Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USU 1350 > Final Review-Test 3 > Flashcards

Final Review-Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Alleles are described as ______

A

alternate versions of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A true-breeding plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a true-breeding plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why?

A

the yellow allele is dominant to the green allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

According to Mendel’s law of segregation, ______.

A

gametes have 1copy of each allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

abnormal number of sex chromosomes resulted from ______.

A

nondisjunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DNA and RNA are polymers composed of ______ monomers.

A

nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The backbone of DNA consists of ______.

A

a repeating sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

RNA contains the nitrogenous base ______ instead of ______, which is only found in DNA.

A

uracil…. thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If adenine makes up 20% of the bases in a DNA double helix, what percent of the bases are guanine?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a DNA double helix, adenine pairs with ______ and guanine pairs with ______.

A

thymine….. cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence GTCCAT, what is the sequence of the other strand?

A

CAGGTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who discovered the structure of DNA?

A

watson and crick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of chemical bond joins the bases of complementary DNA strands?

A

hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

After replication, ______.

A

ach new DNA double helix consists of one old strand and one new strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During replication, ______ are the enzymes responsible for joining the nucleotides of a new DNA strand together.

A

DNA polymerases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many nucleotides make up a codon?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Transcription is the ______.

A

manufacture of a strand of RNA complementary to a strand of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If a strand of DNA has the sequence AAGCTC, transcription will result in a(n) ______.

A

Single RNA strand with the sequence UUCGAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The correct sequence of events occurring during transcription is ______.

A

initiation, elongation, termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The expressed (coding) regions of eukaryotic genes are called ______.

A

exons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Translation converts the information stored in ______ to ______.

A

RNA….. polypeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The mRNA codon UCA codes for an amino acid carried by a tRNA with the anticodon ______.

A

AGU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Peptide bonds form between ______

A

amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A mutation within a gene that will insert a premature stop codon in mRNA would ______.

A

result in a polypeptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the smallest number of nucleotides that must be added or subtracted to change the triplet grouping of the genetic message?

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual?

A

1:1:1:1

26
Q

An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ______.

A

mendels law of independent assortment

27
Q

A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male?

A

50%

28
Q

An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ______.

A

is a carrier

29
Q

Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing?

A

aminiocentesis

30
Q

Marfan syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan syndrome are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. The inheritance of Marfan syndrome is an example of ______.

A

pleiotropy

31
Q

______ genes violate Mendel’s principle of independent assortment.

A

Linked

32
Q

Chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes are called ______.

A

autosomes

33
Q

Chromatin consists of ______

A

DNA and protein

34
Q

Sister chromatids are joined at the ______.

A

centromere

35
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

chromosome duplication

36
Q

what occurs during prophase?

A

the mitotic spindle starts to form

37
Q

Which of the following is a stage of mitosis?

A

telophase

38
Q

The correct sequence of stages of mitosis is ______.

A

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

39
Q

During metaphase…..

A

chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

40
Q

what occurs during anaphase?

A

sister chromatids separate

41
Q

During telophase

A

the events of prophase are reversed

42
Q

Cytokinesis typically occurs during the ______ stage of mitosis.

A

telophase

43
Q

How many autosomes do humans have?

A

44

44
Q

How much genetic material is present in the parent cell, during prophase I, compared to a daughter cell that has completed meiosis II?

A

four times as much

45
Q

During metaphase I,

A

homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell

46
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does not occur in prophase II?

A

crossing over occurs

47
Q

Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I?

A

Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles.

48
Q

Bacterial RNA polymerase binds to the ______.

A

promoter

49
Q

What is the first level of control of eukaryotic gene transcription?

A

DNA packing and unpacking

50
Q

Introns are ______.

A

noncoding DNA sequences

51
Q

What name is given to a gene that causes cancer?

A

oncogene

52
Q

Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA?

A

DNA that carries genes from 2 different sources

53
Q

“Sticky ends” are produced as a result of the action of ______.

A

a restriction enzyme

54
Q

Cutting DNA with a particular restriction enzyme produces DNA fragments that can be separated by ______.

A

gel electrophoresis

55
Q

A DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads -ATTCG will bind with another DNA fragment with a sticky end that reads ______.

A

TAAGC

56
Q

Of the following, which is the last step in the production of a recombinant DNA plasmid?

A

using DNA ligase to join DNA fragments

57
Q

You are attempting to link an individual to a crime. The only evidence you have is a tiny drop of blood. How can you use this drop of blood to make the association?

A

you can use PCR to increase the amount of DNA available for restriction fragment analysis.

58
Q

what can act as a vector to introduce new genes into a cell?

A

plasmids

59
Q

Many proto-oncogenes regulate ____

A

cell division

60
Q

____ is(are) responsible for more cancers than any other carcinogen.

A

tobacco

USU 1350 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions