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ET ABSN > 307 CH 19/22/23/24 > Flashcards

307 CH 19/22/23/24 Flashcards

1
Q

A person with a neurocognitive disorder or depression may exhibit what disease?

A

Bradykinesia

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2
Q

A person under the influence of a stimulant drug or having a manic episode may exhibit what disease?

A

Hyperkinesia

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3
Q

What are the 5 levels of consciousness?

A

Alert
Lethargy
Obtunded
Stupor
Coma

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4
Q

Difference in speech pertaining to depression? How about speech patterns related to Mania?

A

With depression the speech is slow and with mania the speech is louder and accelerated.

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5
Q

What do we look at when assessing speech and language?

A

Quantity
Rate
Loudness
Articulation of Words
Fluency

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6
Q

What is aphasia?

A

A disorder of language.

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7
Q

how do you test for Aphasia?

A

Word comprehension
repetition
naming
reading comprehension
writing

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8
Q

What does the assessment of thought content include?

A

Delusions
Obsessions
Phobias
Suicidal

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9
Q

Assessments used for Attention and Concentration

A

Digit Span
Serial 7s
Spelling Backward.

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10
Q

Does remote memory or recent memory get impaired in the late stages of dementia?

A

Remote Memory

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11
Q

Describe the new learning ability for memory assessments.

A

Give patient 3-4 words to repeat back in a span of about 3-4 minutes. So… Ice.. Watermelon… Pineapple..

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12
Q

MMSE

A

Mini Mental State Examination
-Screening cognitive dysfunction or dementia.

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13
Q

A person who scores 0-17 on the MMSE would have what?

A

Severe cognitive Impairment

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14
Q

What health promotion screenings are done during a mental status assessment?

A

Screening for anxiety
Screening for PTSD
Screening for Depression
Screening for risk of Suicide
Screening for substance use disorders, including alcohol and prescription drugs

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15
Q

What condition may be a spectrum disorder in patients with ANXIETY, depression, or somatic symptoms

A

Chronic Pain

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16
Q

Symptoms of generalized anxiety include what?

A

difficulty relaxing
annoyed or irritable
feeling fearful bad things will occur
restless and unable to sit still
unable to control worrying
feeling nervous, anxious, or on edge.

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17
Q

T/F Anxiety disorders occur in isolation?

A

F. They do not always occur in isolation.

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18
Q

Treatments for Generalized anxiety include what?

A

relax techniques
Stress manangement
Support Systems
Exercises
Counceling
medications

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19
Q

What do the symptoms of PTSD include

A

Flashbacks
nightmares
isolation
disruptive behaviors
fear
anger
trigger sensitivity

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20
Q

What screening is commonly used for depression in adults?

A

The Patient Health Questionnaire

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21
Q

What screening tool is used for older adults?

A

Geriatric Depression Scale for older adults

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22
Q

Screening for depression in pregnant woman?

A

Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale

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23
Q

What are the risk factors for Suicide?

A

Gender ( Males at higher risk for suicide success.)
Race (White people make up 90% of cases)
Age (Younger people attempt suicide more)

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24
Q

What are the EARLY signs of depression?

A

Low self esteem
loss of pleasure in daily activities
Sleep disorders
Difficulty concentrating
Difficulty making decisions

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25
Q

What is Anhedonia?

A

Loss of pleasure in daily activities (early sign of depression)

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26
Q

What does DAST stand for?

A

Drug and Alcohol Abuse Screening Test

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27
Q

What does AUDIT stand for?

A

The Alcohol Use Disorder Identification Test

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28
Q

Chapter 22

A

Putting the Physical Examination together

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29
Q

In General what order is a complete head to toe done?

A

Cephalic to Caudal and comparing side to side for symmetry. (p823)

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30
Q

At what part of the Physical examination do we take Vital Signs?

A

At the end of the history interview

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31
Q

What is CN VIII?

