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From Flashcardlet > First Aid-Immunology > Flashcards

First Aid-Immunology Flashcards

First Aid 2012

0
Q

medullary cords

A

closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells

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1
Q

follicle of a lymph node

A

primary follicles are dense and dormant; secondary follicles have pale central germinal centers, active; site of B cell localization and proliferation

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2
Q

medullary sinuses

A

contain reticular cells + macrophages

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3
Q

paracortex houses

A

T cells; area between follicles and medulla; contains high endothelial venules thru which T and B cells enter from blood

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4
Q

paracortex is not well developed in pts with

A

digeorge syndrome

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5
Q

right lymphatic duct

A

drains right arm and right half of head; thoracic duct drains everything else

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6
Q

lymph drainage of duodenum, jejunum

A

superior mesenteric

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7
Q

lymph drainage of stomach

A

celiac

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8
Q

lymph drainage of sigmoid colon

A

colic –> inferior mesenteric

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9
Q

lymph drainage of anal canal below pectinate line

A

superficial inguinal

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10
Q

lymph drainage of testes

A

superficial and deep plexuses –> para aortic

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11
Q

lymph drainage of scrotum and thigh

A

superficial inguinal

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12
Q

lymph drainage of lateral side of dorsum of foot

A

popliteal

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13
Q

lymph drainage of rectum (lower portion above the pectinate lline)

A

internal iliac

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14
Q

where are T cells found in the spleen?

A

periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) within white pulp

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15
Q

where are B cells found in the spleen?

A

follicles / germinal center within white pulp

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16
Q

splenic dysfunction causes susceptibility to

A

encapsulated organisms due to decr IgM leading to decr complement activatoin leading to decr C3b opsonization: : SSHiN: salmonella, strep pneumo, haemophilus influenzae, n meningitidis

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17
Q

post splenectomy

A

howell jolly bodies, target cells, thrombocytosis

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18
Q

site of T cell differentation and maturation

A

thymus

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19
Q

cortex of thymus is

A

dense with IMMATURE T CELLS

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20
Q

medulla of thymus is

A

pale with mature T cells and epithelial reticular cells containing Hassall’s corpuscles

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21
Q

positive selection

A

MHC restriction; occurs in thymic cortex; T cells expressing TCRs capable of binding surface self MHC molecules survive

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22
Q

negative selection

A

nonreactive to self; occurs at corticomedullary junction; T cells expressing TCRs with high affinity for self antigens undergo apoptosis

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23
Q

in adaptive immunity receptors that recognize pathogens undergo

A

vdj recombination during lymphocyte development; response is slow on first exposure but memory response is fast; contains T cells, B cells and circulating antibodies

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24
Q

MHC is encoded by

A

HLA (human leukocyte antigen) genes; presents antigen fragments to T cells and bind TCR

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25
Q

MHC 1

A

expressed on almost all nucleated cells, not expressed on RBC, Binds to TCR and CD8; examples = HLA-A, B, C

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26
Q

MHC II

A

examples: HLA-DR, DP DQ; expressed ONLY on APCs; binds TCR and CD4

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27
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases: A3

A

hemochromatosis

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28
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases: B27

A

MN: PAIR: psoriasis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, reiter’s syndrome

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29
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases: B8

A

Grave’s disease

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30
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases: DR2

A

multiple sclerosis, hay fever, sle, goodpasture’s

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31
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases:DR3

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1

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32
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases: DR4

A

rheumatoid arthritis, DM type I

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33
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases: DR5

A

PERNICIOUS ANEMIA leading to B12 deficiency, hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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34
Q

HLA subtypes associated with diseases: DR7

A

steroid-responsive nephrotic syndrome

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35
Q

natural killer cells activity is enhanced by

A

IL12, IFN-beta, IFN-alpha

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36
Q

how do natural killer cells work?

