JCAB Q'S Flashcards
Dimensions of the B767
Wingspan: (non-winglet) 47.57m 156 feet 1inch
Wingspan: (winglet) 50.88m 166 feet 11 inch
Length: 54.94m 180 ft 3 inch
Height: 15.85m 52 feet
- How many checklists require memory items:CLARIFY
There are 11 checklists that require memory items (Abort for Airspeed & APU fire + the Cabin has Dual controllers, 4Engine, FU)
- Aborted engine start
- Airspeed / Mach unreliable
- APU fire
- Cabin altitude / Rapid depressurisation
- Dual engine failure
- Engine fire
- Engine limit / surge / stall
- Engine severe damage / separation
- Engine tail pipe fire
- Flight deck door / auto unlock light flashing
- Unscheduled stabiliser trim
How many un-annunciated non-normal checklists are there?
31 checklists (examples… Aborted engine start, engine surge/limit/stall, unreliable airspeed)
What are the 7 scenarios that require an emergency landing?
- One main hydraulic system remaining
- One main AC power source remaining
- When trouble occurs in the altimeter, and a correct altitude cannot be confirmed with related procedures or a standby altimeter
- The non-normal checklist contains the words “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”
- Cabin smoke or fire which cannot be immediately and positively determined to be extinguished or eliminated
- Engine failure or engine fire
- Any other situation where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued (illegal activity, sick passenger)
- What checklists contain the words “Plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”?
- PACK OFF (if both packs have failed)
- Window damage
- AC BUS OFF (if both BUS OFF lights remain illuminated)
- Engine failure / shutdown
- Reverser unlocked (if REV is annunciated and accompanied by yaw, loss of speed or buffet)
- Volcanic ash
- APU FIRE
- CARGO FIRE
- ENGINE FIRE
- WHEEL WELL FIRE
- Smoke / fire / fumes
- LOW FUEL
- HYD PRESS (when only one system remaining)
- TAIL STRIKE
- What is the difference between the windshear escape manoeuver and the GPWS escape manoeuver?
- The windshear manoeuver can be flown manually or automatically
- The GPWS manoeuver is ALWAYS flown manually
- The initial pitch attitude for windshear is 15 degrees
- The initial pitch attitude for GPWS is 20 degrees
- Windshear follows FD commands, whereas GPWS doesn’t and can go up to PLI
- If positive visual verification is made under day VMC prior to PULL UP warning, correct the flight path immediately until the aural
warning stops - Reason for making 15 deg NU for w/shear – higher the pitch attitude the higher the windshear recover ability is, but at the same time
need to consider stick shaker margin – therefore 15 deg is a compromise on both recovery ability and stick shaker margin. - PWS “GO-AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD” – during approach, normal go-around ok.
What is VMO / MMO?
Winglet equipped 340 / 0.86M
Winglet not equipped 360 / 0.86M
What is the maximum crosswind limit for a wet ungrooved runway?
20kts
- When is the EICAS message cross-reference list used?
- Prior to block out: Used to confirm the appropriate MEL for the displayed EICAS message
- After block out but prior to the beginning of the take-off: Referred to make a decision to continue the flight or return to
blocks for displayed EICAS message after NNC completed.
NB Does not apply if adequate maintenance action has been carried out such as application of MEL, or the
message is a status message confirmed by maintenance as nuisance.
! GTB – No dispatch
! GTB (PIC) – The associated MEL contains any maintenance action/operational requirement turn back unless PIC
makes a decision to continue the flight based on his experience or referring the information from maintenance or
dispatch.
! FP/OP – Flight can be continued if the operational requirement (flight plan or operation procedure) of associated
MEL is satisfied. The list of associated criteria for FP/OP is contained at back of x-ref list.
! MAY GO – The flight may continue without restriction
! Display of EICAS Warning, Caution, Advisory after block-out prior to beginning of take-off – refer to x-ref list (after
completion of NNC).
! Display of Status Message after block out prior to take-off – may disregard after completion of both engines
starting.
- What causes the APU to perform an automatic protective shutdown (pack control selector switches)?
When both pack control selectors are turned off quickly, high outlet bleed air is turned off very quickly, and bleed air in the duct can
surge and reverse. Therefore turn off one pack, and when the corresponding pack off light illuminates, the other pack control selector
may be turned off
Following an APU automatic protective shutdown, can the APU be immediately restarted?
No - The APU cannot start until the air inlet door is closed. This will take approximately 30 seconds
- If the APU performs an automatic protective shutdown during a pushback, what are some considerations?
If the particular APU has a history of auto-shutdowns, select the APU bleed air switch off first, then turn off the packs, then turn the
APU bleed back on for engine start.
APU auto-shutdown cause by fluctuation of bleed duct pressure duct pressure and surging. The outlet of bleed air is momentary
sealed causing an upsurging and back-pressure of the APU compressor section.
- The APU cannot be restarted for approx. 30 seconds due to the inlet door closing
- The parking brake can still be set
- The interphone system is still powered
- The passenger address system is still powered
- Only the left VHF is powered
- The instrument panel floodlights, the standby magnetic compass light, integral lights for essential instruments on the left side and
centre panel and overhead panels are automatically switched to the Standby AC bus. The aisle stand light is also available. This will
be the only lighting available, so the flight deck will be relatively dark
What are the APU starter cycle limitations?
The starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within a 60-minute period
- What is the maximum crosswind limit on a grooved wet runway?
25kts
The FMC will provide navigation, guidance, and map display between which latitudes?
Between 87 degrees north and 87 degrees south
- The IRS will provide valid magnetic heading and track between which latitudes?
Between 73 degrees north and 60 degrees south IN NAV MODE
- What are some indications of volcanic ash?
(A FIRES AMBRSS)
- Smoke or ash in the cockpit or cabin
- A acrid smell similar to electrical smoke
- Multiple engine malfunctions such as stalls, increasing EGT, fluctuating parameters, torching from tailpipe etc.
- St. Elmo’s fire
- A bright orange glow in the engine inlets
ASH MAY BLOCK PITOT/STATIC SYS SO UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED OR COMPLETE LOSS AIRSPD INDICATION
- False cargo fire warnings
INCREASE CABIN ALT OR LOSS CABIN PRESS
- Shadows cast by the landing lights
- Impaired communications
- Reduction in visibility, or reduction in landing light effectiveness at night
- Abraison on windscreen
- EICAS messages FWD EQPT OVHT or FWD EQPT SMOKE may be displayed
4-3-7 (1)
- Do not land at airports effected by volcanic ash. If you do, don’t use max reverse thrust, ash on runway may effect braking, don’t use
windscreen wipers to remove ash, tow to gate, do not use APU, don’t use packs if possible.
NNC
- Exit volcanic ash ASAP 180 degree turn
- Oxygen masks On, 100%
- Smoke goggles On (If required)
- Auto-throttle OFF
- Thrust levers CLOSE (Reducing thrust = lower EGT preventing the melting of ash and solidification on turbine nozzles)
- Engine Start Selectors FLT
- Pack Control Selectors BOTH AUTO
- Recirc fans BOTH OFF (increases bleed air extraction by forcing packs to high flow)
- Engine Anti-Ice BOTH ON
- Wing Anti-ice ON (increases bleed air extraction, improves stall margin)
- APU START, then ON
Prevention
- Flight into known areas of volcanic ash should be avoided
- Difficult to detect at night
- Weather radars are not designed to detect volcanic ash
- Remain on upwind side of volcanic ash
- Review NOTAMS regarding current status of volcanic activity
What are some considerations after flying into volcanic ash?
- Close thrust levers to reduce EGT which will reduce or prevent the melting of ash and the molten solidification on the turbine nozzles
- Start the APU
- Slow start may be misinterpreted as hung start
- Avoid rough control of the thrust lever - engine blades may be corroded by volcanic ash leading to higher fuel flows and EGT
- If visibility is markedly reduced, consider a diversion to an airport where an autoland may be conducted
- Cargo fire indications
- Don’t use pax oxygen unless cabin is uncontrollable
- Monitor airspeed and pitch attitude
- Do not use wiper blades to remove ash
What ATC considerations exist following an ADC failure?
RVSM airspace is FL290 to FL410. A pilot shall promptly inform ATC when one of the two altitude measuring systems is not working.
After that, the Captain shall inform the flight dispatcher. For the B767, altitude data shall be displayed on both altimeters based on air
data from 2 different air data sources
Air-data computer failure in climb
1. After instrument source selector switch pushed, hand over control again to PF (if needed),
2. Check EICAS messages – ENG EEC MODE messages. Do checklist.
3. Considerations - Weather ok, but no longer RVSM with only one ADC remaining.
4. Notify ATC and follow their instruction.
5. Contact Flight Dispatcher.
6. May not be allowed to operate in RVSM (i.e >FL290). May need new flight plan for FL290, fuel required???
7. Destination still possible? Diversion?
8. FL290 only requires an additional 700lbs (compared to planned FL330) so there will be no worries making Kagoshima.
- If you encountered windshear after V1 but prior to VR, when would you rotate the aircraft? How would you do this?
If windshear is encountered near the normal rotation speed and airspeed suddenly decreases, there may not be sufficient runway left
to accelerate back to normal take-off speed. IF THERE IS INSUFFICIENT RUNWAY TO STOP, initiate a normal rotation at least
2000ft before the end of the runway even if airspeed is low. ENSURE MAXIMUM THRUST IS SET. Higher than normal attitudes may
be required to lift off in the remaining runway
- How would you know you are 2000ft from the end of the runway on take-off following windshear after V1 but before VR?
2000ft is 610m. On a runway greater than 2400m, the touchdown zone markings immediately prior to the aiming point markers are
located 600 meters from the end of the runway. If you are on the aiming point markers then you are only 400m from the end of the
runway, or 1300ft. If departing at night on a runway longer than 1800m, the runway edge lights will turn yellow at 600m, which is
approx. 2000ft. AIM-J 173
RCLL last 900m alt red and white, last 300m red lights
- When are the master cautions inhibited?
The master caution lights and aural beeper are inhibited for all cautions from 80kts to 400ft AGL or 20 seconds elapsed time from nose
gear extension. So, if a master caution occurs at 100kts and the take-off is continued, the master caution lights and beeper do not
activate, but the alert message will be displayed. (If prior to 80kts, they are activated and continue to alert and sound)
What is EICAS?
EICAS consolidates engine and subsystem indications and provides a centrally located crew alerting message display. EICAS also
displays status and maintenance information.
Three types of alerts
1. Warnings (Red)
2. Cautions (Amber)
3. Advisory (Amber, and only alert with no aural tone)
STATUS MSGS
COMMUNICATION ALERTS
What is the maximum speed for normal extension of the landing gear?
270kts / 0.82M
What is the maximum allowable crosswind for an autoland?
25kts
When can aileron trim be used?
Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited
At what speed will the RAT provide adequate flight controls?
The RAT provides adequate hydraulic power at speeds above 130kts (Effectively all stages of flight). TO FLT CONTROL PORTION OF C HYD SYS
- Provides hydraulic power to the flight controls portion of the centre hydraulic system. HYD PWR ONLY!!
- Uses fluid above the standpipe (whereas RSV Brakes uses fluid below)
- Deploys automatically when both engines fail.
Is antiskid available in the alternate brake system?
Yes, antiskid protection is provided in the normal AND alternate brake hydraulic systems. The normal brake system provides each main
gear wheel with individual antiskid protection. In the alternate system, antiskid protection is provided to laterally paired wheels.
- When glideslope and localiser have been captured, what are the 2 ways that approach mode can be cancelled?
By selecting GA mode, or by disengaging the autopilot and turning off both flight directors
- What is the maximum allowable difference between the Captain and Co-pilot’s altimeter on the ground for RVSM operation?
40ft MAX 75 FEET BETWEEN FIELD ELEV
- What is the maximum crosswind for a dry runway?
33kts
- What is the turbulence penetration speed?
290kts / 0.78M, whichever is lower (250kts, < FL150)<MLW
- What is the maximum speed for retraction of the landing gear?
270kts (there is no Mach number for obvious reasons)
- When will the G/A mode disengage during landing?
Both situations within 5’ RA & GA switch pushed
- > 2 seconds Pitch FLARE A/T GA
- < 2 seconds Pitch GA A/T IDLE
- What percentage of maximum rated thrust is available when selecting TO1 or TO2?
TO 1 is approx. 95% of maximum rated thrust and TO 2 approx. 85% of maximum rated take-off thrust. These values are for the -300,
and the -300ER and Freighter have a further 5% reduction
What is the GPWS escape manoeuver?
On activation of the “PULL UP”, or “TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP”, or “OBSTACLE OBSTACLE PULL UP” warning, accomplish the
following procedure:
- Disengage autopilot
- Disconnect autothrottle
- Aggressively apply maximum thrust
- Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude to 20 degree
- Set the speedbrake lever to down
- If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to pitch limit (if available), stick shaker or initial buffet
- Do not change flap or gear configuration until terrain separation is assured
- Monitor radio altimeter for sustained or increasing terrain separation
- When clear of terrain, slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate
What is the TCAS traffic avoidance procedure in the landing configuration?
For a CLIMB RA in a landing configuration, accomplish the following procedure:
- Autopilot disengage
- Autothrottle disconnect
- Thrust levers full forward
- Flaps 20
- Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command
- Verify a positive rate of climb on the altimeter and call gear up
Can the TCAS traffic avoidance manoeuver ever be accomplish with the autopilot?
No. When manoeuvring is required, the autopilot must be disengaged and the manoeuvre accomplished manually
What is the maximum allowable fuel load?
- Left and right main tanks: 42,671lbs
- Centre tank (-300ER / F): 84,490lbs
When is monitoring of the emergency frequency 121.500MHz required?
Basically for SAR & loss of comms with ATC (not to be confused with comms loss)
Aircraft should guard 121.500MHz except for an “unavoidable situation”. This may be due to:
- Aircraft are carrying out communications on the other VHF channel
- Cockpit duties do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels
- Airborne equipment limitations do not permit simultaneous guarding of two channels
- What items are required to be taken off the aircraft in an evacuation?
Even though crewmembers have to take out emergency articles, they are not absolutely obliged to do so, no matter how tense the
situation. Instead they should concentrate their total efforts towards saving lives. The crew take the following items:
- Captain: Crash axe, megaphone, flash light Mid Cabin Exit
- Co-pilot: Signal kit, flash light FWD Cabin Exit
- The Chief Purser and cabin attendant at R2 will take the ELT’s
What non-normal event requires the longest landing distance?
The All AC buses off non-normal checklist will requires the longest landing distance.
Dry runway @ 280,000lbs = 7,400ft. (approximately 2,250m)
Wet runway = 10,800ft (approximately 3000m)
Snow/slush covered runway = Can be > 11,500 depending on runway condition (approximately 3,500m)
This is because both engine reversers may be inoperative, half the spoilers are inoperative, outboard wheel antiskid is inoperative, and
auto speedbrake is inoperative
What is the maximum EGT for take-off and how long is it limited to?
960 degrees, limited to 5 minutes
What is the minimum oil pressure?
10psi
What is the maximum allowable headwind component for an autoland?
25kts
What is the maximum allowable tailwind for take-off and landing?
- Runway 2001m =/> 15kts
- Runway 2000m =/> 10kts
What is the maximum allowable crosswind for a slush-covered runway?
- Depth =/< 2mm: 15kts
- Depth 3-12mm: 10kts
What are the Captain’s communication requirements in an emergency?
In emergency situations, the Captain shall maintain close contact with ATC, search and rescue authorities, and the flight dispatcher
and give sufficient consideration to advice or suggestions from them
IF EMERGENCY OCCURS, THE CAPT SHALL TAKE THE NECESSARY MEASURES FOR SECURING SAFETY
When are master warnings inhibited?
The master warning lights and fire bell are inhibited FOR FIRE during part of the take-off. The inhibit period begins at nose gear
extension during rotation and continues to the first of 400ft AGL or 20 seconds elapsed time. If a fire occurs during the inhibit, an
EICAS warning message appears, but the fire bell and master warning lights do not activate. If the fire still exists at the end of the
inhibit period, the fire bell and master warning lights activate immediately
What is the freezing point of Jet A fuel?
-40 degrees (or freezing +3)
What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement?
Do not engage CWS or CMD below 200ft AGL
Can the landing gear be extended above 20,000ft?
Yes, only the flaps can’t be extended above 20,000ft
If NO AUTOLAND is displayed on the ASA, can it be blanked (reset)?
It is dependant upon the APP switch:
- Before APP pushed: Yes, but ONLY if the condition that led to the fault is cleared
- After APP pushed: No - it remains displayed until the autopilots are disengaged
When does LAND 3 or LAND 2 display on the ASA?
It appears below 1500ft RA with LOC and G/S captured, with the autopilots engaged
6-4-10 (17)
LAND 3
INDICATES ALL 3 AP SYS AND THEIR ASSOS SUPPORTING AIRPLANE SYSTEMS INPUTS ARE OPERATING NORMALLY
APPEARS BELOW 1500 FEET ra WITH LOC AND GS CAPTURED
LAND 2
INDICATES A MINIMUM OF 2 AP SYS AND THEIR ASSOS SUPPORTING AIRPLANE SYSTEM INPUTS ARE OPERATING NORMALLY
APPEARS BELOW 1500 RA WITH LOC AND GS CAPTURED
NO AUTOLAND (AMBER)
INDICATES FAULT CONDITIONS EXIST WHICH PRECLUDE THE USE OF THE AUTOPILOTS FOR AN AUTOMATIC LDG
NO LAND 3 (AMBER)
INDICATES A FAULT CONDITION EXISTS WHICH RESULTS IN A LAND 2 CONDITION
What systems does the centre hydraulic system power?
