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301-400 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following statements regarding OSPF special areas is false?
A - A totally stub area allows the Type 3 default route advertised by an ABR, and does not allow AS
external routes and inter-area routes.
B - Different from a totally stub area, a stub area allows inter area routes.
C - Different from a stub area, a NSSA area allows importing AS external routes. An ABR advertises these
routes within its area using Type 7 LSA’s
D - Different from an NSSA area, a totally stub area does not allow inter-area routes.

A

C

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2
Q

In static LACP mode, the active interfaces selected by devices at both ends must be the same, otherwise, a
LAG cannot be set up. You can specify one end as active side. Then the other end selects active interfaces based on the Active side. So, in static LACP mode, how is the Active side be selected?
A - The end with a smaller LACP system priority functions as the Active side. If the two ends have the same LACP system priority, the end with a smaller MAC address functions as active side.
B - The end with a smaller MAC address is selected as the active side.
C - The end with a higher LACP system priority functions as the Active side. If the two ends have the same
LACP system priority, the end with larger MAC address functions as the active side.
D - The end with a lower LACP system priority functions as the Active side. If the two ends have the same
LACP system priority, the end with a smaller MAC address functions as the active side.

A

D

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3
Q 
Which of the following configuration can enable indirectly connected EBGR peers to establish a connection normally?
A - peer connect-interface
B - peer ebgp-max-hop
C - peer ignore
D - peer as-number
A

B

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4
Q

Which of the following statements regarding network-summary-LSA are true? (multiple choice)
A - Link State ID in Network-Summary-LSA is set as the destination network IP address
B - Net mask in Network-Summary-LSA is set as the network mask of the destination network segment
C - Metric in Network-Summary-LSA is set the cost of a route from an ABR to a destination network
segment
D - Network-Summary-LSA is generated by an ASBR.

A

A B C

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5
Q

Which of the following are possible causes for an MSTP failure in a LAN?
A - MSTP is configured incorrectly
B - A physical link alternates between up and Down triggering the device to send a large number of TC
packets
C - The MSTP-enabled device receives MSTP TC packets that are transparently sent or from the client
D - The priority of the port in the specified MSTI is not configured

A

A B C

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6
Q 
Which of the following hello packets are used in IS-IS? (Multiple Choice)
A - Level-1 LAN IIH
B - Level-2 LAN IIH
C - Level-3 LAN IIH
D - P2P LAN IIH
A

A B D

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7
Q

RSTP provides faster convergence than STP. What are causes? (Multiple Choice)
A - RSTP defines the edge port role. The edge port does not receive and process configuration BPDUs, and
does not participate in RSTP calculation. The edge port can directly change from disabled state to forwarding state.
B - When the root port fails, the optimal alternate port will become the root port and enter the forwarding state.
C - In RSTP, when a port is elected as the designated port, it enters the discarding state. Then the port immediately enters the forwarding state through the proposal /agreement mechanism.
D - In RSTP, when a port receives RST BPDU’s form the upstream designated bridge , the port will compare the
own stored RST BPDU with the received RST BPDU’s
E - When the designated port fails, the optimal alternate port will become the root port and enter the forwarding state.

A

A B C D

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8
Q

Only MD5 authentication is supported between BGP peers.
A - TURE
B - FALSE

A

True

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9
Q

A DHCP server allocates IP addresses to clients. Which of the following steps are required when configuring a
DHCP server.
A - Enable DHCP globally
B - Configure the DHCP option 82 field
C - Configure the globally address pool if the DHCP server based on the global address pool is used.
D - Configure the interface address pool if the DHCP server based on the interface address pool is used.