A

The Acoustic nerve otherwise known as the vestibulocochlear nerve

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32
Q

What is CN III

A

Oculomotor

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33
Q

What is CN IV

A

Trochlear Nerve

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34
Q

What is CN VI

A

Abducens

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35
Q

CN II

A

Optic Nerve

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36
Q

Walk through the Physical Eye examination

A

Inspect:
Eyelids
Eyelashes
Eyebrows
Lacrimal Apparatus
Conjunctiva
Sclera for color
Cornea and Lens
Iris for color
Pupils for Perla
Test visual fields
Eye Muscle Exam
6 cardinal directions of gaze
Convergence
Near Reaction (accommodation)
Cover Uncover Test
Ophthalmoscope examination
Optic Disc
Retina
Arteries

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37
Q

Inspect position, edema, color, lesions, closure

A

Eyelids

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38
Q

Inspect for quantity and distribution?

A

Eyelashes
&
Eyebrows

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39
Q

Inspect for swelling, drainage, dryness and crusting

A

The Lacrimal apparatus

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40
Q

Inspect for color, nodules or lesions

A

Conjunctiva

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41
Q

Inspect for visual patterns, nodules or lesions

A

Sclera

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42
Q

Inspect opacities?

A

Cornea and lens

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43
Q

Inspect crescentic shadow and color

A

Iris

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44
Q

CN connected to the 6 cardinal directions of gaze?

A

CN III

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45
Q

What do we need to inspect for the posterior thorax?

A

Shape
Deformities
Retractions
Symmetry
Skin integrity

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46
Q

What do we need to palpate for?

A

Tenderness
Tactile fremitus
Respiration expansion

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47
Q

T/F you may assess the patients CVA tenderness while standing OR sitting?

A

True you can assess from either position.

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48
Q

Chapter 23

A

Assessing Children

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49
Q

T/F A Childs development proceeds along a predictable pathway?

A

True

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50
Q

Who are the biggest agents of health promotion for children?

A

Their Parents

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51
Q

What is covered during a general survey of a child?

A

Measuring the Infants body size: Weight, length, head circumference and vital signs such as pulse, respritory and temperature.

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52
Q

At age 3 what vital sign can we include?

A

Blood pressure

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53
Q

What are chronic conditions in infants that can cause reduced length or height?

A

Neurologic, renal, cardiac, gastrointestinal and endocrine disorders as well as cystic fibrosis

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54
Q

What is Failure to thrive describe?

A

Inadequate weight gain for age.

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55
Q

Some scenarios that cause children failure to thrive include

A

Growth below 5% for age
Growth drop greater than two quartiles in 6 months
Weight for height below fifth%

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56
Q

Causes of Failure to thrive include

A

Environmental
psychosocial factors
gastrointestinal
Neurologic
And Cardiac
Endocrine
Renal
And others.

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57
Q

What is microcephaly?

A

Premature closure of the sutures causing a small head size.

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58
Q

Macrocephaly?

A

Abnormally large size head

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59
Q

Potential causes of Macrocephaly?

A

Hydrocephalus, subdural hematoma or rare causes like brain tumor or inherited syndromes.

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60
Q

T/F is familial megaloencephaly a benign condition with normal brain growth?

A

TRUE

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61
Q

What are causes of sustained hypertension in infants?

A

Renal artery disease
aka (stenosis or thrombosis) congenital renal malformations
Coarctation of the aorta

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62
Q

average heart rate an infant from birth-2 months and the range/min

A

HR-140 Range/min-90-165

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63
Q

0-6 Months Heart rate and range/min

A

HR 130 Range/min 80-175

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64
Q

6-12 months Heart Range and Range/min

A

HR 115 Range/min 75-170

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65
Q

What is the most common dysrhythmia in children?

A

Paroxysmal supra ventricular tachycardia (SVT)

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66
Q

How do infants present with SVT?

A

Some can look well or pale with tachypnea but have a heart rate of 240 beats/min or greater.
Other infants look ill and are in cardiovascular collapse.

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67
Q

T/F SVT in infants is sustained requiring medical therapy to convert to a normal rate and rhythm.

A

True.

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68
Q

In older children the episodes of varying duration and frequency of SVT symptoms is called what?