The centre system powers the following items: (FLAT, Hat) - Flight controls - Nose wheel steering - Flaps and slats - Alternate brakes - Landing gear operation - Tailskid - Hydraulic driven generator RESERVOIR, TWO ELEC MOTOR-DRIVEN PUMPS, AN AIR-DRIVEN DEMAND PUMP, AND A RAM AIR TURBINE (RAT) PUMP
Can the lower engine display ever be blanked?
The flight crew shall not blank the engine vibration display during take-off
Below what height can the ASA not change?
Below 200ft RA the ASA display cannot change EXCEPT to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition (system failure)
When does runway align mode begin?
It is actuated at 500ft RA with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated
What slip will the autopilot initiate during runway align mode?
The autopilot systems will initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 2 degrees when the crab angle exceeds 5 degrees
What is the windshear escape manoeuver for manual flight?
- Disengage autopilot
- Push either go-around switch
- Aggressively apply maximum thrust
- Disconnect autothrottle
- Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate towards an initial pitch attitude of 15 degrees
- Set the speedbrake lever down
- Follow flight director guidance
- Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor
- Monitor vertical speed and altitude
- Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor
How are the 3 autopilots powered during an autoland?
During autoland, the busses isolate to allow three independent power sources to the 3 autopilots as follows:
- The left main system powers the left autopilot AND CAPT FLT INSTRU TRANSFER BUS
- The right main system powers the right autopilot FO FLT INSTRU TRANSFER BUS
- The battery / standby system powers the centre autopilot
What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland above 200ft?
Above 200ft, the loss of a generator results in:
- Both bus tie breakers close and the operating generator powers both the left and right AC busses
- The left main AC system powers the centre autopilot
- NO LAND 3 is displayed on the ASA
What happens with the loss of a generator during an autoland below 200ft?
- Both bus ties remain open
- The autopilot with the failed generator remains unpowered
- The flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer busses
- The autoland continues using the 2 remaining autopilots
WHEN AP DISENGAGED OR AP G/A PERFORMED, THE ELEC SYS REVERTS TO NORMAL, NON-ISOLATED OPS
What fire suppression and extinguishing is available for cargo fires on the different aircraft?
- 300 and -300ER: 2 or 3 fire bottles installed - 2nd bottle discharges at later time or reduced rate (extinguishing)
- 300F: 2 or 3 fire bottles installed - 2nd bottle discharges at later time or reduced rate (extinguishing)
- 300BCF: Fire suppression accomplished by shutting off air to the compartment. The airplane gradually depressurises and
the oxygen required for combustion is eliminated (best above FL250)
What altitude is required for fire suppression in the 300BCF?
25,000ft is the altitude where fire suppression is performed effectively
What are the 3 types of hydroplaning?
Dynamic
Is due to standing water on the runway completely lifting the wheel off the runway and being supported by the water. Two conditions
must be present.
The surface must be flooded to a depth, which exceeds the total depth of the runway texture plus the tyre tread. This is called the
critical depth and is usually 3mm. b. The aircraft must be travelling at or above the critical speed, which is the tyre speed at which the
standing inertia or the water is such that water is unable to escape from under the tyre tread.
Viscous
Is due to a damp surface that does not allow the water to penetrate it the surface below. Only one condition is required – smooth
surface covered by thin film of moisture.
This type of aquaplaning can occur at much lower speeds than dynamic aquaplaning and is normally associated with smooth surface
areas such as the touch down zone where large deposits of rubber may be present.
Reverted rubber skid
Caused when the heat built up due to the friction between the tyre and the water causes the water to boil causing steam, which
reverts the rubber. This process forms a seal and prevents the tyre from contacting the runway.
(standing water is an approximate rainfall of 30mm/hr)
AOR 2-2-2 (1)
P = 160 psi therefore hydroplaning speed is 113kts
When is anti-ice required on the ground?
When the TAT is below 10 degrees, and there is visible moisture present such as clouds or fog with visibility of one mile (1600m) or
less
What is the formula for determining hydroplaning speed?
9 times the square root of the tire pressure (mains 200 PSI, nose 160 PSI)
What is meant by B763/H-SDE2FGHIJ4J5J6M1RWX/SD1 / PBN/A1B1C1D1on the ATS flight plan?
- H = Heavy wake turbulence category (greater than 136,000kg MTOW)
- S = Standard VHF, VOR and ILS
- D = DME
- E2 = ACARS
- F = ADF
- G = GNSS
- H = HF radio
- I = IRS
- J4 = CPDLC
- J5 = CPDLC SATCOM
- M1 = ATC SATCOM
- R = PBN (Performance based navigation) approved (see items following PBN/ later)
- W = RVSM
- X = MNPS approved
- SD1 = Mode S transponder with ADS-C capability
- A1 = RNAV10
- B1 = RNAV 5
- C1 = RNAV 2
- D1 = RNAV 1
What does E/0523 P/004 R/UVE J/L mean on the ATS flight plan?
- E/0523 = Endurance is 5 hours and 23 minutes
- P/004 = Persons on board is 4
- R/UVE = Radio equipment to monitor UHF = 243.0, VHF = 121.500, E = ELT carried
What does the ILS display look like on the ADI in full scale?
The ILS display for both G/S and LOC is a reference rectangle in the middle, with 2 dots either side of the reference rectangle such as:
O O I I O O
How many NNC items are there?
There are 48 master cautions, 34 unnanunciated checklists & 8 memory items
At what point will the ILS expanded scale display on the ADI?
The two dot expanded scale displays when LOC is engaged, and deviation is slightly more than ½ a dot on the 4-dot scale
How much more sensitive is the expanded scale ILS in comparison to the full-scale ILS display?
The expanded scale is more sensitive, with one dot deviation equal to ½ a dot deviation on the 4-dot scale
What are some non-normal situations that will produce a master caution on the ground?
