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From Flashcardlet > First Aid-Pathology > Flashcards

First Aid-Pathology Flashcards

First Aid 2012

0
Q

changes in the levels of anti and pro-apoptotic factors lead to

A

Bax (pro apoptotic), bcl-2 (anti apoptotic); increased mitochondrial permeability and release of cytochrome c in intrinsic pathway of apoptosis which leads to cytosolic caspases activation

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1
Q

apoptosis

A

activation of caspases mediate cellular breakdown; no sig inflammation

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2
Q

2 extrinsic pathways of apoptosis

A

ligand receptor interactions (fas ligand binding to Fas (cd95); immune cell (cytotoxic T cell release of perforin and granzyme B)

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3
Q

pyknosis

A

basophilia

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4
Q

karyorrhexis

A

pyknotic nuclear fragmentation

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5
Q

karyolysis

A

nuclear fading

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6
Q

necrosis is what kind of process as opposed to apoptosis?

A

inflammatory process

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7
Q

type of necrosis: coagulative

A

heart, liver, kidney

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8
Q

type of necrosis: liquefactive

A

brain bacterial abscess, pleural effusion

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9
Q

type of necrosis: caseous

A

TB, systemic fungi

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10
Q

type of necrosis: fatty

A

pancreas (saponification)

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11
Q

type of necrosis: fibrinoid

A

blood vessels

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12
Q

type of necrosis: gangrenous

A

dry (ischemic coagulative) or wet (with bacteria); common in limbs and GI tract

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13
Q

intrinsic pathway of apoptosis

A

occurs during embryogenesis, hormone induction, and atrophy

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14
Q

Bax

A

pro apoptotic; in intrinsic pathway

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15
Q

Bcl-2

A

anti-apoptotic; in intrinsic pathway

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16
Q

2 extrinsic apoptotic pathways

A

FasL and killer T cells

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17
Q

cell injury reversible with oxygen

A

CELL swelling, nuclear chromatin clumping, decreased glycogen, fatty change, ribosomal detachment

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18
Q

irreversible cell injury

A

nuclear pyknosis, karyolysis, calcium influx causing caspase activation, plasma membrane damage, lysosomal rupture, mitochondrial permeability

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19
Q

watershed areas

A

an area susceptible to hypoxia; located at splenic flexure; ACA/MCA

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20
Q

REd (hemorrhagic) infarcts

A

loose tissues lie liver, lungs, or intestine or following REperfusion

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21
Q

pale infarcts occurs

A

in solid tissues like single blood supply such as heart, kidney, and spleen

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22
Q

septic shock

A

decrease in TPR; dilated arterioles, high venous return, hot patient

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23
Q

hypovolemic/cardiogenic shock

A

low output failure, increase TPR, low cardiac output, cold clammy patient

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24
Q

granulation tissue

A

resolution of inflammation that results in highly vascularized and fibrotic tissue

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25
Q

granuloma

A

nodular collections of epitheliod macrophages and giant cells

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26
Q

chronic inflammation is mediated by

A

mononuclear cells

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27
Q

chronic inflammation is characterized by

A

persistent destruction and repair; associated with blood vessel proliferation, fibrosis

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28
Q

acute inflammation is mediated by

A

neutrophils, eosinophils and antibodies

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29
Q

steps in leukocyte extravasation

A

rolling (e-selectin and p-selectin), tight binding (ICAM), diapedesis (PECAM), and migration, phagocytosis

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30
Q

bacterial products in migration process of leukocyte extravasation

A

CILK: C5a, IL-8, LTB4, Kallikrein

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31
Q

how do free radicals damage cells?

A

membrane lipid peroxidation, protein modification and DNA breakage

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32
Q

pathologies of free radicals

A

retinopathy of prematurity, bronchopulmonary dysplasia, CCL4 leading to liver necrosis, acetaminophen, iron overload, reperfusion after anoxia

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33
Q

free radicals can be eliminated by

A

enzymes (catalase, SOD, glutathione peroxidase), spontaneous decay, or antioxidants (vit A, C, E.)

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34
Q

What induces and maintains granuloma formation?

A

cells secrete gamma interferon, activating macrophages; TNF-alpha from macrophages; therefore anti-TNF drugs can break down granulomas leading to disseminated disease

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35
Q

phases of wound healing

A

inflammatory (platelets, neutrophils, macrophages); Proliferative (fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells, keratinocytes); remodeling (1 week later, fibroblasts)

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36
Q

what occurs during proliferative phase of wound healing?