A

A C D

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10
Q 
RSTP is different from STP regarding defining port states. Which port states does RSTP define?
A - Discarding
B - Learning
C - Forwarding
D - Discarding Learning and Forwarding
A

D

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11
Q 
Which are lower-layer physical devices of NFV framework? (Multiple Choice)
A - Storage device
B - Network device
C - Server
D - Air conditioning system
A

A B C

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12
Q

Which of the following statements regarding P2MP network is true? (Multiple Choice)
A - In a P2MP network, devices with different mask lengths cannot establish neighbor relationships but this
limitation can be overcome using the ospf p2mp-mask-ignore command.
B - In a P2MP network, DR and BDR need to be elected.
C - OSPF does not regard a network as a P2MP network type by default regardless of any link layer protocol. A P2MP network must forcibly changed from the network of other type.
D - ln a P2MP network, sent LSAs can be filtered using the filter-ls a-out peer command

A

A C D

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13
Q 
In a route-policy, which of the following BGP attributes can be used in apply clauses? (multiple choice)
A - local-Preference
B - Tag
C - MED
D - AS. Path
A

A C D

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14
Q

If some devices on a network run MPLS (MPLS domain is encapsulated in the IP domain), labels are generated only for direct routes of devices running MPLS. Labels are not generated for the routes originated from other devices in the IP domain.
A - TRUE
B - FALSE

A

True

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15
Q 
An attacker sends ICMP Request packets with the destination address as the broadcast address of the attacked user host. What is this attack?
A - IP spoofing attack
B - Smurf attack
C - ICMP redirection attack
D - SYN Flood attack
A

B

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16
Q 
What is the default priority of the device in a VRRP group?
A - 200
B - 150
C - 100
D - 0
A

C

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17
Q

Congestion management technology defines scheduling policies to determine the order of packet processing
A - TRUE
B - FALSE

A

True

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18
Q

Which problems of the single spanning tree network can be solved by MSTP?
A - Some VLAN paths are unreachable
B - Traffic cannot be load balanced.
C - The secondary optimal path is selected
D - Improve the network reliability

A

A B C

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19
Q

Which of the following statements regarding MUX VLAN is true?
A - You do not need to configure the principal VLAN and subordinate VLAN in sequence
B - The MUX VLAN function must be enabled on an interface so that it can take effect
C - The principal VLAN and the subordinate VLAN of the MUX VLAN can be the same VLAN
D - The MUX VLAN can contain only one subordinate group VLAN

A

B

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20
Q

On the DiffServ network, what is the main purpose of defining the service type of the EF classification?
A - Preferentially guarantee the services that require short delay, low packet loss, low jitter, and assured bandwidth.
B - Provide channels for packet forwarding
C - Ensure bandwidth for specific traffic
D - Ensure that packets are forwarded with the minimum delay

A

A

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21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF protocol are true? (Multiple Choice)
A - An OSPF topology has three endpoint types: router node, stub network segment, and transit network
segment
B - A broadcast network segment or a NBMA network segment with at least two routers are a type of transit
network segment
C - The default bandwidth reference value of OSPF is 100 Mbit/s
D - The cost from a transit network segment to the router connected to this network segment is 100

A

A B C

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22
Q

Which of the following LSPs are established in Downstream Unsolicited (DU) label advertisement mode and ordered label distribution control mode? (Multiple Choice)
A - When the edge node finds a new destination address in its routing table that does not belong to any
existing FEC the edge bode not create a new FEC for destination address.
B - An LSP is established by binding an FEC to a label and advertising the binding relationship to the neighboring LSR
C - If the egress node has available labels for distribution, it allocates labels for the FEC and sends a label mapping message to the upstream node
D - After receiving a label mapping message the LSR adds the corresponding entry to the label forwarding
table

A

B C D

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23
Q

During configuration of the WRED drop profile, the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF21
traffic are 35 and 90, the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF22 traffic are 30 and 90. and the lower drop threshold and upper drop threshold for AF23 traffic are 25 and 90. The maximum drop probability for AF21, AF22 and AF23 traffic is 10%. Before congestion occurs, which type of traffic can obtain bandwidth guarantee?
A - AF21
B - AF22
C - AF23
D - AF21 AF22 and AF23 traffic

A

A

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24
Q 
MUX VLAN provides a mechanism for network resource control based on VLANs. Which of the following
concepts do not belong to the MUX VLAN?
A - Principal VLAN
B - Subordinate VLAN
C - Guest VLAN 
D - Subordinate group VLAN
A