- FWD / AFT / MAIN CARGO DOOR
- ATT DISAGREE
- AUTOTHROTTLE DISCONNECT
- BODY DUCK LEAK
- C / L / R HYD SYS PRESS
- EQUIP COOLING
- IAS DISAGREE
- L / R AC BUS OFF
- L / R BLD DUCT LEAK
- L / R EEC OFF
- L / R ENG LIM PROT
- L / R FUEL SYS PRESS
- LE SLAT ASYM
- LE SLAT DISAGREE
- L / R ENG OVHT
- TE FLAP ASYM
- TE FLAP DISAGREE
What components does the left hydraulic system power?
- Rudder ratio system
- Yaw damper
- PES
- Left Inboard Aileron
- Elevator Feel
- Autopilot servo
- Stab Trim
- Flight controls
6-13-20 (4) / 6-9-20 (8)
R HYD SYS
FLT CONTROL
NORMAL BRAKE
PITCH ENHANCEMENT SYS (HYD MOTOR IN R SYS WHICH TRAPS FLUID FROM L TRIM SYS TO OPERATE STABILIZER). AUTO ACTIVATES IF BOTH L AND C HYD SYS LOST IN FLT. ELECT TRIM AVAIL AT ¼ NORMAL RATE/ ALTERNATE AND AUTO TRIM INOP.
What is the purpose of the hydraulic driven generator?
- The HDG is automatically powered by the centre hydraulic system when electrical power is lost from both main AC busses.
- The centre air demand pump will operate continuously to ensure sufficient hydraulic pressure to drive the generator.
- It provides both AC power and DC power.
- It provides AC power to the left and right AC transfer busses that power items considered necessary for ETOPS.
- It also powers the Captain’s flight instrument transfer bus, and provides DC power to the hot battery bus, the battery bus and the
standby DC bus
What is the maximum take-off weight for the 767-300?
288,700lbs
What is the maximum landing weight of the 767-300?
280,000lbs
What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the 767-300?
278,000lbs
What is the maximum speed for alternate gear extension?
250kts / 0.75 (dedicated DC Motor)
- What charging time is required to power to floor photo luminescent emergency escape path markings?
The passenger cabin lighting must be on withd ceiling and sidewall lights setting in the “HI” position prior to block out as follows:
- 15 minutes charging time = 6.5 hours
- 30 minutes charging time = 11 hours
Can the flight crew test the ELT?
The activation of the ELT for test purposes in not allowed by flight crew. If the mechanic requests a test however, it is permitted. In this
case, manual activation is limited to the first five minutes of the hour and is to be a maximum of 5 seconds
What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?
9.1psi. Maximum allowable cabin differential pressure for take-off and landing is 0.125psi, which is equivalent to 236ft below airport
pressure altitude. (8.6 regular)
When do the deviation calls commence during approach?
These can be broken into three groups: After final descent / below 1000ft AFE / below MDA:
ON PROC OR AIRWAY WITH RNP ALERTING REQMT, IF XTK ERROR FROM LNAV AT 1*RNP OR MORE “0.3NM LEFT/RIGHT”
- VOR approach = After final descent = “DOT LEFT / DOT RIGHT”
- VNAV approach = After final descent = “GLIDE PATH”
- Bank angle over 30 = Below 1000ft AFE = “BANK”
- Speed, sink rate, LOC and G/S = Below 1000ft AFE = “AIRSPEED / SINK RATE / LOCALISER /
“GLIDESLOPE”
- Altitude deviation deviation = > 50ft below MDA = “ALTITUDE”
What is the standard significant deviation from airspeed on approach?
Above 10kts or below 5kts with landing flap below 1000ft AFE
What is the standard significant deviation for sink rate on approach?
Sink rate exceeds 1000fpm below 1000ft AFE
What is the standard significant deviation for glideslope on approach?
> 1 dot
What is the standard significant deviation for the VOR on approach?
> 1 dot, which is equal to 5 degrees
What is the standard significant deviation for the localiser on approach?
2 deviations, BELOW 1000ft ONLY:
- > ½ a dot (1 dot on the expanded scale)
- > ⅓ dot (⅔ dot on the expanded scale after the “APPROACHING MINIMUM” is called on a CAT II/III approach)
3-1 (10)
GLIDEPATH
EXCEEDS -50FT +100FT
What is the minimum oxygen pressure required?
Minimum oxygen is at or above the following at 21 degrees Celsius:
- Other than operations to Urumqi (RoC) = 850psi
- Operations to Urumqi (RoC) = 1250psi
What are the 4 reasons to do the aborted engine start procedure?
- EGT does not increase by 25 seconds after the fuel control switch is moved to run
- There is no N1 rotation by 30 seconds after N2 stabilised at idle
- The EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit of 750 degrees
- The oil pressure is not normal by the time the engine is stabilised at idle (min 10psi)
When should take-off thrust be set by?
Adjust take-off thrust before 80kts
What is the ANA touchdown zone?
750ft to 2000ft
- Aiming point markings – distance from the threshold on a runway < 2400m, and a runway > 2400m?
=/>2,400m 400m from the threshold (400m = 1,312’)
<2,400m 300m from the threshold (300m = 984’)
Both are within the ANA touchdown zone area of 750ft to 2000ft
How is the ILS displayed on the HSI during EXP ILS and FULL ILS?
There are 4 dots displayed for both glideslope and localiser in the EXP ILS and FULL ILS presentation
DIFFERENCE IS THE BACKGROUND IE FULL COMPASS ROSE VS 90 DEGREE ROSE
How long are the aiming point and touchdown zone markings?
The aiming point markings are 60m long. The touchdown zone markings are 22.5m long
- Describe the runway markings from the threshold to the halfway markings for a runway > 2400m:
- Stopway markings
»» = Less strength than RWY -> -> -> -> = Same strength as RWY - Physical runway threshold
- 6m of spacing
- RWY threshold markings, 30m long (16 for a 60m RWY, 12 for a 45m RWY)
- 12m of spacing
- Runway designation markings, 18m long
- Runway centreline markings, 30m or more long
- 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 150m from the threshold
- 6 touchdown zone markings, 3 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 300m from the threshold
- 2 aiming point markers, 1 each side of centreline, each 60m long, beginning at 400m from the threshold
- 4 touchdown zone markings, 2 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 600m from the threshold
- 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 750m from the threshold
- 2 touchdown zone markings, 1 each side of centreline, each 22.5m long, beginning at 900m from the threshold
What is the minimum equipment required for sole navigation?
