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Large Animal Anatomy > Exam 3 Abdomen Week 11 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Abdomen Week 11 Flashcards

1
Q

rectus sheath surrounds what

A

rectus abdominis muscle

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2
Q

what is the origin of the rectus sheath

A

4th to 9th costal cartilages and adjacent sternum

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3
Q

what is the insertion of the rectus sheath

A

pubis via prepubic tendon

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4
Q

internal rectus sheath is composed of

A

aponeurosis of transversus abdominis m.

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5
Q

external rectus sheath is composed of

A

fused aponeuroses of internal and external abdominal oblique m.

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6
Q

prepubic tendon is made from

A

linea alba, insertion tendons of right and left rectus abdominis ms (other contributions from other muscles)

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7
Q

prepubic tendon inserts on the

A

pubis

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8
Q

rupture of prepubic tendon is not common but is more likely in

A

late gestation mares; usually older, multiparous mares and those that are less fit

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9
Q

rupture of prepubic tendon observations

A

sudden ventral displacement of caudal abdomen; edema and cranioventral displacement o fthe udder, with painful ventral edema cranial to udder

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10
Q

what is the most extensive flank muscle

A

external abdominal oblique

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11
Q

insertion of external abdominal oblique

A

linea alba, prepubic tendon, plus tuber coxae, medial femoral fascia

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12
Q

inguinal ligament

A

attaches to tuber coxae and to fascia over iliopsoas and sartorius mm.

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13
Q

allergic disease often associated with exposure to

A

molds

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14
Q

what are clinical signs of recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) (heaves, COPD)

A

Cough and increased pulmonary airway secretions, exercise intolderance, pronounced abdominal m, contractions with expiration (heaving)

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15
Q

with chronic disease, horses develop heave line which is

A

hypertrophy of external abdominal oblique m.

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16
Q

dorsal part of transversus abdominis m. is

A

dorsal part is aponeurotic, costal attachment is muscular

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17
Q

innervation of flank includes

A

dorsal and ventral branches of T13, L1, L2

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18
Q

General spinal nerve diagram

A

x

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19
Q

with incisions in upper flank, you need to block what

A

dorsal and ventral branches of spinal nerves; insert needle in vertically next to vertebral bodies (paravertebral block)

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20
Q

T13 spinal nerve

A

inject caudal to last rib in angle between L1 transverse process and last rib (or caudal to last rib at lateral edge of iliocostalis m. if cant palpate tip of transverse process of L1)

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21
Q

L1 and L2 spinal nerves

A

inject caudal to transverse processes of L1 and L2

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22
Q

TO anesthetize dorsal and ventral spinal nerves

A

inject both dorsal and ventral to level of transverse processes

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23
Q

advantages of paravertebral block

A

uniform anesthesia of all structures of the paralumbar fossa including the peritoneum; good muscle relaxation

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24
Q

disadvantages of paravertebral block

A

must avoid puncturing aorta or caudal vena cava (if too deep)
paralyzes epaxial muscles on the side of the operation causing convexity of trunk (viscera may bulge out of incision, closure may be more difficult)

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25
Q

paralumbar block

A

nerves are blocked at tips of transverse processes

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26
Q

T13 spinal nerve

A

dorsal and ventral to tip of L1 transverse process (and between last rib and L1 transverse processes)

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27
Q

L1 spinal nerve

A

dorsal and ventral to caudal of L2 transverse process

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28
Q

L2 spinal nerve

A

dorsal and ventral to caudal of L4 transverse processes

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29
Q

may need additional injection where

A

midway between L3 and L4 or cranial to L1 lumbar transverse processes due to variability in nerve placement

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30
Q

paralumbar block advantages

A

uniform anesthesia of structures of the paralumbar fossa including peritoneum
good flank muscle relaxation
epaxial muscles are not anesthetized

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31
Q

disadvantages of paralumbarblock

A

individual variation in position of spinal nerves may necessitate additional injections of anesthetic

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32
Q

additional procedures for anesthesia of the flank include

A

inverted L block; epidural anesthesia

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33
Q

anesthesia of udder (excluding caudal portion innervated by pudendal nerve) not commonly used but need to block

A

genitofemoral nerve

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34
Q

genitofemoral arises from

A

L3 and L4 spinal nervs and can include L2 spinal nerve

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35
Q

in cows, block

A

ventral branches of L1 to L4 spinal nerves

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36
Q

ewe and doe block

A

ventral branches of L2-L4 spinal nerve

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37
Q

abdominal topography

A

note normal location and relationships of organs
note relative mobility of different organs (length of mesentery; attachment to other organs)
for horse note potential sites of impactions (decrease in size of intestinal lumen; drastic change in direction/flow of intestinal content)