A

Truly paroxysmal.

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69
Q

Can hypertension begin in childhood?

A

Yes!

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70
Q

What age group is most likely to have primary or essential hypertension?

A

Adolescents

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71
Q

T/F Children tend to say in the same age group as they age?

A

True.

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72
Q

What pulse rate would indicate PSVT?

A

usually greater than 180/ min

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73
Q

Tachypnea and increased respiratory effort in an infant are signs of lower respiratory disease such as what?

A

Bronchiolitis or pneumonia

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74
Q

What temperature indicates serious infection or disease in infants (Younger than 2) and require prompt evaluation?

A

100.4 degrees

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75
Q

What could cause temperature instability in newborns?

A

sepsis, metabolic abnormality or other serious condition.

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76
Q

What does central cyanosis in a baby or child of any age indicate?

A

Congenital heart disease.

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77
Q

What should we worry about if jaundice persists beyond 2-3 weeks?

A

Biliary obstruction or liver disease.

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78
Q

Why would an infant show signs of dehydration?

A

Insufficient intake or excess loss of fluids from diarrhea

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79
Q

Isolated and pigmented light brown lesions (less than1-2cm) are what?

A

Cafe-Au-Lait Spots

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80
Q

Difference between neurofibromatosis and cafe-Au-Lait spots?

A

Neurofibromatosis have sharp borders and multiple lesions

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81
Q

What is a salmon patch and what patient presents with this skin condition?

A

Infants present with a salmon patch that is a vascular marking and result from distended capillaries.

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82
Q

Stork bite, angel kisses, nevus simplex are all names for what skin condition?

A

salmon patch.

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83
Q

Common among dark skinned babies and important to deduct that they are not bruises?

A

Mongolian spots.

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84
Q

What is Erythema Toxicum?

A

Common yellow or white pustules that are surrounded by a red base. Found on the face.

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85
Q

Red pustules and papule are most prominent over the cheeks and nose of some normal newborns.

A

Neonatal Acne

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86
Q

The Salmon red, scaly eruption often involves the face, neck, axilla, diaper area, and behind the ears.

A

Seborrhea

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87
Q

Erythema, scaling, dry skin, and intense itching characterize this condition in infants.

A

Atopic Dermatitis (Eczema)

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88
Q

This bright red rash involves the intertriginous folds, with small “satellite lesions” along the edges

A

Candidal Diaper Dermatitis

89
Q

The irritant rash is secondary to diarrhea or irritation and is noted along the contact areas (here, the area touching the diaper)

A

Contact diaper dermatitis

90
Q

This infections is due to bacteria and can appear bulbous or crusty and yellowed with come pus

A

Impetigo

91
Q

A child with abnormal shape or length of palpebral fissures shortness of this fissure indicates what?

A

Fetal Alcohol effects.

92
Q

Facial characteristics of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome ?

A

Short palpebral fissures, a wide and flattened philtrum (the vertical groove in the midline of the upper lip, thin lips.

93
Q

What is Echolalia?

A

Children on the Autism spectrum use this speech recognition, they repeat others words or sentences. When children repeat things right after they hear them this is called Echolalia.

94
Q

In what condition, is the nasal passages in newborns obstructed by bone or membranes in the Choana (Back of the nasal passage)

A

Choanal atresia

95
Q

What is the most important assessment of the sinus and nose of the child?

A

Patency

96
Q

What is it called when an infant has trouble breathing through their mouth?

A

Obligate nasal breathers

97
Q

T/F you should occlude both nares of the infant at the same time

A

FALSE

98
Q

Inspect the Nose to ensure the nasal septum is?

A

Midline.

99
Q

What does a progressive increase in deep tendon reflexes within the first year of infancy suggest?

A

Central nervous system disease such as cerebral palsy, especially if it’s coupled with increased tone.

100
Q

are deep tendon reflexes in infants reliable diagnostic source?

A

NO, the corticospinal pathways may not be fully developed.

101
Q

What tool is used at the instrument for testing reflexes of infants?