2 IRS’s and 2 FMC’s meet the INS system requirements as the sole means of navigation for flights up to 18 hours
What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance?
- < 48,000lbs - maximum imbalance = 2500lbs
- 48,000lbs - 79,800lbs = Linear from 2500lbs to 1500lbs (interpolate graph)
- > 79,800 = 1500lbs
Basically, first step is to check fuel weight and then decide by consulting the graph.
What is the required on-board equipment for RVSM operations?
- 2 individual altitude measurement systems (2 x primary altimeters)
- 2 ADC’s
- One automatic altitude hold function of the autopilot (ALT HOLD mode, VNAV mode or V/S mode)
- One altitude alert system (EICAS)
- One SSR altitude reporting transponder (MODE C)
- When will the EICAS message ALT DISAGREE be displayed & considerations following this message?
The EICAS message ALT DISAGREE is displayed when the Captain and co-pilot altimeter indications disagree by more than 200ft. The
on-board equipment requirements for RVSM are no longer satisfied. Contact ATC and comply with their instruction. The non-normal
checklist will direct this
1. Maintain visual flight is possible
2. Establish landing configuration early
3. Use G/S and PAPI information
4. Radio altitude is available <2500ft
- When do the runway edge lights turn from white to yellow approaching the end of the runway?
The lights are white in colour, however the last ⅓ or 600m whichever is less from the departure end of the runway, the lights are
coloured yellow for warning of the end of the runway
Where is the search and rescue facility located?
The Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC) for Japan is located at Haneda airport
What are the 3 phases of search and rescue?
- Uncertainty phase
- Alert phase
- Distress phase
- If a master caution appears during take-off at 70kts & the take-off is continued - what happens to lights/message?
If the master caution lights and the aural alerts are activated prior to 80kts, they continue to illuminate and sound
When will the stick nudger activate?
If the flaps are retracted and the angle of attack continues to increase, a control column nudger moves the control column forward
6-15-20 (18)
STICK SHAKERS ARE ALSO INSTALLED, BOTH SYS ARE ENERGIZED IN FLT AND DEACT ON GND AIR/GND LOGIC
When does GPWS mode 7 windshear detection begin on departure?
At rotation (PWS begins scanning at setting of takeoff thrust)
What is the PWS alert warning area dimension?
- On ground: 3nm straight ahead of the aircraft (caution 3nm) 0.5NM WIDE SPLAY 25 DEG
- In-flight: 1.5nm straight ahead of the aircraft (caution 3nm) 0.5NMM WIDE SPLAY 25 DEG
- WX radar TILT and GAIN settings inappropriately set for departure, can the PWS still function normally?
Yes. The PWS adjusts automatically regardless of actual control settings on the weather radar control panel settings, adjusts the
antenna TILT and the system GAIN for optimum windshear detection
When are PWS warnings inhibited until on take-off?
PWS warnings are inhibited during take-off between 100kts and 50ft AGL
When will the stick shaker activate?
The pitch limit indicator (PLI) indicates the pitch limit at which the stick shaker will activate for the existing flight conditions. The PLI is
displayed whenever flaps are not up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up
- What is the minimum required width of paved surface to execute a 180-degree turn effectively?
The required width is 46.3m or 152ft as a minimum. This means that a 180-degree turn on a 45m-width runway without a turning pad
is not possible
- During what non-normal event could you expect to see the battery discharge light DISCH illuminate?
When initially using the hydraulic driven generator. The amount of DC power produced by the HDG is less than the DC power
produced by a fully charged battery. When the HDG first begins to operate, the battery discharge light may illuminate, until the
battery power decreases to the power level produced by the HDG
Examples of situations where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued, not including the 6
examples listed in the QRH?
- Bomb threat
- Attempted hijacking
- Biological hazards
- Mid-air collision
- Structural failure
- Fuel shortage (any extra holding results in landing with < 30mins reserve)
- Significant flight control failure
- Crew incapacitation
- What are the 4 policies established for basic operational procedures? Differences to past airline?
Policies (Four Are About Perfect)
- Fly first
o Top priority placed on this
- Assure secured and reliable operations
o Procedures immune from mistakes / employing fail-safe features
- Achieve effective and efficient operation
o Adapt our flight procedures to social needs and new technology
- Promote standardised and uniform operation
o Various combinations of flight crew / small variations add to trouble / fleet standardisation
- What are the 6 concepts for establishing basic operational procedures? Differences to past airline?
Concepts (The Crew Can Make a World of Difference)
- Task sharing – PF and PM roles / PF flies the airplane and PM tasks mainly other than flying airplane / Area of responsibility / tasks
assigned according to accessibility of switch/PIC ULTIMATE RESP
- Crew coordination – Use of checklists / confirmed actions
- Crew communication – Standard callouts / briefings & terminology / Standard response to order
- Monitor and crosscheck – Scan pattern / instrument monitor during approach / speed and descent rate during approach / verification
of autothrottle and autopilot / CDU operation
- Workload management – Fly the airplane / use of auto flight system
- Discipline – Professional manner / intentional deviation from SOP’s dangerous / strict discipline to SOP’s
What is the wheel base dimension of the 767?
The main gear is 9.30 metres in width 30 FEET 6 INCH
- What clearance between the edge of the taxiway and the main gear exists during a straight taxi?
Approximately 6.5 meters clearance from each main wheel.
ICAO CAT D taxiways are 23m wide
Wheelbase is 9.30m.
This means that the minimum clearance from each main gear will be 6.5m
What main wheel clearance can be assured when taxiing around a corner on a taxiway?
ICAO Annex 14 recommends that the taxiway should be designed to provide clearance of more than 4.5 metres between the paved
taxiway and the main landing gear when the cockpit (nose gear by Japan’s criteria) is passing over the centreline
What is the required 2nd segment climb gradient for the B767?
2.4%. The second segment begins at gear up and continues to the level off point (1.2% for last segment)
What is the required 1st segment climb gradient for the B767?