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38
Q

spleen of the horse extends

A

obliquely; cranioventrally from last 3 ribs to ventral third of 9th to 10th ribs

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39
Q

spleen parietal surface contacts

A

diaphragm

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40
Q

gastrosplenic ligament

A

between hilus of spleen and greater curvature of stomach (continous with greater omentum)

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41
Q

nephrosplenic ligament

A

between spleen and left kidney

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42
Q

equine stomach size

A

small; volume 5-15 L

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43
Q

fundus is the

A

saccus cecus (nonglandular stomach)

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44
Q

what is the wavy edge seaprating non-glandular from glandular portions of equines stomach

A

margo plicatus

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45
Q

in the horse, the ____ sphincter is well developed

A

cardiac

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46
Q

anatomical reasons why it is difficult for horse to vomit

A

pronounced cardiac sphincter
esophagus enters the stomach at an oblique angle; when pressure within stomach increases, the cardia closes tighter
stomach does not touch the ventral abdominal wall; it is situated dorsal to ascending colon; thus abdominal muscular contractions associated with vomiting will first be absorbed by colon

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47
Q

what is the epiploic foramen

A

the connection between peritoneal cavity and omental bursa

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48
Q

epiploic foramen is located on what side

A

the right side

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49
Q

dorsal boundary of epiploic foramen

A

caudate process of liver (CPL) and caudal vena cava

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50
Q

ventral boundary of epiploic foramen

A

pancreas< hepatoduodenal ligament (HDL) and hepatic portal vein

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51
Q

equine large intestine is composed of

A

cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon

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52
Q

cecum capacity in equine

A

30 L in large horses

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53
Q

what are the parts of the cecum

A

base, body, apex

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54
Q

base _____ paralumbar fossa

A

more than fills

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55
Q

interior cecum of horse

A

ilieal papilla and cecocolic orifice

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56
Q

ileal papilla

A

eopening of ileum into cecum

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57
Q

cecocolic orifice

A

connects to right ventral colon

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58
Q

cecum leads to

A

ascending colon

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59
Q

what are the parts of the ascending colon

A

right ventral colon
left ventral colon
left dorsal colon
right dorsal colon

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60
Q

right ventral colon turns to left side at the

A

ventral diaphragmatic flexure (sternal flexure)

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61
Q

left ventral colon turns 180 degrees at

A

pelvic flexure

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62
Q

left dorsal colon turns to right side at the

A

dorsal diaphragmatic flexure

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63
Q

right dorsal colon turns medially at base of cecum to become

A

transverse colon

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64
Q

ventral colon characteristics

A

4 bands (four on the floor)
distinct saccules
large diameter

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65
Q

dorsal colon characteristics

A

1-3 bands +/- saccules
initial portion-1 band
quickly acquires 2 more bands
less elastc fiberes in bands so saccules are less distinct

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66
Q

transverse colon characteristics

A 
short segment
short mesentery
crosses cranial to the root of the mesentery from right to left
decresing diameter
two bands
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67
Q

descending colon characteristics

A

very elongated in the horse
supsended from mesentary
relatively small lumen called small colon
two bands with saccules

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68
Q

changes in diameter associated with impaction occurs at

A

base of cecum
pelvic flexure (most common)
transverse colon

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69
Q

changes in direction

A

pelvic flexure

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70
Q

mobility

A

rotation of ascending colon around common axis (torsion)
lodging of left components of ascending colon above the spleen and left kidney (left dorsal displacement)
lodging of intestines (distal jejunum and ileum) in epiploic foramen (internal incarceration)

