly (>60yo) and patients with CVD, including arrhythmias, HF, MI
82
Generally, limit use of QT-prolonging drugs or select drugs with lower QT risk, especially with arrhythmias, CVD, or CVD risk (exception: ____ is the drug of choice to treat an arrhythmia in pts with HF)
Amiodarone
83
Do not exceed citalopram dose ____ or ____ in elderly (>60yo), liver disease, or with enzyme inhibitors that decrease clearance
40mg daily 20mg daily with elderly, liver disease, or with enzyme inhibitors
84
Do not exceed escitalopram ____ or ____ in elderly (>60yo)
20mg daily 10mg daily with elderly
85
Among SSRIs, ____ is considered safest in pts with CVD
Sertraline
86
Do not use ___ for inpatient N/V (it is injection only and has restricted use d/t QT prolongation risk)
Droperidol
87
Which anti-infectives increase risk of QT prolongation?
Antimalarials (e.g. hydroxychloroquine) Azole antifungals except isavuconazonium Lefamulin Macrolides FQ
88
Azole antifungals increase risk of QT prolongation EXCEPT ____
isavuconazonium
89
Which antidepressants increase risk of QT prolongation?
SSRIs: highest risk with citalopram, escitalopram TCAs Others: mirtazapine, trazodone, venlafaxine
90
Which SSRIs have highest risk of QT prolongation?
Citalopram and escitalopram
91
Which Antipsychotics increase risk of QT prolongation?
First-gen (e.g. haloperidol, thioridazone) Seond-gen: highest risk with ziprasidone
92
Which second-gen antipsychotic has highest risk of QT prolongation?
Ziprasidone
93
Which antiemetics increase risk of QT prolongation?
5-HT3 receptor antagonists (e.g. ondansetron) Others: droperidol, metoclopramide, promethazine
94
Which oncology meds increase risk of QT prolongation?
Androgen deprivation therapy (e.g. leuprolide) Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (e.g. nilotinib) Other: oxaliplatin
95
What are some misc meds that increase risk of QT prolongation?
Cilostazol, donepezil, fingolimod, hydroxyzine, loperamide, ranolazine, solifenacin, methadone, tacrolimus
96
What are some drug/drug classes that increase risk of CNS depression?
Opioids Skeletal muscle relaxants Antiepileptic drugs Benzodiazepines Barbiturates Hypnotics Antidepressants: mirtazapine, trazodone, AntiHTN: propranolol, clonidine Cannabis-related drugs: dronabinol, nabilone Sedating antihistamines Cough syrups with antihistamine or opioid Some NSAIDs
97
Which combo of drugs has highest risk for fatality d/t CNS depression?
Opioids + benzodiazepines or other CNS depressants (including alcohol)
98
S/sx of CNS depression
somnolence, dizziness, confusion/cognitive impairment, altered consciousness/delirium, gait instability/imbalance/risk of falls/accidents
99
Benzodiazepines are drugs of abuse and often prescribed inappropriately (for anxiety or insomnia). What are some appropriate indications?
Status epilepticus, alcohol withdrawal, as an antidote for stimulant overdose, prior to medical procedures, in acute high-anxiety situations for anticipatory emesis with chemo
100
What are some patient counseling points for meds that can cause CNS depression?
Do NOT use alcohol Do not operate car or other vehicles/machiens Can increase risk of falls, confusion
101
Do ER or IR formulations of opioids have greater risk of fatality when taken with alcohol?
ER formulations have higher risk -- several become shorter-acting when taken with alcohol
102
Avoid ____ (opioid) if pharmacogenomic profile is unknown (highest risk with CYP2D6 UMs)
Codeine
103
Which drugs increase risk of ototoxicity?
Aminoglycosides: gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin, others Cisplatin Loop diuretics (esp rapid IV admin): furosemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid Salicylates: aspirin, salsalate, magnesium salicylate, others Vancomycin Consider audiology consult at start of treatment for baseline and monitor Avoid using multiple ototoxic drugs at the same time if possible
104
S/sx otoxicity
hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo
105
Which drugs increase risk of nephrotoxicity?
Anti-infectives: aminoglycosides, amphotericin B, polymyxins, vancomycin Cisplatin CNIs: cyclosporin, tacrolimus Loop diuretics: furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, eythacrynic acid NSAIDs Radiographic contrast dye
106
If using cisplatin, use ___ to protect kidneys
amifostine (Ethyol)
107
What are anticholinergic symptoms?
CNS depression, including sedation, and peripheral anticholinergic side effects of dry mouth, dry eyes, blurry vision, constipation, urinary retention Highest risk in elderly
108
Which drugs have anticholinergic toxicity risk?
Antidepressants/antipsychotics: paroxetine, TCAs, first-gen antipsychotics Sedating antihistamines: diphenhydramine, brompheniramine, chlorpheniramine, doxylamine, hydroxyzine, cyproheptadine, meclizine Centrally-acting anticholinergics: beztropine, trihexyphenidyl Muscle relaxants: baclofen, carisprodol, cyclobenzaprine Antimuscarinics (for urinary incontinence): oxybutynin, darifenacin, tolterodine Others: atropine, belladonna, dicyclomine
109
What is the risk of taking PDE-5i (sildenafil, tadalafil, avanafil, vardenafil) with CYP3A4 inhibitors?
Decreased PDE-5 inhibitor metabolism = increased side effects (headache, dizziness, flushing = increased risk of falls/injury) If taking CYP3A4i, start with 50% of usual starting dose of PDE-5i
110
What is the risk of taking PDE-5i with nitrates or alpha-1 blockers (non-selective (e.g. doxazosin, terazosin) or selective (e.g. tamsulosin))?