A

deposition of grnaulationt issue and collagen, angiogenesis, epitheljial cell proliferation, dissolution of clot and wound contration (mediated by myofibroblasts)

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37
Q

what happens during remodeling phase of wound healing?

A

type 3 collagen replaced by type 1 collagen; increased tensile strength of tissue

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38
Q

transudate

A

hypocellular, protein poor, SG of < 1.012

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39
Q

exudate

A

cellular, protein rich, sg of > 1.020

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40
Q

exudate is due to

A

lymphatic obstruction and inflammation

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41
Q

transudate is due to

A

increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased oncotic pressure, and na+ retention

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42
Q

increased in erythrocyte sedimentation rate indicates

A

infections, inflammation, cancer,pregnancy, SLE

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43
Q

decreased ESR indicates

A

sickle cell, polycythemia (too many), CHF

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44
Q

acute iron poisoning

A

gastric bleeding

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45
Q

chronic iron poisoning

A

metabolic acidosis, scarring leading to GI obstruction

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46
Q

amyloidosis stain

A

apple green birefringence of Congo red stain under polarized light

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47
Q

Bence jones amyloidosis

A

AL protein

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48
Q

secondary amyloidosis

A

AA protein

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49
Q

senile cardiac amyloidosis

A

transthyretin protein derived from AF

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50
Q

diabetes mellitus type 2 amyloidosis

A

Amylin protein

51
Q

medullary carcinoma of the thyroid amyloidosis

A

ACAL protein - from calcitonin

52
Q

dialysis associated amyloidosis

A

B2-microglobulin protein derived from MHC class I proteins

53
Q

dif between hypovolemic/cardiogenic and septic shock

A

low vs high output failure; increased tpr vs low TPR, cold patient vs hot patient

54
Q

hyperplasia

A

cells have increased in # in neoplasm

55
Q

dysplasia

A

abnormal proliferation of cells with loss of size, shape, and orientation

56
Q

cancer cells that invade basement membrane do so how?

A

uses collagenases and hydrolases (metalloproteinases)

57
Q

metaplasia

A

one adutl cell type is replaced by another

58
Q

reversible plasia’s

A

hyperplasia, metaplasia, dysplasia

59
Q

irreversible plasia’s

A

anaplasia, neoplasia, desmoplasia

60
Q

desmoplasia

A

fibrous tissue formation in response to neoplasm

61
Q

anaplasia

A

abnormal cells lacking differentiation

62
Q

tumor grade

A

degree of cell differentation based on HISTOLOGY of tumor (1-4)

63
Q

tumor stage

A

degree of spread based on site and size of primary lesion

64
Q

benign epithelial tumor

A

adenoma, pipilloma

65
Q

malignant epithelial tumors

A

adenocarcinoma, papillary carcinoma

66
Q

benighn tumor in blood vessel

A

hemangioma

67
Q

malignant tumor in blood vessels

A

angiosarcoma

68
Q

benign tumor in smooth muscle

A

leiomyoma

69
Q

benign tumor in skeletal muscle

A

rhabdomyoma

70
Q

benign tumor in connective tissue

A

fibroma

71
Q

benign tumor in fat

A

lipoma

72
Q

mature teratoma in women vs men

A

in women, it is benign, in men it is malignant

73
Q

cachexia

A

weight loss, muscle atrophy and fatigue that occurs in chronic disease (cancer, AIDS); mediated by TNF-alpha, IFN-gamma, and IL-6

74
Q

plummer vinson syndrome

A

atrophic glossitis, esophageal webs, anemia; can lead to squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus

75
Q

ulcerative colitiis leads to what cancer?

A

colonic adenocarcinoma

76
Q

acanthosis nigricans leads to what cancer?

A

it is hyperpigmentation and epidermal thickening that can lead to visceral malignancy (stomach, lung, and uterus

77
Q

radiation exposure leads to what 2 cancers?

A

sarcoma, papillary thyroid cancer

78
Q

paget’s disease of bone leads to what cancer?

A

secondary osteosarcoma and fibrosarcoma

79
Q

actinic keratosis leads to what kind of cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma of skin

80
Q

tuberous sclerosis can lead to what neoplasms?

A

astrocytoma, angiomyolipoma, and cardiac rhabdomyoma

81
Q

dysplastic nevus leads to what neoplasm?