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71
Q

anything cranial to ____ will not be in reach within rectal palpation

A

Cranial mesenteric artery at L1

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72
Q

ruminant spleen dorsal extermit lies under

A

dorsal ends of last two ribs

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73
Q

spleen visceral surface contacts

A

left side of rumen

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74
Q

spleen dorsal part attached to

A

left crus of diaphragm

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75
Q

ruminant spleen ventral part

A

free

76
Q

rumen left longitudinal groove separates

A

dorsal and ventral sacs

77
Q

ascending colon composed of

A

proximal loop
double spiral
distal loop

78
Q

double spiral composed of what in ox

A

2 centripetal turns, central flexure, 2 centrifugal turns

79
Q

double spiral composed of what in small ruminant

A

3-4 centripetal turns
central flexure
3-4 centrifugal turns

80
Q

superficial leaf

A

from dorsal body wall on right side to left longitudinal groove

81
Q

deep leaf

A

dorsal body wall on right side to right longitudinal groove

82
Q

deep loeaf forms the

A

supraomental recess

83
Q

ventral sac of rumen protudes into the

A

omental bursa

84
Q

porcine stomach capacity

A

6-8 L

85
Q

narrow region of non-glandular mucosa around

A

cardia

86
Q

pig cecum begins below

A

left kidney

87
Q

pig cecum extends

A

ventrally along left flank

88
Q

pig cecum is sacculated with ___ bands

A

3

89
Q

pig ascending colon proximal hals if sacculated with

A

2 bands

90
Q

proximal half of ascending colon forms

A

outer part of cone; centripetal coils

91
Q

ascending colon distal half is

A

smooth; narrow diameter; located in center of cone; tighter, centrifugal coils

92
Q

what is the general porcine vertebral formula

A

C7, T14-15, L6-7, S4, CD 20-23

93
Q

Review skeletal structure of swine

A

x

94
Q

what is the dental formula of a pig

A

2 (I3/3, C1/1, PM 4/4, M3/3)

95
Q

permanent teeth begin erupting at

A

5-6 months of age

96
Q

what teeth erupt first

A

superior and inferior 1st molars

97
Q

permanent canine erupt at

A

9 months

98
Q

full set of teeth is in place at approximately

A

1.5 years of age

99
Q

the straight lower incisors meet curved upper incisors that provides potential

A

grasping action for the incisors

100
Q

tusks

A

adult canine teeth that are curved in the boar and continue to grow throughout the animals life

101
Q

tusks of sow

A

present but are smaller and usually stop growing at 2 years after eruption

102
Q

deciduous dental formula for pigs

A

2 (i3/3, c1/1, pm 3/3, m0/0) =28

103
Q

baby pigs are born with ____ needle teeth

A

8 deciduous

104
Q

what teeth are sometimes clipped at birth

A

canines and 3rd incisors

105
Q

breeds that have erect ears include

A

berkshire, yorkshire, and hampshire (shire means erect)

106
Q

what vein is used for IV injection

A

lateral auricular vein

107
Q

rostral bone

A

supports the snout; lies against the rostral end of the nasal septum

108
Q

what are the principal tonsils in the pig

A

tonsils of the soft palate

109
Q

swine tongue

A

long and pointed

110
Q

what is used for venipuncture in the pig

A

cranial vena cava

111
Q

thymus of pig

A

lateral to larynx and trachea;

112
Q

carpal glands

A

open by way of 3-4 small but visible holes in the skin on the caudomedial surface of the carpus

113
Q

principle weight bearing digits are

A

3 and 4

114
Q

accessory digits

A

2 and 5

115
Q

how many ribs are there

A

14-15

116
Q

right lung is composed of

A

cranial, middle, caudal, and accessory lobes,

117
Q

left lung is composed of

A

cranial and caudal lobe, left cardiac notch

118
Q

ventral sac of rumen lies in

A

omental bursa

119
Q

what lies in the supraomental recess

A

ascending colon; jejunum; spiral colon

120
Q

know which organs and blood vessels contact the liver

A

x

121
Q

know lobes; ligaments; location in abdomen

A

x

122
Q

in the pig, a majority of the liver is on the ___ side

A

right

123
Q

in the horse, a majority of the liver is on teh ____ side

A

right

124
Q

in the ox, all of the liver is on the ___ side

A

right

125
Q

read about pancreas and adrenal glands in the text book

A

x

126
Q

which equine kidney is heart shaped

A

right

127
Q

right equine kidney is located ventral to

A

last 2 or 3 ribs and first lumbar transverse processes

128
Q

left horse kidn rib and first 2 or 3 lumbar processesey is located ventral to

A

last

129
Q

renal hilus contains

A

renal artery and vein
ureter
renal lymph nodes

130
Q

where is the renal crest

A

inner central part of medulla and projects into the renal pelvis

131
Q

area cribrosa

A

openings for papillary (collecting) ducts

132
Q

renal sinus

A

space inside kidney for pelvis,major blood vessels, fat, etc.