A

use perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis of virallly infected cells and tumor cells

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37
Q

fxns of B cells

A

makes antibody; opsonizes bacteria, neutralizes viruses, activates complement, sensitizes mast cells (IgE); hyperacute organ rejection, cytotoxic (type 2) and immune complex (type 3) hypersensitivty with IgG;

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38
Q

which lymphocytes are involved in hyperacute, acute and chronic organ rejections

A

b cells in hyperacute; T cells in acute and chronic

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39
Q

T cell functions

A

CD4 T cells helps B cells make antibody and produces gamma interferon which activates macrophages; cd8 T cells kills cells directly; invovled in delayed cell mediated hypersensitivity (type IV)

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40
Q

helper T cell can become

A

TH1 (cell mediated response, via IL-12 signal) or TH2 (humoral response, via IL-4)

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41
Q

antigen presenting cells are

A

macrophage, dendritic cells, b cells

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42
Q

TH1 cell

A

cell mediated response, makes IL2, IFN-gamma and activate macrophages and CD8 T cells

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43
Q

TH2 cell

A

HUMORAL response, make IL4, IL5, and help B cells make antibody (IgE > IgG)

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44
Q

b cell class switching triggered by

A

signal 1 (IL-4, 5, or 6 from TH2 cell; followed by signal 2 (CD40 receptor on B cells bind to CD40 ligand on Th cell

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45
Q

th1 cell cytokines

A

IL-2 and IFN-gamma

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46
Q

th2 cell cytokines

A

il-4, il5, IL-6, il-10

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47
Q

function of th1 cell

A

activates macrophages and Cd8+ T cell

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48
Q

function of TH2 cell

A

helps B cells make antibodies (IgE > igG)

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49
Q

th1 cell is inhibited by…whereas TH2 cell is inhibited by

A

IL-10; IFN-gamma

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50
Q

perforin

A

helps to deliver the content of granules into target cell to induce apoptosis

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51
Q

granzyme

A

serine protease that activates apoptosis inside target cell

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52
Q

granulysin

A

antimicrobial, induces apoptosis

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53
Q

cell surface markers that regulatory t cells express

A

CD3, CD4, CD25

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54
Q

activated regulatory t cells produce

A

anti inflammatory cytokines like IL10 and TGF-beta

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55
Q

regulatory T cells

A

help maintain specific immune tolerance by suppressing cd4 and cd8 t cell effector fxns; express CD3, CD4, CD25 cell surface markers;

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56
Q

what part of antibody structure determines isotype (IgM, IgD) etc?

A

Fc

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57
Q

antibody diversity is generated by

A

random recombination of VJ (light chain) OR VDJ (heavy chain) genes; somatic hypermutation (following antigen stimulation), addition of nucleotides to DNA during recombination by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

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58
Q

Fab

A

antigen binding fragment; determines idiotype: unique antigen binding pocket; only 1 antigenic specificity expressed per B cell

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59
Q

mature b lymphocytes express what on their surfaces before isotype switching?

A

IgM and IgD

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60
Q

isotype switching by B cells allow them to become

A

plasma cells that secrete IgA, IgE, or IgG

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61
Q

main antibody in secondary/delayed response to an antigen

A

IgG

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62
Q

antibody most abundant in blood

A

igG

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63
Q

antibody that is a monomer in circulation and a dimer when secreted

A

igA

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64
Q

IgA prevents

A

attachment of bacteria and viruses to mucous membranes

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65
Q

igA is found where?

A

in secretions (tears, saliva, mucus) and breast milk

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66
Q

shape of igM

A

monomer on B cell or pentamer which allows it to efficiently trap free antigens out of tissue

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67
Q

which antibody crosses placenta and which one does not?

A

igG crosses placenta but igM does not

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68
Q

which antibody is produced in the immediate response to an antigen?

A

igM

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69
Q

Membrane attack complex is activated in the classic pathway by

A

igG and igM

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70
Q

which antibody crosses epithelial cells by transcytosis?