A

The doctors finger.

102
Q

If an infant has no anal reflex what does this suggest?

A

Loss of innervation of the external sphincter muscles.

103
Q

What is loss of the innervation of the external sphincter muscles caused by?

A

A spinal cord abnormality such as, spina bifida, tumors or injury.

104
Q

Babinski response

A

a response to plantar stimulation
Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning of the other toes)

105
Q

When contractions are continuous (sustained ankle clonus) what should be suspected in the infant?

A

central nervous system CNS disease.

106
Q

another name for infantile automatisms

A

primitive reflexes

107
Q

What do the primitive reflexes include?

A

Palmar grasp reflex
Plantar grasp reflex
Moro reflex (startle reflex)
Asymmetric tonic neck reflex
Positive support reflex
Rooting Reflex
Trunk incurvation (Galant) reflex
Stepping reflex
Landau reflex
Parachute reflex

108
Q

-Hold baby hand watch for them to grasp finger is what reflex?
- Persistence of a palmar grasp reflex beyond 4 months suggests what?

A

(Palmer grasp reflex)
pyramidal tract dysfunction-

109
Q

Touch the soles at base of toes, toes curl (6-8month) what primitive reflex is this?

A

(Plantar grasp reflex)
Persistence of a plantar grasp reflex beyond 8 months suggests what?pyramidal tract dysfunction

110
Q

Holding baby supine supporting the head and back and legs abruptly lower the body 2 ft (birth-4month)
If baby has an asymmetric response what does this suggest?

A

Fracture of the clavicle, humerus or brachial plexus injury.

111
Q

with the baby supine turn the head to to one side , holding jaw over shoulder. The side the head is turned arm and leg will extend while the opposite arm and leg will flex.

(Birth-2 month)

A

persistence beyond 2 months suggest what?
asymmetric CNS development can predict the development of cerebral palsy

112
Q

During a positive support reflex test Lack of reflex in infants suggests?

A

Hypotonia or Flaccidity– (Asymmetric tonic neck reflex)

113
Q

Fixed extension and adduction of legs suggests spasticity from a neurologic disease named what?

A

Cerebral palsy–(Positive Support Reflex)

114
Q

What does absence of rooting in infants indicates?

A

severe generalized or CNS disease–(Rooting Reflex)

115
Q

An infant has no trunk incurvation what does this suggest?

A

transverse spinal cord lesion or injury and persistence with this could mean delayed development.–(Trunk incurvation (Galant) reflex

116
Q

During the Stepping reflex test An infant with absence of stepping may indicate what?

A

Paralysis

117
Q

Laying baby in your hand and letting them pick up both head and legs like superman is what primitive reflex? (birth-6 month)

A

Landau reflex– persistence may indicate delayed development.

118
Q

suspend baby prone and forward arms and legs will extend in a protective motion (4-6) month does not disappear?

A

Parachute reflex– Delay in appearance may predict delays in voluntary motor development.

119
Q

When would we see transient hypertension in children?

A

with them taking medications for asthma and ADHD

120
Q

Why would a child have sustained hypertension?

A

Renal parenchymal or artery disease.

121
Q

Interpret children’s BMI

A

Underweight — <5th percentile
Healthy weight — 5th to <85th percentile
Overweight— 85 to <95th percentile
Obesity— >95%
Severe Obesity—>120% of the 95th percentile.

122
Q

if you hear three sounds including the Korotkoff during blood pressure what do you record?

A

(98/62/0) Three sounds.

123
Q

Pulse Rates of Children at rest

A

1-2 year 115-125.
2-6 year 95-115.
6-10 year 85-95.

124
Q

Heart rate less than 100 beats per minute in infants and toddlers and less than 60 beats per minute in children 3-9 years old indicate what?

A

Sinus Bradycardia

125
Q

Average RR of children?

A

early childhood 20-40
15-20 in late childhood.

126
Q

What is the single best physical finding for ruling out pneumonia?

A

Absence of tachypnea

127
Q

symptoms of bronchiolitis or pneumonia?

