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Genetics > Unit 3 > Flashcards

Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Methylation leads to change in chromatine structure (histone mods), more condensed state is transcriptionally inactive (genes are “off”)

A

true

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2
Q

shown by Avery to convert R type penumococcus to pathogenic S strain

A

transforming principle

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3
Q

processing complex important in silencing gene activity at the translational level

A

RISC

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4
Q

agent capable of causing breaks in cmsms

A

clastogen

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5
Q

associated with epigenetic modifications observed during genomic imprinting

A

DNA methylation

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6
Q

indicated that DNA might be self-complimentary

A

Chargaff’s rule

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7
Q

bacteria with additional nutritional requirements relative to wild type

A

auxotroph

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8
Q

integration event associated with lysogeny

A

prophage

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9
Q

causes effective sterility in watermelons and bananas

A

triploidy

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10
Q

used by Hershey and Chase to demonstrate that DNA was the genetic material

A

^32P

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11
Q

involved in mutation observed in Fragile X Syndrome

A

trinucleotide repeats

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12
Q

a form of genetic exchange in bacteria that involves the pickup of naked DNA by competent cells

A

transformation

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13
Q

which stretch of DNA would be most stable?

A

one with all T/C

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14
Q

In the fruitfly Drosophilia, how many Barr bodies would be present in an XXY female?

A

zero

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15
Q

this was originally characterized in nematodes and associated with control of particular genes

A

RNA induced gene silencing

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16
Q

T/F: At least 1/2 of all human genes are estimated to be microRNA targets

A

False, 1/3

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17
Q

What mediates RNA interference?

A

micro-RNAs

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18
Q

Pre-miRNAs undergo active transport from nucleus to cytoplasm where they are recognized by enzyme ‘____’, which reduces the pre-miRNA into a short-lived miRNA:miRNA duplex which is released and picked up by RISC.

A

Dicer

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19
Q

T/F: miRNA:miRNA duplex which is released and picked up by RISC.

A

T

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20
Q

Additions or losses of parts of the genome: on fertilization, the zygotes from this event will have a 2n+1 (trisomic) or 2n-1 (monosomic) chromosome complement

A

aneuploidy

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21
Q

45, X

A

Turner Syndrome

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22
Q

47; XXY

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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23
Q

47, XYY

A

Double Y syndrome (prison)

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24
Q

47, XXX

A

Triplo-X (Trisomy X) syndrome

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25
Q

T/F: As the number of X chromosomes increases (e.g. 48, XXX; 49, XXXX) phenotypic problems increase

A

true

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26
Q

human autosomal aneuploidy is worse than sex cmsm aneuploidy?

A

true

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27
Q

T/F: all autosomal monosomies lead to inviability?

A

true

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28
Q

47, 21+

A

Down Syndrome

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29
Q

breaks and fusions which occur in nonhomologous chromosomes but do not affect gene expression.

A

reciprocal translocation

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30
Q

T/F: alternate segregation will produce balanced gametes, while adjacent segregation causes gene duplications and difficiencies in gametes

A

T

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31
Q

in a recip trans heterozygote, long arms of 2 acrocentrics joined together forms…

A

Robertsonian translocation

32
Q

this cmsm is a combo of longer 9 cmsm and shorter 22 cmsm, and is seen in almost all cases of chronic myelogenous luekemia

A

Philadelphia cmsm (enzyme inhibitor developed to treat this cancer)

33
Q

genetic complementation can be used to select for hybride cells in ___ medium

A

HAT (in hybrid cells, human cmsms are lost)

34
Q

a strand break is introduced in the paired chromatids
strand invasion occurs, with subsequent base-pairing of complementary strands
ligation (new DNA synthesis) and branch migration occurs with the formation of a heteroduplex region

This describes?

A

Holliday Model for Recombination

35
Q

[A]=[T] and [C]=[G]

A

Chargaff’s rules

36
Q

associated with amplification of a trinucleotide repeat in DNA

A

Fragile X syndrome

37
Q

Triticale is a useful agriculteral example

A

amphidiploid

38
Q

proven in 1958 through use of CsCl density centrifugation

A

semiconservative DNA rep

39
Q

a somatic mutational event observed in chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

reiprocal transolcation

40
Q

plasmid that has acquired a part of the bacterial cmsm

A

F’ factor

41
Q

combines cmsm sets from different species

A

allopolyploidy

42
Q

DNA picked up by a virus in one cell can be transferred to another cell when that virus infects it

A

transduction

43
Q

exchange of DNA btwn a donor and a recipient cell connected by means of hairlike structures, the pili

A

conjugation

44
Q

a bacteriophage adsorbs to a host bacteria in a liquid growth mediium. Before lysis, the infected cell is added to a suspension of cells and then plated on an agar plate to form a lawn. How many plaques are expected to result from this infection event?