A

igA

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71
Q

IgE mediates

A

immediate (type 1) hypersensitivity thru binding to mast cells and basophils and subsequently release of inflamm mediators such as histamine

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72
Q

which antibody has the lowest serum concentration?

A

igE

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73
Q

thymus independent antigens

A

lacks peptide component; cannot be presented by MHC to T cells; stimulates release of IgM antibodies only

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74
Q

example of thymus independent antigens

A

lipopolysaccharide from cell evenlope of gram neg bacteria, polysaccharide capsular antigens

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75
Q

thymus dependent antigens

A

contains protein component (conjugated H influenzae vaccine); class switching and immunologic memory occur as a result of direct contact of B cells with Th cells and release of IL4, IL5, and IL6

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76
Q

igE binds to

A

mast cells and basophils

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77
Q

membrane attack complex of complement defends against

A

gram neg bacteria

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78
Q

membrane attack complex is activated in the alternative pathway by

A

endotoxins on surface of microbes

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79
Q

primary opsonins in bacterial defense

A

C3b (binds bacteria) and igG

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80
Q

C3a and C5a are imp in

A

anaphylaxis

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81
Q

c5a is imp

A

for neutrophil chemotaxis (and anaphylaxis)

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82
Q

c5b - 9 is imp for

A

cytolysis by MAC

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83
Q

decay accelerating factor and C1 esterase inhibitor helps prevent

A

complement activation on self-cells (RBC)

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84
Q

deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor leads to

A

hereditary angioedema; ACE inhibitors are contraindicated

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85
Q

deficiency of c5-c8

A

neisseria bacteremia

86
Q

deficiency of DAF (GPI-anchored enzyme) leads to

A

complement mediated lysis of RBCs and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

87
Q

c3 deficiency

A

severe recurrent pyogenic sinus and respiratory tract infections; increased susceptibility to type 3 hypersensitivity reactions

88
Q

which cytokines cause fever?

A

IL-1 and IL-6

89
Q

IL-8

A

MN: clean up on aisle 8: neutrophils are recruited by IL-8 to clear infections

90
Q

IL-12

A

Induces differentiation of T cells into TH1 cells, activates NK cells, secreted by B cells

91
Q

which cytokine mediates septic shock?

A

TNF-alpha (also causes leukocyte recruitment, vascular leak)

92
Q

Hot T-Bone StEAk MN

A

IL-1 - fever; Il-2 stimulates T cells; Il-3 - stimulates bone marrow; il-4 stimulates igE production; IL-5- stimulates igA production

93
Q

IL-3 function

A

supports growth and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

94
Q

interferon gamma activates what kind of cells and suppresses what kind of cells?

A

activates macrophages and TH1 cells; suppresses TH2 cells; has antiviral (increases MCH1 and II expression and antigen presentation in all cells)and antitumor properties

95
Q

Th1 cells secrete which cytokines?

A

IL-2 and interferon gamma

96
Q

IL-2 does what?

A

stimulates growth of cytotoxic and helper T cells

97
Q

Th2 cells secrete which cytokines

A

IL-4, IL5, IL-6, IL-10

98
Q

IL-10

A

(modulates inflammatory response, inhibits actions of activated T cells and TH1, activates TH2 cells, also secreted by regulatory T cells)

99
Q

IL4

A

induces differentiation into th2 cells; promotes growth of b cells; enhances class switching to igE and igG

100
Q

IL5

A

promotes differenitation of B cells; enhances class switching to IgA; stimulates growth and diff of eosinophils

101
Q

interferons alpha and beta

A

inhibit viral protein synthesis via production of ribonuclease to degrade viral mRNA but not host mRNA

102
Q

CD28 binds to what

A

B7 on APC

103
Q

what does TCR do?

A

binds antigen-MHC complex

104
Q

proteins on macrophages

A

CD14, CD40, MHC II, B7, Fc and C3b receptors for enhanced phagocytosis

105
Q

all cells except mature red cells have what on their surface?