A

Rapid respirations increased work of breathing like grunting and nasal flaring or use of accessory muscles.

128
Q

Preferred method of temperature for children?

A

Auditory canal or temporal artery.

129
Q

Verruca Vulgaris?

A

Dry, rough, warts on hands

130
Q

Verruca Plana

A

Small, flat warts

131
Q

Plantar Warts?

A

Tender warts on feet

132
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

Dome, shaped fleshy lesions

133
Q

Adolescent Acne?

A

Open comedones and closed comedones and inflamed pustules on bottom.

134
Q

Insect Bites?

A

Intensely Pruritic, red, distinct papule characterize these lesions.

135
Q

Urticaria (Hives)?

A

This pruritic, allergic sensitivity reaction changes shape quickly

136
Q

Tinea Capitis?

A

Scaling and crusting and hair loss are seen along the scalp. Along with painful plaque and occipital lymph node (arrow)

137
Q

Tinea Corporis

A

This annular lesion has central clearing and papule along the border.

138
Q

Scabies

A

Intensely itchy papule and vesicles, sometimes burrows, most often on extremities.

139
Q

Pityriasis Rosea

A

Oval lesions on trunk in older children often in a pine tree pattern.

140
Q

what can Amblyopia lead to?

A

Lazy eye and reduced visual acuity.

141
Q

Expected visual acuity?

A

3 months — Eyes converge, baby reaches for object
12 month — -20/200
Younger than 4 years old — 20/40
4 years and older — 20/30

142
Q

Where is the external auditory canal located?

A

Directed downwards similar to infants and the auricle must be pulled downward and back.

143
Q

Two ways to hold an otoscope

A

Holding handle facing downwards or with the handle facing upwards.

144
Q

Red, bulging tympanic membrane with a dull or absent light reflex

A

Acute otitis media

145
Q

Does movement of the auricle elicit pain with the otitis external or the otitis media?

A

Otitis externa

146
Q

The auricle may protrude forward and outward and the area over the mastoid bone is red swollen and tender

A

Acute mastoiditis

147
Q

Physical and Motor milestones of early childhood

A

1yr Walks, 2-3 words, plays peek a boo
2yr. throws, 2-3 word phrase Imitates activities
3yr Jumps in place balances on one foot, sentences, feeds self
4yr hops pedals trike, speech all understandable, imaginative sings
5yr skips balances well, copies figures defines words, dresses self, plays games.

148
Q

Pale and boggy nasal mucous membranes are found in children with what?

A

Perennial- Alergic rhinitis.

149
Q

Common findings of strep throat?

A

Erythema of the posterior pharynx and palatal petechiae (on top) with a foul smelling exudate (bottom) is noted.

150
Q

Where would we auscultate patent ductus arteriosus

A

upper left sternal border and to left radiation. Sometimes to the back.

151
Q

Where would we auscultate for atrial septal defect?

A

Upper left sternal border with radiation to the back.

152
Q

Location on a child of a Still murmur?

A

Mid/lower left sternal border

153
Q

venous hum location?

A

under clavicle

154
Q

Carotid bruit location?

A

carotids

155
Q

pulmonary flow murmur

A

supine position loudest at the pulmonary auscultation area.

156
Q

T/F the purpose of confidentiality is to keep secrets not improve healthcare?

A

FALSE the purpose of confidentiality is to improve the quality of healthcare

157
Q

What does HEEADSSS assess for?

A

Home
Education/Employment
Eating
Activities
Drugs and alcohol
Sexuality
Suicide depression and self-harm
Safety from injury and violence
This is to assess teenagers at risk for risky behaviors.

158
Q

What is Tanner Stages for Females?

A

over a 44 year period the rests progress through 5 stages called Tanner Stages.

159
Q

Preadolescents- Only a small elevated nipple what tanner stage is this?

A

1

160
Q

breast bud stage is a small mound of breast and nipple develops (areola widens) what stage is this?

A

2 11-12 Years old

161
Q

breast and areola enlarge one flush against the other what Tanner stage is this?