A

malignant melanoma

82
Q

abl oncogene

A

CML tumor; gene product is a tyrosine kinase

83
Q

c-myc oncogene

A

burkitt’s lymphoma; gene product is a transcription factor

84
Q

bcl-2 oncogene

A

follicular and undif lymphomas

85
Q

erb-B2 is asso with what tumors

A

breast, ovarian and gastric carcinomas; gene product is a tyrosine kinase

86
Q

ras oncogene

A

colon carcinoma; gene product is a GTPase

87
Q

L-myc oncogene

A

lung tumor

88
Q

N-myc

A

neuroblastoma

89
Q

c-kit oncogene

A

gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST); gene product is a cytokine receptor

90
Q

ret oncogene

A

MEN types IIA and IIB; gene product is a tyrosine kinase

91
Q

oncogene

A

gain of function that leads to cancer; needs damage to only one allele

92
Q

tumor suppressor genes

A

loss of function leads to cancer; both alleles must be lost for expression of disease

93
Q

Rb and P53

A

tumor suppressor genes that blocks G1-> S phase of the cell cycle; Rb (osteosarcoma), p53 (Li Fraumeni syndrome)

94
Q

BRCA1

A

tumor suppressor gene that is asso with breast and ovarian cancer; gene product is a dna repair protein

95
Q

BRCA2

A

tumor suppressor gene that is asso with breast cancer; gene product is a dna repair protein

96
Q

p16 tumor suppressor gene causes

A

melanoma

97
Q

APC tumor suppressor gene

A

colorectal cancer (ASSO WITH FAP)

98
Q

WT1 tumor suppressor gene

A

wilm’s tumor

99
Q

DPC vs DCC is a tumor suppressor gene that causes

A

pancreatic cancer vs colon cancer; MN: DPC is deleted in Pancreatic Cancer; DCC is deleted in colon cancer

100
Q

PSA

A

prostate specific antigen; used to screen for prostate carcinoma

101
Q

CEA

A

carcinoembryonic antigen; very nonspecific but produced by colorectal, pancreatic, gastric, breast and thyroid medullary carcinomas

102
Q

AFP

A

made by fetus; HCC, nonseminatous germ cellt umor of the testis (yolk sac)

103
Q

beta -HCG tumor marker

A

MN: hydatidiform moles, choriocarcinomas, and gestational trophoblastic tumors

104
Q

s-100 tumor marker

A

melanoma, neural tumors, and schwannomas

105
Q

CA-125

A

ovarian and malignant epithelial tumors

106
Q

bombesin tumor marker

A

neuroblastoma, lung and gastric cancer

107
Q

TRAP tumor marker

A

tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase; hairy cell leukemia (b cell neoplasm); MN: TRAP the hairy animal

108
Q

CA 19-9

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

109
Q

EBV microbe leads to what asso cancers?

A

burkitt’s lymphoma, hodgkin’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

110
Q

HPV microbe leads to what asso cancers?

A

cervical carcinoma (16,18) penile/anal carcinoma

111
Q

psammoma bodies

A

laminated, concentric, calcific spherules; PSaMMoma: papillary adenocarcinoma (of thyroid), serous cystadenocarcinoma (of ovary), meningioma, mesothelioma

112
Q

metastasis to liver

A

“cancer sometimes penetrates benign liver: colon > stomach> pancreas> breast > lung

113
Q

metasis to bone

A

prostate, breast > lung > thyroid, testes

114
Q

metastasis to brain

A

lung > breast > kidney > skin

115
Q

aflatoxins

A

affects liver and causes hepatocellular carcinoma

116
Q

vinyl chloride toxin

A

affects liver and causes angiosarcoma

117
Q

CCL4 toxin

A

affects liver and causes centrilobular necrosis, fatty change

118
Q

asbestos

A

affects lung and causes mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma

119
Q

arsenic toxin affects

A

the skin causing squamous cell carcinoma; the liver causing angiosarcoma

120
Q

naphthalene (aniline dyes) toxins

A

affects the bladder and causes transitional cell carcinoma

121
Q

hormone: erythropoietin; effect? Neoplasm?

A

polycythemia; RCC, hemangioblastoma, HCC, pheochromocytoma

122
Q

hromone: antibodies agianst presynaptic Ca2+ channels at NM junction

A

effection: lambert-eaton syndrome (muscle weakness), neoplasms: thymoma, small cell lung carcinoma

123
Q

ACTH like peptide is secreted by what cancer and causes what?

A

small cell lung carcinoma; cushing’s syndrome

124
Q

ADH is secreted by what neoplasms and causes what?

A

small cell lung carcinoma and intracranial neoplasms; SIADH

125
Q

PTH related peptide causes what and is secreted by what neoplasms?

A

squamous cell lung carcinoma, renal cell carcinoma, and breast carcinoma

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