A

MHC1

106
Q

receptor for EBV

A

CD21; MN: You can drink Beer at the Bar when you’re 21 (B cells; EBV)

107
Q

proteins on NK cells

A

CD16 (binds Fc of IgG), CD56

108
Q

anergy

A

self reactive T cells become nonreactive without costimulatory molecule

109
Q

endotoxins and LPS from gram neg bacteria directly stimulate macrophages by binding to

A

endotoxin receptor CD14

110
Q

superantigens cross link what

A

beta region of TCR to the MHC class II on APCs; results in release of Ifn-gamma from th1 cells and subsequent release of IL1, IL6 and TNF-alpha from macrophages

111
Q

active immunity vs passive immunity

A

exposure to foreign antigens; slow onset vs preformed antibodies from another host , rapid onset,

112
Q

Live attenuated vaccine vs killed vaccine

A

induce a cellular response vs induces a humoral immunity

113
Q

passive immunity is used to treat what?

A

tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin, HBV, or Rabies virus (MN: to be healed rapidly via preformed antibodies)

114
Q

examples of live attenuated vaccines

A

measles, mumps, polio (sabin), rubella, varicella, yellow fever

115
Q

Type I hypersensitivity

A

anaphylactic and atopic (free antigen cross links IgE on presensitized mast cells and basophils , test with scratch test and radioimmunosorbent assay

116
Q

Type II hypersensitivity

A

antibody mediated ig M and IgG; test: direct and indirect Coombs; antibody and complement lead to MAC

117
Q

type III hypersensitivity and test for it

A

immune complex (antigen antibody (IgG) complexes activate complement) that attracts neutrophils to release lysosomal enzymes; test with IMMUNOFLUORESCENT staining

118
Q

serum sickness

A

immune complex disease in which antibodies to the foreign proteins are produced ; complexes form and are deposited in membranes where they fix complement leading to tissue damage; caused by drugs

119
Q

arthus reaction

A

subacute antibody mediated hypersensitivity type III rxn. Caused by intradermal injection of antigen that induces antibodies that then form complexes in the skin causing edema, necrosis and activation of complement

120
Q

type IV hypersensitivity

A

delayed, t cell mediated, leads to macrophage activation, no antibodies are invovled

121
Q

4 T’s of type 4 hypersensitivity

A

T lymphocytes, Transplant rejections, TB skin tests, Touching (contact dermatitis)

122
Q

mnemonic for the 4 types of hypersensitivities

A

ACID: Anaphylactic and atopic = type 1; cytotoxic (antibody mediated) = type 2; immune complex = type 3; delayed (cell mediated) = type 4

123
Q

rheumatic fever, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, grave’s disease, myasthenia gravis are all examples of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type II

124
Q

lupus, rheumatoid arthritis, post streptococcal glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosum, hypersensitivity pneumonitis are examples of what kind of hypersensitivity?

A

type III

125
Q

type 1 dm, MS, guillain barre syndrome, hashimoto’s, graft versus host are all examples of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type IV

126
Q

allergic rxn in blood transfusions

A

type 1 hypersensitivity rxn against plasma proteins in transfused blood

127
Q

pathogenesis of anaphylactic rxn in blood transfusion

A

igA def individuals must receive blood products that lack IgA

128
Q

febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn

A

type 2 hypersensitivity rxn; host antibodies against donor HLA antigens and leukocytes

129
Q

acute hemolytic transfusion rxn

A

type 2 hypersensitvity rxn; intravascular hemolysis (ABO blood group incompatibility) or extravascular hemolysis (host antibody rxn against foreign antigen on donor RBCs)

130
Q

pt presents with urticaria, pruritus, wheezing and fever after blood transfusion, dx?

A

allergic rxn, treat with antihistamines

131
Q

pt presents with dyspnea, bronchospasm, hypotension, respiratory arrest, shock, after blood transfusion, dx?