Positive
What is the required landing climb gradient required for the B767?
3.2%
What is the required approach climb gradient for the B767?
2.1%
- What are the differences between gross and net flight path for both take-off flight path and enroute flight path?
- Take-off flight path: 0.8%
- Enroute flight path: 1.1%
What are the limitations on V1 speed?
V1 must be:
- =/> VMCG
- </= VMBE
What are the limitations of VR?
VR must be:
- =/> V1
- 5% > VMCA
- 5% > 1 Engine VMU
- 10% > 2 Engine VMU
What are the limitations of V2?
V2 must be:
- 13% > 1S1G
- 10% > VMCA
What is the minimum approach speed?
VREF must be at least 1.23VS1G
How is maximum rate climb calculated for the B767?
Flaps up manoeuver speed + 50 until intercepting M0.78
Why does the QRH direct an engine shutdown if an engine fuel leak is suspected?
The NNC leads the crew through steps to determine if the fuel leak is from the strut or the engine area. If an engine fuel leak is
confirmed, the NNC directs the crew to shutdown the affected engine. There are two reasons for the shutdown. The first is to close the
spar valve, which stops the leak. This prevents the loss of fuel, which could result in a low fuel state. The second reason is that the fire
potential is increased when fuel is leaking around the engine. The risk of fire increases further when the thrust reverser is used during
landing. The thrust reverser significantly changes the flow of air around the engine, which can disperse fuel over a wider area.
During fuel jettison, what altitude should ensure fuel evaporation?
Fuel jettison above 4,000 feet AGL ensures complete fuel evaporation
Does the EICAS message TAILSKID indicate a tail strike has occurred?
The EICAS message TAILSKID indicates that the tailskid position disagrees with the landing gear position. Although these alerts may
help determine if a suspected tail strike has occurred, these alerts are not intended as the only verification of an actual tail strike.
What are the three take-off methods?
3 types of take-off method used at ANA & differences
“ Normal: Step on brakes, 70%, release breakes, thrust set by 80kts
“ Static: Step on brakes, take-off thrust set, release brakes
“ Rolling: Without stopping, set 70%, then set take-off thrust
With today’s weather in RORS (RVR300M) what type of take-off method would you use?
“ Perhaps a normal take-off method because this allows the engines to stabilise at 70% before starting take-off roll, so
engines will be symmetrical thrust under low vis – reduces chance of asymmetric acceleration and therefore
directional control problems with only 300m RVR.
If you did choose to use a rolling take-off, what is the extra runway allowance required? (100-150ft) Is there a weight
addition to consider?
“ Check FPDM
Describe the Warning Systems in the 76
- EICAS (TWCAC)
a. Time Critical Warning Immediate awareness & corrective action to maintain safe flight
b. Warning Immediate awareness & corrective action
c. Caution Immediate awareness
d. Advisory Routine awareness
e. Communication Alerts Triggered by communication management system - Warning System
a. Flight deck speakers, master warning lights, EICAS alert messages & stick shaker motors - GPWS (AI-RIG)
a. ADC, IRS, ILS, RADALT, GPS - TCAS
a. TA, RA, Proximate/Other Traffic
Describe the Instrument Source Select Switche
Related systems of each eg ADC, FMC, IRS etc.
What is an Approach Ban & what is its purpose?
What is it Forbidding to continue approach beyond a specific point unless the reported weather is above specified company
minima.
Purpose To limit missed approaches and manoeuvring at low level etc
What are the Standard Callouts for an ILS
LOC, G/S Alive, G/S, G/S interept (Alt & Distance), LAND 2/3, 1,000, 500, Approaching Minima, Minima
When do they start?
From LOC
If you were to perform an RTO in low visibility, how would you know where you are?
Runway markings, centreline lights changing colour, runway lights turning yellow (last 2000’), half-way lines on runway
(instrument runway > 30m width, RORS = 60m), runway markings, runway distance markings on the side.
Draw the runway markings for RWY 35 at RORS
draw
- If you had a fire warning on take-off during the inhibit period, what happens at the end of the inhibit period
If fire appears during inhibit period, EICAS message appears, but when the inhibit period ends, the fire bell and
master warning activate immediately
Explain the Inhibits
Condition Engine Start Takeoff Landing
Warning Caution Advisory Communication Communication
Engine Shutdown
Start Eng Start Switch N/G Ext 80kts T/O Thrust T/O Thrust 800’ FCS Cutoff
Finish Idle 20s/400’ 20s/400’ 20s/400’ 20s/400’ 75kts/900’ (GA) N/A
Explain Go-Mindedness
“Except for the occurrence of a hindrance where there is a serious doubt that the airplane can safely fly, it is safer to
continue the takeoff than to reject it from a point near V1”
It is left to the Captain’s best judgement
Other factors to consider…
1. Malfunction that would render airplane unable to fly might be engine failure with thrust loss
2. For other malfunctions in the vicinity of V1, it is safer to continue. Even for EGT exceedance or engine fire, it
would be safer to continue, provided there was no loss of thrust. Any system associated with braking like anti-skid
or tire failure is extremely dangerous re RTO.
3. High speed regime > 80kts, low speed regime <80kts.
Basically, in line with 80 kt inhibit, above this speed, consider calling out malfunction in air.
What is the tail contact pitch attitudes?
Landing with Flaps 30
Main Gear Extended: 9.5 degrees (AOR)
Main Gear Compressed: 7.5 degrees (AOR)
Takeoff 9.6 (FCTM)
APU FAULT light after Block-Out?
APU FAULT light at that stage means the APU will enter an auto-shutdown phase. Refer previous Q for items running on battery.
APU Limitations
” Bleed air to 17,000
“ Electrical to 43,100
“ The starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within a 60-minute period
“ Air conditioning and electrical on the ground, air conditioning up to FL170 and electrical to FL431.
How are alerting messages arranged?
In order of occurrence, although WARNINGS will always be displayed at the top/ AND IN SAME RANK IE WARN/CAUTION ETC
Describe all of the source transfer switches
FLT DIR
Selects source for FD bars and FCC.