C

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25
``` Which of the following aspects should be considered during preliminary analysis of a migration project ? A - Necessity B - Feasibility C - Risks D - Costs ```
A B C
26
Which of the following statements regarding huawei network optimization service (NOS) is false? A - Life cycle assessment ( LAC ) is a technique to check and analyze the software and hardware life cycles of devices on the live network. With LCA, specific measures are taken for products that will reach the end of sales, production, software update, or technical support, preventing life cycle-caused operation risks. B - Software assessment & recommendation is a technique to assess and analyze all software platforms used by party A in the service period. Based on the assessment result, this service can recommend a proper software version to prevent issues caused by know issues. C - Configuration assessment & optimization is a Technique to develop and periodically maintain device configuration profiles based on customer requirements. Based on the periodic software assessment & recommendation result, this service applies related software features to command lines in the recommended target version, implementing refined configuration management. D - Network health check enables Huawei technology experts to review the rationality, security and scalability of the network architecture based on industry-leading optimal experience, and to provide improvement suggestions based on the assessment result.
D
27
``` Which of the following commands can display OSPF neighbor status information? A - Display ospf peer B - Display ip ospf peer C - Display ospf neighbor D - Display ip ospf neighbor ```
A
28
``` To avoid global TCP synchronization, which congestion avoidance mechanisms can be used? A - RED B - WRED C - Tail Drop D - WFQ ```
A B
29
When BFD detection intervals at both ends are 30ms and 40ms, Which of the following statement is true? A - A BFD session can be set up. After the negotiation, the detection interval of 90ms is used. B - A BFD session can be set up. After the negotiation, the detection interval of 30ms is used. C - A BFD session can be set up. And packets are sent at respective interval at both ends. D - A BFD session cannot be established
A
30
Which of the following statements regarding EGP and IGP is false? A - IGP runs within an AS B - EGP runs between AS's C - IGP focuses on controlling route advertisement and optimal route selection D - EGP itself is an old protocol
C
31
``` Which application environment of following is NFV often deployed? A - Data Center B - Network node C - User access side D - Client/Server ```
A B C
32
``` Which of the following commands can display OSPF neighbor information on the VRP platform? A - Display ospf peer B - Display ospf interface C - Display ospf Isdb D - Display ospf routing ```
A B
33
ASFF enables the firewall to support multi-channel protocols such as FTP and to define security policies for complex applications A - TRUE B - FALSE
A
34
``` Which of the following OSPF neighbor states occurs only on NBMA network? A - Down B - Init C - Attempt D - 2-way ```
C
35
Which of the following parameters is optional when you configure a RADIUS server template on a Huawei switch? A - Authentication server IP address and port B - Automatic RADIUS user detection C - Accounting server address and port D - Shared-key
B
36
Which of the following statements regarding a multicast distribution tree is false? A - There are two types of multicast distribution trees SPT and RPT B - The PIM-SM protocol can generate both RPT trees and SPT tress C - The P1M-DM protocol can generate both RPT trees and SPT trees D - The PIM-DM protocol can generate only SPT trees
C
37
An AS boundary router can be an internal router or ABR and must belong to the backbone area A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
38
``` In an IS-IS broadcast network, which multicast MAC address is used by a Level-2 router as the destination address of sent IS-IS Hello packets? A - 0180-C200-0014 B - 0180-C200-0016 C - 0180-C200-0015 D - 0100-5E00-0002 ```
C
39
An LSR supports various label retention modes. Which of the following statements regarding the liberal mode are true? (Multiple Choice) A - An LSR reserves all label sent by its neighbor B - The liberal mode requires more memory and label space C - An LSR retains labels from a neighboring LSR only when the neighbor is its next hop D - This label retention mode saves the memory and label space. E - This label retention mode reduces the LSP convergence time when the IP routes converge and the next hop changes
A B E
40
``` Which of the following tools is used to filter routing information and set route attributes based on routing information? A - as-path-filter B - IP-Prefix C - Route-policy D - Policy-based-route ```