A

anaphylactic reaction

132
Q

pt p/w fever, headaches, chills, and flushing after blood transfusion

A

febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

133
Q

pt presents with fever, hypotension, tachypnea, tachycardia, flank pain, hemoglobinemia (intravascular), jaundice (extravascular hemolysis) after blood transfusion?

A

acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

134
Q

autoantibodies for SLE

A

antinuclear antibodies, anti-ds DNA, anti-smith

135
Q

autoantibody for drug induced lupus

A

antihistone

136
Q

autoantibody for rheumatoid arthritis

A

anti-igG (rheumatoid factor)

137
Q

autoantibody for scleroderma (CREST)

A

anticentromere

138
Q

autoantibody for diffuse scleroderma

A

anti-scl-70 (anti-DNA topoisomerase I)

139
Q

autoantibody for primary biliary cirrhosis

A

antimichondrial

140
Q

autoantibody for celiac disease

A

antigliadin, antiendomysial

141
Q

autoantibody for goodpasture’s syndrome

A

anti basement membrane

142
Q

autoantibody for pemphigus vulgaris

A

anti-desmoglein

143
Q

autoantibody for hashimoto’s

A

antimicrosomal, antithyroglobulin

144
Q

autoantibody for polyomyositis and dermatomyositis

A

anti-jo-1

145
Q

autoantibody for autoimmune hepatitis

A

anti smooth muscle

146
Q

autoantibody for sjogren’s syndrome

A

anti- SSA (anti-ro) and anti- SS-B (anti La)

147
Q

autoantibody for diabetes mellitus type 1

A

anti glutamate decarboxylase

148
Q

autoantibody for wegener’s granulomatosis

A

c-ANCA

149
Q

b cell deficiencies vs t cell deficiencies

A

produces recurrent bacterial infections vs fungal and viral infxns

150
Q

pts without b cells are susceptible to what bacterial infections?

A

encapsulated: streptococcus, staphylococcus, haemophilus, moraxella

151
Q

pts without granulocytes are susceptible to what bacterial infections?

A

staphylococcus, pseudomonas

152
Q

pts without complement are susceptible to what bacterial infection?

A

neisseria (no membrane attack complex can be made)

153
Q

pts without granulocytes are susceptible to what fungal infections?

A

candida, aspergillus

154
Q

a 7 month old boy presents with recurrent bacterial infections ,dx?

A

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia; occurs after six months due to decr maternal igG at this point; recurrent bacterial infections due to opsonization defect

155
Q

bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

A

defect in BTK, tyrosine kinase gene, which blocks B cell differentiation so you see normal pro-B cells but decreased number of B cells and decreased iGs in all classes

156
Q

hyperigM syndrome

A

defective CD40L on helper T cells - inability to class switch; increase in IgM; substantial decrease in IgG, IgA, and IgE

157
Q

selective ig deficiency

A

defect in isotype switching; igA deficiency is most common; failure to mature into plasma cells

158
Q

pt pw sinus and lung infections, milk allergies and diarrhea, anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products with IgA, dx?

A

Selective IgA deficiency

159
Q

common variable immunodeficiency

A

defect in b cell maturation, can be acquired in 20s-30s; normal # of B cells but decreased plasma cells and immunoglobulin

160
Q

when is CVID acquired?

A

20s-30s

161
Q

lab results for CVID

A

normal # of B cells but decreased plasma cells and Igs

162
Q

thymic aplasia aka

A

digeorge syndrome

163
Q

digeorge syndrome is what kind of deletion and failure to develop what?