A

3 12-13 Years old

162
Q

the areola and nipple form a secondary mound over the breast what stage is this?

A

4 13-15 Years old

163
Q

Mature breast what Tanner stage?

A

5 Older than 15 years old

164
Q

Thelarche

A

Normal range of breast development

165
Q

SMR of boys and girls is?

A

Sexual Maturity Ratings

166
Q

Tanner stages of boys

A

Stage 1 Starts at 10 years old
Stage 2 11.5-12.5 Years old
Stage 3 12.5-13.5 Years Old
Stage 4 13.5-15 Years Old
Stage 5 Older than 15 years old

167
Q

How does a teen ager get hepatomegaly?

A

infections like hepatitis mononucleosis inflammatory bowel disease or tumors

168
Q

Most common cause of delayed puberty?

A

constitutional delay.

169
Q

What evaluations for scoliosis are there?

A

Adams forward bend test if detected then use a scoliometer to test for the degree of scoliosis. Greater than 7 degrees is cause for concern.

170
Q

Other evaluations for scoliosis

A

Plumb line.

171
Q

Apparent scoliosis including abnormal plumb line test can be caused by a leg length discrepancy T/F?

A

TRUE.

172
Q

What is pertussis

A

whooping cough it’s highly contagious respiratory tract infection that’s marked by severe hacking cough followed by a high pitched intake of breath that sounds like “whoop”

173
Q

Normal attention span for age

A

2 years is 4-6 minutes
4 years is 8-12 minutes
6 year is 12-18 minutes
8 years is 16-24 minutes
10 years is 20-30 minutes
12 years is 24-36 minutes
14 years is 28-42 minutes
16 years is 32-48 minutes

174
Q

What happens to temperature regulation in older adults?

A

RR and temp are unchanged in older adulthood but changes in temperature regulation lead to a susceptibility to hypothermia.

175
Q

What are some age related skin conditions for older adults?

A

Skin Wrinkles
Skin Lax
loses turgor
vascularity of the dermis decreases causing lighter skin to look pale and opaque
Skin might have purple patches or macules (Actinic Purpura) they fade over time.

176
Q

Actinic Purpura why does it disappear overtime?

A

They come from blood that has leaked through the capillary that’s poorly supported and spread out under the dermis.

177
Q

Congestive heart failure

A

Your heart is not pumping blood well enough to give your body supply, overtime blood collects in your lungs and legs causing swelling that need medications to control.

178
Q

How does aging affect vascular sounds like those in the neck?

A

Adds to the significance of an extra heart sound like S3 and S4

179
Q

T/F after age 40 the S3 suggests heart failure

A

True

180
Q

what condition causes overload of the left ventricle?

A

Heart failure or valvular heart disease (mitral regurgitation)

181
Q

T/F you can hear a S4 sound on well conditioned athletes?

A

TRUE

182
Q

Distinguish aortic stenosis from aortic sclerosis

A

Using a brisk carotid upstroke
Aortic stenosis has a delayed carotid upstroke.

183
Q

Impedes normal valve closure during systole, causing the systolic murmur of what?

A

Mitral Regurgitation. Volume overload increase in the LVentricle.

184
Q

SPICES stands for what?

A

Sleep disorders
Problems with eating or feeding
Incontinence
Confusion
Evidence of falls
Skin breakdown
This mnemonic focuses on frequent geriatric syndromes of the older adult

185
Q

What is a geriatric syndromes?

A

serious issues for older adults and is often related to functional decline. They impact quality of life big time.

186
Q

Vision
Hearing
Leg Mobility
Urinary Incontinence
Nutrition/Weight loss
Memory
Depression
Physical disability
What screening is this?

A

The 10 minute Geriatric Screener.

187
Q

Positive Vision Screen?

A

Inability to read greater than 20/40 on the Snellen chart

188
Q

Positive hearing screen?

A

inability to hear 1000-2000Hz in both ears or either of these frequencies in one ear

189
Q

Positive leg mobility screening?

A

Unable to complete task in 15 seconds
tasks are rise from the chair and walk 20 ft briskly and come back and sit down.