C
41
How does an IGMPv2 router maintain group membership on the local network segment? (Multiple Choice) A - A router maintains a timer for each group membership and periodically resets the timer if it receives Report messages from receiver hosts. If the timer of the group membership times out, the router deletes the group membership. B - A router periodically sends Query messages and receiver hosts send Report messages after receiving the Query messages. C - A router periodically sends Group-Specific Query messages periodically D - A router will not delete any group memberships unless it receives Leave messages
A B C
42
The import-route limit command cannot limit the maximum number of external routes that can be imported into an OSPF process. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
43
``` Which of the following are roles in port mirroring? (MC) A - Mirrored port B - Local observing port C - Remote mirroring port D - Trunk port ```
A B C
44
Which of the following statements regarding OSPF stub area is true? A - AS-external-LSAs can be advertised within a stub area B - AS external route can only be based on a default route that is manually configured on an ABR. C - A virtual link cannot pass through a stub area D - Any area can be a stub area
C
45
What are the basic work process steps of SDN? (MC) A - Collect network topology information B - Collect NE resource information C - Collect forwarding information D - Generate routes for internal exchange
A B D
46
If an alarm "BGP/2/BACKWARD: OID. [old] The BGP FSM moves from a higher numbered state to a lower numbered state" is generated during BGP configurations, which of the following statements regarding the cause of this alarm is false? A - The BGP Hold timer expires and no Keepalive message is received. B - BGP receives an incorrect BGP message. C - The BGP peer neighbor is reset and proactively disconnects the peer relationship D - BGP receives a Notification message from a neighbor E - The alarm is normal and no action is required
A
47
Which of the following statements regarding BGP is false? A - BGP is an exterior routing protocol and is used to transmit routing information between AS's B - BGP is a link-state routing protocol C - BGP supports CIDR D - BGP provides abundant route filtering and routing policies
B
48
What is the function of the detail-suppressed keyword in the aggregate command? A - lt suppresses the delivery of generated summarized routes to the IP routing table B - lt suppresses the delivery of specific routes to the IP routing table C - lt only advertises the summarized routes to other BGP peers D - lt advertises both the summarized routes and specific routes to other BGP peers
C
49
Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF features is false? A - OSPF uses the link state algorithm B - Each router advertises local link state information by flooding LSAs C - Each OSPF device collects LSAs sent by other routers All LSAs form the link state database (LSDB) D - AII the routers in OSPF Area 0 have the same LSDB E - Based on the directed graph each router uses a SPF algorithm to compute the shortest path tree with itself as the root. The shortest path tree shows routes to nodes in an AS
D
50
Which of the following statements regarding BGP route advertisement rule are true? (MC) A - A BGP Speaker advertises all BGP routes to new peers immediately after they establish BGP connections B - A BGP Speaker advertises all BGP routes to its peers C - Generally when multiple routes exist a BGP Speaker adds only the optimal route into its routing table D - A BGP Speaker advertises the routes learned from an EBGP peer to all BGP peers including EBGP peers and IBGP peers
A C D
51
When hosts and servers in the same zone communicate with each other, NAT is not required. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
52
Fast detection technology can rapidly detect communication faults between neighboring devices as soon as possible so that the system can take measures immediately to ensure that services are not interrupted A - TRUE B - FALSE
True
53
Which of the following statements regarding VRRP is false? A - The master in the VRRP group is selected based on priorities B - The master sends gratuitous ARP packets and notifies the connected device or host of its virtual MAC address C - If the master fails, the new master is selected among backup devices based on priorities D - The priority ranges from 1 to 255. When the backup received VRRP Advertisement packets which the priority is 0 the backup discards the packets
D
54