All cause vasodilation Additive effects can cause to hypotension/orthostasis, dizziness and falls With nitrates, severe hypotension can cause chest pain and CV events which can be fatal
111
What is your recommendation for PDE-5i and nitrates?
Do NOT use together (contraindicated)
112
What is your recommendation for PDE-5i and alpha-1 blockers?
Start with low dose when adding a drug for either class (e.g. if taking an alpha-1 blocker, start at half the usual PDE-5i dose)
113
Common CYP3A4 substrate: Analgesics
Fentanyl, hydrocodone, methadone, oxycodone Others: buprenorphine, diclofenac, meloxicam, tramadol
114
Common CYP3A4 substrate: Anticoagulants
apixaban, rivaroxaban, R-warfarin
115
Common CYP3A4 substrate: CV drugs
Amiodarone, amlodipine, diltizaem, verapamil Others: bosentan, eplerenone, ivabradine, nifepdipine, quinidine, ranolazine, tolvaptan
116
Common CYP3A4 substrate: Immunosuppressants
Cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus
117
Common CYP3A4 substrate: Statins
atorvastatin, lovastatin, simvastatin
118
Common CYP3A4 substrate: HIV drugs
Atazanavir, efavirenz, and other NNRTIs, ritonavir, ripranavir
119
Common CYP3A4 substrate: PDE-5i
Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil, avanafil
120
Common CYP3A4 substrate: Misc
Ethinyl estradiol Others: alfuzosin, aprepitant, aripiprazole, BZDs, brexpiprazole, buspirone, carbamazepine, citalopram, clarithromycin, colchicine, dapsone, dutasteride, erythromycin, escitalopram, felbamate, haloperidol, ketoconazole, levonorgestrel, mirtazapine, modafinil, ondansetron, progessterone, quetiapine, tamoxifen, trazodone, venlafaxine, zolpidem
121
Common CYP3A4 inducers
PS PORCS: Phenytoin, smoking, phenobarbital, oxcarbazepine, rifampin, carbamazepine, St. John's wort Others: efavirenz, etravirine, primidone, rifabutin, rifapentine
122
Common CYP3A4 inhibitors: anti-infectives
Clarithromycin, erythromycin, azole antifungals Other: isoniazid
123
Common CYP3A4 inhibitors: CV drugs
Amiodarone, diltiazem, verapamil Others: dronedarone, quinidine, ranolazine
124
Common CYP3A4 inhibitors: HIV drugs
Cobicistat, ritonavir, efavirenz and other protease inhibitors
125
Common CYP3A4 inhibitors: misc
Grapefruit, cyclosporine Others: aprepitant, cimetidine, fluvoxamine, haloperidol, nefazodone, sertralien
126
Common CYP1A2 substrates
Theophylline, R-warfarin Others: aldosteron, aprepitant, clozapine, cyclobenzaprine, duloxetine, ethinyl estradiol, fluvoxamine, methadone, mirtazapine, olanzapine, ondansetron, pimozide, propranolol, rasagiline, ropinirole, tizanidine, zolpidem
127
Common CYP1A2 inducers
Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin, smoking, St. John's wort Others: ritonavir, primidone
128
Common CYP1A2 inhibitors
Ciprofloxacin, fluvoxamine Others: atazanavir, cimetidine, zileuton
129
Common CYP2C8 substrates
Amiodarone, pioglitazone, repaglinide
130
Common CYP2C8 inducers
Phenytoin, rifampin
131
Common CYP2C8 inhibitors
Amiodarone, atazanavir, clopidogrel, gemfibrozil, ketoconazole, SMX/TMP, ritonavir
132
Common CYP2C9 substrates
S-warfarin Others: alosetron, carvedilol, celecoxib, diazepam, diclofenac, fluvastatin, glyburide, glipizide, glimepiride, meloxicam, nateglinide, phenytoin, ramelteon, tamoxifen, zolpidem
133
Common CYP2C9 inducers
Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin, smoking, St. John's wort Others: aprepitant, primidone, rifapentin, ritonavir
134
Common CYP2C9 inhibitors
Amiodarone, fluconazole, metronidazole, SMX/TMP Others: atazanavir, capecitabine, cimetidine, efavirenz, etravirine, gemfibrozil, fluvoxamine, fluorouracil, isonazid, ketoconazole, oritavancin, tamoxifen, valproic acid, voriconazole, zafirlukast
135
Common CYP2C19 substrates
Clopidogrel Others: phenytoin, thioridazine, voriconazole
136
Common CYP2C19 inducers
Carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin
137
Common CYP2C19 inhibitors
Esomepraozle, omeprazole Others: cimetidine, efavirenz, etravirine, fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, isoniazid, ketoconazole, modafinil, topiramate, voriconazole
138
Common CYP2D6 substrates
Codeine, meperidine, tramadol, tamoxifen Others: Analgesics: hydrocodone, methadone, oxycodone Antipsychotics/antidepressants: aripiprazole, brexipiprazole, doxepin, fluoxetine, haloperidol, mirtazapine, risperidone, thioridazine, trazodone, TCA, venlafaxine Others: atomoxetine, carvedilol, dextromethorphan, flecainide, methamphetamine, metoprolol, propafenone, propranolol
139
Common CYP2D6 inhibitors
Amiodarone, duloxetine, fluoxetine, paroxetine Others: bupropion, cimetidine, cobicistat, darifenacin, dronedarone, mirabegron, propafenone, quinidine, ritonvair, sertraline