133
Q

renal pelvis

A

dilated portion of ureter within renal sinus

134
Q

terminal recesses

A

extensions of renal pelvis (there are 2)

135
Q

papillary (collecting ducts) from each kidney open into _______ because renal crest is short in the horse

A

terminal recesses

136
Q

which kidney in the ox is retroperitoneal

A

right kidney

137
Q

where is the right kidney located

A

under 13th rib and transverse processes of first 2 or 3 lumbar vertebrae

138
Q

where is the left kidney located

A

ventral under lumbar vertebrae 2 to 4

139
Q

when rumen is full, left kidney is located whre

A

to the right of the median plane, and caudal and ventral to the right kidney

140
Q

when the rumen is not so full the left kidney may lie

A

partly to the left of the median plane

141
Q

ox renal hilus contains

A

renal artery and vein; ureter; renal lymph nodes

142
Q

ox kidney is _____

A

multipyramidal; approximately 12-20 lobes

143
Q

each lobe of the kidney contains what

A

a cortex and medullary pyramid

144
Q

papilla of each pramid of ox kidney drains into a

A

minor calyx

145
Q

minor calyces drain into

A

one of two major calices (prinicpal branches o the ureter)

146
Q

major calices carry urine to the

A

ureter

147
Q

does the ox have a renal pelvis?

A

No

148
Q

small ruminant kidneys are both

A

retroperitoneal

149
Q

small ruminant kidneys composed of

A

cortex, medulla, renal crest, renal pelvis of the ureter

150
Q

both pig kidneys are located where

A

between the last rib and 4th lumbar vertebrae

151
Q

right kidney does not contact the liver due to

A

symmetrical location of both kidneys

152
Q

where is the pig renal pelvis

A

at end of ureter

153
Q

pic kidneys contain ___ major calices

A

2

154
Q

what are major calices

A

principal branches of urter

155
Q

how many minor calices does the pig kidney have

A

8012

156
Q

celiac artery supplies

A

supplies liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, cranial duodenum

157
Q

cranial mesenteric artery supplies

A

caudal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, pancreas, cecum, ascending, ransverse and proximalpart of descending colon

158
Q

caudal mesenteric artery supplies

A

caudal part of descending colon and cranial rectum

159
Q

branches off celiac artery

A

splenic artery
left gastric artery
hepatic artery

160
Q

splenic artery branches

A

left gastroepiploic artery

161
Q

hepatic artey branches

A

right gastric artery
gastroduodenal artery
right gastroepiploic artery

162
Q

branches off cranial mesenteric artery

A

jejunal arteries
right colic artery and middle colic artery
ileocolic artery

163
Q

ileocolic branches

A

colic branch
medial and lateral cecal arteries
mesenteric ileal branch

164
Q

what does the colic branch supply

A

proximal half of ascending colon

165
Q

caudal mesenteric branches

A

left colic artery

cranial rectal artery

166
Q

left colic artery supplies what

A

descending colon and anastomoses with middle colic

167
Q

cranial rectal artery supplies

A

rectum

168
Q

colic branch supplies (in horse)

A

first half of ascending colon

169
Q

right colic artery supplies (in horse)

A

terminal half of ascending colon (dorsal colon)

170
Q

middle colic artery supplies what

A

transverse colon

171
Q

left colic artery supplies

A

descending colon

172
Q

ruminant branches off splenic artery

A

right ruminal artery

left ruminal artery

173
Q

left gastric artery branches

A

left ruminal artery

left gastroepiploic artery

174
Q

left ruminal artery branches

A

reticular artery

175
Q

proximal loop (centripetal coils) are supplied by

A

colic branches

176
Q

centrifugal coils, distal loop supplied by

A

right colic artery

177
Q

transverse colon of ruminant supplied by

A

middle colic artery

178
Q

descending colon of ruminant supplied by

A

left colic artery

179
Q

blood from most abdominal organs drains into

A

the portal vein

180
Q

what organs drain into portal vein

A

spleen, stomach, pancreas, small intestine, majority of large intestin

181
Q

hypogastric nerve

A

postganglionic fibers to pelvic viscera

182
Q

rumen primarily innervated by

A

dorsal vagal trunk

183
Q

which parts are supplied by both vagal trunks

A

rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum

184
Q

equine abdominal lymph nodes drain to

A

cesterna chyli

185
Q

afferent lymph channels from small colon, rectum, peritonemu, and omentum drain to

A

caudal mesenteric lymph noes

186
Q

efferent lymph channels then drain to

A

lumbar trunks or to medial iliac lymph nodes

Large Animal Anatomy (14 decks)

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