Which of the following statements regarding OSPF multi-instance is false ? A - OSPF multi-instance takes effect globally B - An interface of a router belongs to only a certain OSPF process C - Route exchange between different OSPF processes is similar to route exchange between different routing protocols D - Multiple OSPF processes can run on the same router and they are independent of each other
A
55
``` Which of the following LSA packets carries master relationship information? A - Hello packet B - DD packet C - LSA Update packet D - LSA Request packet ```
B
56
Which of the following statements regarding multicast MAC addresses are false? (MC) A - The high 24 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01005f, the 25th BIT is fixed to 1, and the lower 23 bits of MAC address map to the lower 23 bits of the multicast IP address. B - One multicast MAC address maps to 32 multicast IP addresses C - A multicast MAC address identifies receivers of a multicast group on the data link layer D - One multicast MAC address maps to only one multicast IP address
A D
57
Which of the following statements regarding well-known attributes are true? A - Well-known attributes include well-known mandatory attributes and well-known transitive attributes B - BGP must identify all well-known attributes C - Well-known mandatory attributes can be identified by all BGP routers and must be carried in update messages D - Well-known discretionary attributes can be identified by all BGP routers but do not necessary to be carried in update messages
B C D
58
``` In vAR application scenarios, which functions of the AR Router can be virtualized on a server? A - Firewall B - VoIP C - NAT D - VPN ```
A B C D
59
The IP prefix configuration command is "ip ip-prefix ip-prefix-name [index index-number] {permit | deny} ipv4-address mask-length [greater-equal greater-equal-value] [less-equal less-equal-value]" If greater-equal is specified but less-equal is not, what is the IP prefix range? A - [0, greater-equal-value] B - [mask-length greater-equal-value] C- [greater-equal-value, 32] D - Unlimited
C
60
``` Which of the following BGP routing policy tools can filter routes? A - ip extcommunity-filter B - route-policy C - filter-policy D - peer-list ```
A B C
61
Which of the following statements regarding DR/BDR are false? (MC) A - All DR others establish neighbor relationships with DR and BDR only B - In a broadcast network, DR and BDR must be elected. A broadcast network without a DR or BDR cannot operate normally. C - DR others listen on the multicast address 224.0.0.5. D - DR others listen on the network address 224.0.0.6.
A B D
62
Which of the following statements regarding QoS packet loss are false? A - When a router receives data packets, packet loss may occur because the CPU is busy and cannot process data packets. B - When data packets are scheduled to queues, packet loss may occur because the queue is full. C - When data packets are transmitted on a link, packet loss may occur because of link faults. D - Packet loss is generally caused by the delay, the tall drop packet loss may occur because of the queue is full
D
63
Which of following tasks need to be completed during the planning stage of a project? (Multiple choice) A - Work out the technical design B - Know the project background C - Determine the model of network devices in the project D - Make clear the requirements of network devices in the project E - Plan IP addresses
B D
64
A source tree is the shortest path form a multicast source to receiver hosts, it is also called a shortest path tree. A - TRUE B - FALSE
True
65
Which of the following statements regarding the route injected into BGP using the network command are false? A - This route must exist in the IP routing table and be the optimal route. B - This route must match the specified prefix and does not need to accurately match the mask length. C - This route must accurately match the specified mask length. D - This route must be on IGP route.
B
66
Which of the following statements regarding BGP state machine is false? A - In idle state, bgp denies all connection requests, this is the initial state of bgp B - In active state bgp attempts to establish a tcp connection, this is the intermediate state of bgp C - In established state, bgp peers can exchange updates, route-refresh, keepalive, and notification messages D - A BGP peer relationship can be established only when both BGP peers are in open confirm state, two bgp peers send update messages to exchange routes.
D
67
An access control list (ACL) can be used to match routing information or addresses of data packets. It can only identify a specific of packets and cannot filter packets. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
68