A

1

45
Q

T/F: heterozygosity for an inversion cmsm will result in a reduction in recombination frequency for genes located in the vicinity of the inversion

A

True

46
Q

centromere not included in the inversion; also produces acentric and dicentric chromosomes.

A

peracentric inversion

47
Q

centromere is included in the inversion; recombinant products have centromeres but still carry duplications and deletions.

A

pericentric inversion

48
Q

. How many chromosomes would be found in somatic cells of an amphidiploid allohexaploid derived from three plants, one with N = 6, N= 8; N = 12?

A

52

49
Q

In humans, Hunter Syndrome is a sex-linked recessive trait that shows complete penetrance. Two phenotypically normal parents produce a phenotypically normal daughter, a son with Hunter Syndrome, and a daughter with Hunter Syndrome. No other symptoms are evident. The origin of the affected daughter most likely resulted from:
a) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the father; b) nondisjunction during meiosis I in the mother; c) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the father; d) nondisjunction during meiosis II in the mother; e) nondisjunction during meiosis in BOTH parents.

A

D

50
Q

Which of the following are true?
a) mutations causing a change in phenotype occur rarely; b) different genes mutate at different rates; c) disruption of gene function through mutation occurs at higher frequency than restoration of function through mutation; d) all of the above; e) none of the above.

A

D

51
Q

an organism with wild-type growth requirements; will be able to grow on minimal medium

A

prototroph

52
Q

T/F: in replica plating experiments, resistant cells are due to random mutation in original population, NOT physiological selection

A

true

53
Q

T/F: bacterial chromosome not involved in F- to F+ conversion… conversion to prototroph (a- to a+) is a low frequency event…

A

True

54
Q

Does Hfr transfer donor status to recipient cells?

A

no

55
Q

What is the evidence that both F factor and bacterial chromosome are circular?

A

If both are circles, a single x-over integrates the entire F factor

56
Q

when the F’ factor replicates, it passes the bacterial gene AND the F factor genes to recipient cell…

A

sexduction

57
Q

a genetic factor capable of integrating into the bacterial chromosome

A

episome (F factor)

58
Q

gene transfer mediated by a virus

A

transduction

59
Q

during this cycle, virus binds and injects genome, then replicates genome, then produces phage proteins, then packages phage genome and lysis host cell

A

lytic life cycle

60
Q

phage capable of integration into host cell genome

A

lysogenic response…damage to host cell DNA will cause virus to “bail out” and enter lytic cytle

61
Q

transfer of genetic material due to integration of a lysogenic phage into the host genome… e.g. lambda bacteriophage

A

specialized transduction

62
Q

phage classification: kill the host…will always undergo a lytic infection cycle

A

virulent phage

63
Q

cell capable of picking up DNA

A

competant cell

64
Q

Capable of moving information within and between genomes…

A

trasposable elements

65
Q

Euk cmsms is composed of ________?

A

1/3 DNA and 2/3 protein (1/3 histone and 1/3 non-histone)

66
Q

T/F: DNA was transforming principle with mice tests

A

true (Hershey-Chase experiment in 1952 confirmed)

67
Q

used to demonstrate that replication does proceed bidirectionally

A

autoradiography

68
Q

substrates of DNA rep

A

primer strand with free 3’ OH group and deoxynucleotide trisphosphate

69
Q

products of DNA rep

A

extended chain and pyrophosphate

70
Q

Requirements for DNA polymerase:

A

primer with free 3’ OH group, dNTPs, and template strand

71
Q

helicase/SSB protein bind at ?

A

rep fork

72
Q

major replication enzyme in E. coli

A

DNA Pol 3

73
Q

transposon that uses an RNA intermediate

A

retrotransposon

74
Q

______ in microorganisms (e.g. plasmids) can be used to propagate that DNA within individual cells…

A

Autonomously replicating genetic elements

75
Q

what are the properties of restriction endonucleases?

A

have a specific recognition sequence (e.g 4-6 bp)
many enzymes have palindromic recognition sites…
DNA cut with these enzymes is broken within the strand (endonuclease)
some of the enzymes leave a single strand overhang (‘sticky end’)

76
Q

what are the important properties of plasmids?

A

origin of replication
restriction sites to introduce DNA
means of selection for introducing plasmid into bacterial cell

77
Q

Vectors that are hybrids between plasmids and lambda phage
can replicate in a cell like a plasmid or be packaged like a virus
they can carry larger DNA inserts than plasmids

A

cosmids

Genetics (6 decks)

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