The indications for a failure depend on which system has failed. If left or right, related FD bars will disappear and NO LAND 3 will
annunciate on ASA. If centre fails, NO LAND 3 will annunciate, though both Capt and FO FD bars will remain. The autopilot will
disengage though as the related FCC has failed. (FCC drives the autopilot servos). A minimum of 2 FCC’s are required for autopilot
engagement.
FMC
Selects the source for the L/C EFIS SG’s and the L/C FCC’s. Usually, the left FMC drives the L/C FCC’s + SG’s and the right FMC drives
the R FCC + SG. In a failed condition, the R FMC drives the L/C FCC’s and SG and the L FMC drives the right FCC + SG.
If a failure occurs, the LNAV and VNAV FMA’s will have a strike through them, VTK and MAP will appear on the EHSI, the CDU will blank,
“L/R FMC FAILURE” will annunciate on the EICAS and the FD bars will disappear on the related side.
FMC Synch display similar indications to that of an FMC – be careful not to confuse. The main difference is that both CDU’s will still
display relevant information during a synch, unlike a fail condition. (AOR)
EFIS
The EFIS switch controls the source for the related SG, ILS receiver and RADALT. Usually, left drives left, right drives right and centre is
for redundancy.
If either side fails, both EADI and EHSI will go blank. To restore, push EFI switch. If both sides running of centre (dual failure), “INST
SWITCH” message will appear on EICAS – checklist!
IRS
Controls the source of the IRS for the L/C SG’s & Capt VSI and FO RDMI. Usually, left drives and L/C SG’s, Capt VSI and FO RDMI
and vice versa. If a failure occurs, ATT, VSI flags will appear, EADI will blank, IRS EICAS messsage, NO LAND 3 and Anti-Skid messages
will appear.
ADC
Controls the source for the Capt primary flight instruments and FO primary flight instruments. (ASI/PRIMARY ALT, AND VSI) So if the associated ADC fails, the
instruments will erroneously display. The ADC automatically switches to reflect the AP in CMD, though this does not apply for the
instrument display, hence the requirement to push the switch.
What are the restrictions on operating the centre fuel pumps?
Intentional dry running of the centre pumps (EICAS messages CTR L FUEL PUMP or CTR R FUEL PUMP) is prohibited
Centre pump switches must not be on unless personnel are available in the flight deck to monitor the low pressure lights
The centre pumps must not be switched on prior to engine start unless the centre tank contains usable fuel
When the auto power removal system is installed, when the centre pump switches are on, verify both pressure lights are
illuminated and that the EICAS messages CTR L FUEL PUMP and CTR R FUEL PUMP are displayed
- Is take-off thrust still limited to 5 minutes if using derate 1 or derate 2 thrust, or ATM reduced thrust?
Yes. Maximum time use of take-off thrust is 5 minutes, and this includes derated take-off thrust and reduced take-off thrust
ow are alerting messages arranged?
In order of occurrence, although WARNINGS will always be displayed at the top
What is displayed on the lower EICAS when HYD QTY requires a refill?
RF appears in magenta
What is the range of brake temperature units displayed on the lower EICAS?
0 to 2 Normal range BOX AND NUMBER CYAN
3 and 4 Threshold range BOX IS WHITE/VALUE CYAN
5 to 9 High temperature range BOX AND NUMBER WHITE
At what cabin altitude will the fasten seat belt signs illuminate automatically?
Anytime the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft
Do the lights fitted to the nose wheel illuminate when the gear is not locked and down?
No
What sides of the aircraft are the cargo doors located?
FWD Cargo = Right
AFT Cargo = Right
MAIN (BCF) = Left
Bulk = Left
Is the oxygen indication on the lower EICAS display for crew oxygen or passenger oxygen?
Crew Oxygen. Individual chemical oxygen generators provide the passenger oxygen.
At what cabin altitude will the oxygen masks automatically drop from their PSU’s?
If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft (>11,000’ outflow valve auto closes. Auto opens when cabin alt <9,500’)
How is the ELT automatically transmitted?
If high deceleration sensed
- At what altitude will the IAS change to MACH (and vice versa) if the speed window is open on a climb or a descent?
In a climb IAS changes to MACH at approx. .80 MACH
In a descent, MACH changes to IAS at approx. 300kts
At what height will LNAV engage if armed on take-off?
50ft
- Result when passing the last active waypoint / last waypoint prior to a route discontinuity in LNAV?
Aircraft heading maintained.
The bank limit selector works in which roll modes?
Heading Select only, and NOT in LNAV
- What are the 2 ways that Approach mode can be deselected after LOC capture and GS capture?
By selecting TOGA or by disengaging the autopilot and turning off BOTH F/D’s
When will LAND 3 annunciate?
Below 1500ft radio altitude with LOC and GS captured
- In a go-around, the auto throttle will command a reference thrust to maintain a climb rate of?
At least 2000 fpm
When does go-around arm, and is there any annunciation to the pilot?
GA arms whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture. The only indication to the pilot is that G/A thrust
will be annunciated on the thrust setting
When is ROLLOUT and FLARE armed?
Below 1500ft radio altitude
When does FLARE engage?
Activates at 50ft RA
When does ROLLOUT engage?
Below 5ft
When does runway alignment occur?
It is actuated at 500ft RA with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated
- If the APU fault light illuminates momentarily on APU start or shutdown, what does this indicate?
It indicates that the fuel valve is in transit to open or close. It is a normal indication
Up to what height is APU bleed air available?
Up to approx. 17,000ft
What fuel tank is APU fuel fed from? Is this an AC run pump or a DC run pump?
APU fuel is supplied from the left main tank. A dedicated DC pump is used if no AC power is available. When AC
power is available, the left forward AC pump is used, and the DC pump is commanded off
- What is the starter duty cycle for the APU?
A Maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within 60 minutes
- If the APU is in the one-minute cooling period prior to shutdown, can you stop the shutdown?
Yes, by momentarily moving the APU selector to START will cancel the shutdown signal./ IF RUN LGT SHOWN