Which of the following statements regarding IGMP snooping are true? (Multiple Choice) A - IGMP snooping prevents multicast packets from being broadcast at Layer 3. B - IGMP snooping is a multicast restraint mechanism that runs on layer 2 Ethernet switches to manage and control multicast groups. C - IGMP snooping creates a multicast MAC address table by listening to IGMP packets sent from hosts. D - IGMP snooping does not consume CPU resources of switch.
A B C
69
Which of the following statements regarding virtual link in OSPF is false? A - Virtual link can solve the problem that backbone areas are logically non-contiguous. B - A virtual link can be established between any two ABRs, but the two routers must have interface that are connected to the same non backbone area. routers must have interfaces that are connected to the same C - A virtual link unnecessarily belongs to the backbone area, Instead, which area It belongs to depends on the actual topology. D - A virtual link belongs to Area 0
C
70
Which of the following are possible causes for an MSTP failure in a LAN? A - MSTP is configured incorrectly B - A physical link alternates between up and Down triggering the device to send a large number of TC packets C - The MSTP-enabled device receives MSTP TC packets that are transparently sent or from the client D - The priority of the port in the specified MSTI is not configured
A B C
71
The LDP session establishment process will go through the open sent status, which state will the open sent state change to after the device receives an initiation message and sends a keepalive message? A - Initialized B - Opener C - Operational D - Non-Existent
C
72
``` Which of the following values can be used to set security levels of user-defined zones of USG series firewalls? A - 150 B - 100 C - 80 D - 40 ```
A C D
73
Which of the following statements regarding the BGP protocol is false? A - BGP uses TCP as the transport protocol. B - BGP uses the same algorithm as RIP, namely, distant vector C - BGP uses the TCP port 179. D - BGP Is an interdomain routing protocol
B
74
Which of the following statements regarding buffer overflow attacks is false? A - The buffer overflow attack indicates that an attacker uses defects of memory operations of the software system and runs attack codes with high operation rights B - The buffer overflow attack is irrelevant to the OS vulnerabilities and architecture C - The buffer overflow attack is the most common attack of the software system. D - The buffer overflow attack is an application-layer attack.
D
75
``` Which are lower-layer physical devices of NFV framework? A - Storage device B - Network device C - Server D - Air conditioning system ```
A B C
76
Which of the following statements regarding the LSA age field are true? (Multiple Choice) A - The unit of this field Is seconds. In a LSDB, the LS age of a LSA decreases with time. B - The unit of this field is seconds. In a L5DB, the LS age of LSA increase with time. C - If the LS age of a LSA has reached the LSRefreshTime (30 minutes), the originator of this LSA needs to regenerate an instance of this LSA again. D - If the LS age of a LSA has reached the LS Refresh Time (30 minutes), any routers can regenerate an instance of this LSA again.
B C D
77
Which of the following statements regarding the firewall zone ts true? A - Different zones of firewall can use the same priority. B - A firewall interface can belong to different C - Different firewall interfaces can belong to the same zone D - The default firewall zone can be deleted
C
78
Which of the following statements regarding preemption in static LACP mode are true? (Multiple Choice) A - Preemption in static LACP mode is enabled by default. B - When a high-priority interface switches to the Inactive interface due to a fault and then Is restored, if preemption is enabled, the restored high-priority interface becomes the active interface after a delay. If preemption is disabled, the interface cannot become the active interface. C - To prevent unstable transmission due to frequent link status changes, can set a preemption delay. D - If the preemption delays at both ends are different, the larger preemption delay is used
A C
79
Which of the following scenarios is a loop test applicable to? A - to test whether applications are properly connected. B - to test whether a routing can prevent loops. C - to test whether a switch can prevent loops and broadcast. D - to test whether a physical link is disconnected.
B
80
ASFF enables the firewall to support multi-channel protocols such as FTP and to define security policies for complex applications A - TRUE B - FALSE
True
81
According to RFC 2328, which of the following adjacency establishment processes on an OSPF router is true? A - Down, Init, 2-way, Exchange, Exstart, Loading, Full B - Down, Exstart, 2 way, Init, Exchange, Loading, Hull C - Down, Init, Exstart, Exchange, Loading, Full D - Down, Init, 2 way, Exstart, Exchange, Loading, Full
D
82