190
Q

Positive urinary incontinence screen?

A

yes to questions like in the past year have you been unable to hold your urine and gotten wet?

191
Q

Positive screen for nutrition and weight loss?

A

Have you lost 10lbs over the past 6 months without trying to do so? If they say yes or are less than 100 pounds the test is positive.

192
Q

positive screen for memory?

A

Three item recall and a positive screen would be the patient cannot remember all three items.

193
Q

positive screen for depression?

A

Ask if they often feel sad or depressed? if they say yes that’s a positive sign for depression.

194
Q

positive screen for physical disability?

A

6 questions are you unable to… Yes to any of these is a positive screen.

195
Q

Risk factors for adverse drug reactions for older adults include what?

A

4 or more comorbid conditions
heart failure renal failure or liver disease
80 or older
number of drugs if 8 or more
use warfarin insulins oral anti platelet agents
previous adverse drug reaction
hyperlipidemia
raised of white cell count
use of anti diabetic agents
length of stay 12 days or longer.

196
Q

What does a through med HX include?

A

name, dose, frequency, patients view of the reason they take each drug.

197
Q

What are the physical activities of ADL’s?

A

Bathing
Dressing
Toileting
Transferring
Continence
Feeding

198
Q

What are the instrumental activities of ADL’s

A

Using the Telephone
Shopping
Preparing food
Housekeeping
Doing Laundry
Transportation including driving, taking medicine and managing money

199
Q

DRIP what does it do and what does it mean?

A

D: Delirium
R: Restricted mobility, retention
I: Infection, inflammation, impaction
P: Polyuria, Pharmaceuticals
It assesses potential causes of transient incontinence.

200
Q

What is PLISS IT and what does it assess for?

A

P: Obtaining PERMISSION from the client to initiate sexual discussion
LI: Providing the limited information needed to function sexually.
SS: Giving specific suggestions for the individual to proceed with sexual relations
IT:Providing intensive therapy surrounding the issues of sexuality for client.

201
Q

PLISS IT

A

To initiate the discussion of Sex.

202
Q

Why is not smoking crucial for older adults?

A

reduce the risk of heart disease, pulmonary disease, malignancy and loss of daily function

203
Q

The AUDIT C what is it and what does is screen for?

A

It is used to determine risky drinking

204
Q

What does a score of 1 on the AUDIT C screen tell us about the patient?

A

little to no alcohol use in men a score of 4 or less is positive.

205
Q

What does a 12 score on the AUDIT C screen tell us?

A

drinking is GREATLY affecting the clients health and safety.

206
Q

What’s assessed in the General survey?

A

Pt’s gait to the chair, move onto exam table? changes in posture or involuntary movements? Hygiene and dress, assess the patients apparent state of health, degree of vitality and mood and affect.

207
Q

Frailty is suggested from what?

A

Undernutrition
Loss of muscle mass
weakness
slowed motor performance.

208
Q

kyphosis or abnormal gait can impair balance and increase risk of falls T/F

A

True

209
Q

When do we see flat, impoverished affect?

A

Depression, Alzheimer’s or Parkinson disease

210
Q

Solar or Actinic lentigines are what?

A

Liver spots

211
Q

Melanoma?

A

A dark raised asymmetric lesion with irregular borders

212
Q

Cherry angionomas?

A

Appear early in adulthood

213
Q

Hyperthyroidism and related health problems

A

Causes of hyperthyroidism are graves disease and toxic multi nodular goiter.

214
Q

Describe stress incontinence

A

increased pressure on abdominal area.

215
Q

describe urge incontinence

A

Involuntary contraction of the bladder

216
Q

describe overflow incontinence

A

due to blockage of urethra

217
Q

describe neurogenic incontinence

A

due to impaired functioning of the nervous system. FUNCTIONAL changes.

218
Q

Metabolic syndrome risk factors?

A

Abdominal obesity
high blood pressure
impaired fasting glucose
high triglyceride levels
low HDL cholesterol levels.

ET ABSN (4 decks)

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