AN ABR IN AN OSPF TOTALLY STUB AREA DOES NOT FLOOD TYPE 3 LSA's TYPE 4 LSA's OR TYPE 5 LSA's WITHIN THIS AREA. WITHIN THIS AREA TO INSTRUCT HOW TO TRANSMIT PACKETS TO A DESTINATION OUTSIDE AN AS. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
83
A route-policy can have multiple nodes, and each node can have multiple if-match and apply clauses. Which of the following statements are false? (Multiple Choice) A - The operator between nodes Is OR, B - The operator between nodes is AND. C - The operator between if-match clauses under a node is AND D - The operator between if-match clauses under a node is OR
B C
84
Which of the following statements regarding the VRRP master is false? A - The VRRP master periodically sends VRRP packets. B - The VRRP master uses the virtual MAC address to respond to ARP Request packets destined for the virtual IP address. C - The VRRP master forwards IP packets destined for the virtual MAC address. D - Even if the router becomes the master, the backup router with a higher priority preempts to be the master
D
85
A DHCP server supports various types of address allocation policy allocation policies to meet different requirement. Which of the following is not a correct address allocation policy? A - Automatic allocation B - Dynamic allocation C - Duplicated allocation D - Manual allocation
A
86
0SPF defines an area boundary on a router. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
87
In most cases, optical power is expressed in dbm, which of the following values in dbm is supported by most optical transceiver devices to receive and identify data ? A - -30DBM B - -10DBM C - 10DBM D - 30DBM
A
88
BGP AS_PATH attribute is an optional transitive attribute. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
89
OSPF runs on TCP protocol and uses TCP port number 179. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
90
When BGP path load balancing is not enabled, which type of BGP routes will be sent to BGP peers? A - All BGP routes learned from all BGP peer B - Routes learned only from an IBGP peer C - Routes learned only from an EBGP peer D - Optimal route preferred by BGP
A
91
Which of the following statements regarding well-known attributes are true? A - Well-known attributes include well-known mandatory attributes and well-known transitive attributes B - BGP must identify all well-known attributes C - Well-known mandatory attributes can be identified by all BGP routers and must be carried in update messages D - Well-known discretionary attributes can be identified by all BGP routers but do not necessary to be carried in update messages
B C D
92
The device installation procedure is as follows: tool -> Install mounting ears -> installing floating nuts and guide rails based on the requirements -> installed the device in the cabinet. A - TRUE B - FALSE
False
93
Which of the following statements regarding BGp route reliability is true? A - BGP routes do not need to be periodically updated. B - BGP sends complete routing table information during each router update. C - BGP periodically sends Open messages to detect TCP connectivity. D - BGP updates routes in multicast mode.
A
94
LDP session is used to exchange messages between LSRs, such as label mapping and release messages. Which of the following statements regarding the LDAP the LDP session establishment process are true? A - Two LSRs send Hello messages to each other trigger the establishment of LDP session. B - Keepalive messages are used to monitor the TCP connection integrity of LDP sessions. C - Keepalive message are used to monitor the TCP connection integrity of LDP sessions. D - When the ingress LSR receive a label mapping message, an session is established
B C D
95
A DDoS attack indicates that an attacker controls many botnet hosts to send a large number of constructed attack packets, As a result, the attacked device rejects request of authorized users. A - TRUE B - FALSE
True
96
``` An attacker sends ICMP Request packets with the destination address as the broadcast address of the attacked user host. What is this attack? A - IP spoofing attack B - Smurf attack C - ICMP redirection attack D - SYN Flood attack ```
B
97
Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF protocol is false? A - After a router receives a Network-Summary-LSA, this router runs a SPF algorithm. B - Network-LSA describes link state information of broadcast and NBMA segment. C - A virtual connection is a virtual link that belongs to the backbone area (Area 0). D - Type 4 LSA describes how to reach an A5BR, including routing and topology information
A
98
The AS_Path attributes take effect within an AS. Therefore, a BGP router will not advertise any Update message receives from an IBGP peer to other IBGP peers. A - TRUE B - FALSE
True

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