A

22q11 deletion; failure to develop 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches so thymus and parathyroids fail to develop, causes hypocalcemia

164
Q

IL-12 receptor deficiency

A

decreased Th1 response, disseminated mycobacterial infectiosn; decreased interferon gamma

165
Q

job’s syndrome

A

hyper igE syndrome where Th cells fail to produce interferon - gamma so neutrophils CANNOT respond to chemotactic stimuli

166
Q

clinical manifestations of job’s syndrome

A

MN: FATED: coarse Facies, cold staphylococcal Abscesses, retained primary TEETH, increased igE, dermatolgoic problems (eczema)

167
Q

chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is a dysfunction of what cell line?

A

T cells

168
Q

scid is a defect in

A

IL2 receptor or adenosine deaminase deficiency or inability to synthesize MHC II antigens; B and T cell deficiencies!!

169
Q

presentation of SCID

A

recurrent, viral, bacterial, fungal and protozoal infxns due to B and T deficiency; absence of thymic shadow, germinal centers, and B cells ; treat with bone marrow transplant

170
Q

ataxia telangiectasia defect

A

defects in ATM gene which codes for dna repair enzymes

171
Q

clinical manifestation of ataxia-telangiectasia

A

triad of cerebellar defects, spider angiomas (telangiectasia), igA deficiency

172
Q

wiskott-aldrich syndrome

A

x linked recessive, progressive deletion of T and B cells

173
Q

clinical manifestations of wiskott-aldrich syndrome

A

triad (TIE) = Thrombocytopenic purpura, infections, eczema

174
Q

lab results for wiskott-aldrich syndrome

A

increased igE and igA but decreased igM

175
Q

pt presents with thrombocytopenic purpura, infections, and eczema, dx?

A

wiskott aldrich syndrome

176
Q

leukocyte adhesion deficiency is a defect in

A

LFA-1 integrin / CD18 protein on phagocytes; causes absent pus formation and delayed separation of umbilical cord

177
Q

chediak-higashi syndrome is a defect in

A

lysosomal trafficking regulator gene causing microtubular fxn in phagosome/lysosome fusion; with decreased phagocytosis; partial albinism and peripheral neuropathy; autosomal recessive

178
Q

chronic granulomatous disease is a defect in

A

lack of NADPH oxidase which causes decreased reactive oxygen species and absent respiratory burst in neutrophils

179
Q

chronic granulomatous disease increases susceptibility to

A

catalase positive organisms like staph aureus, e.coli, aspergillus

180
Q

lab for chronic granulomatous disease

A

negative nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test

181
Q

syngeneic graft is from

A

identical twin or clone

182
Q

allograft is from

A

nonidentical individual of same species

183
Q

pt presents with rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly and diarrhea; after a bone marrow or liver transplant, dx?

A

graft versus host rejection

184
Q

fibrosis of graft tissue and blood vessels is seen in what rejection?

A

chronic transplant rejection

185
Q

vasculitis of graft vells with dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate is seen with what rejection?

A

acute transplant rejection; occurs within weeks

186
Q

ischemia and necrosis of graft vessels is seen in what rejection?

A

hyperacute transplant rejection; occurs within minutes

187
Q

chronic transplant rejection

A

t cell and antibody-mediated vascular damage, irreversible, class1 MHC nonself is perceived by CTLs as class 1 MHC self presenting a NONSELF antigen; causes fibrosis; occurs months to years after transplant

188
Q

graft vs host disease

A

grafted immunocompetent T cells proliferate in the irradiated immunocompromised host and reject cells with “foreign” proteins resulting in severe organ dysfunction

189
Q

what to give for suppressing organ rejection after transplantation?

A

cyclosporine

190
Q

pathogenesis of hyperacute transplant rejection

A

antibody mediated (type 2) due to the presence of preformed antidonor antibodies in the transplant recipient

191
Q

pathogenesis of acute transplant rejection

A

cell mediated due to CTLs reacting against foreign MHCs; reversible with immunosuppressnats like cyclosporine or OKT3

192
Q

mechanism of cyclosporine

A

blocks differentiation and activation of T cells by inhibiting calcineurin, prevents prod of IL-2 and receptor

193
Q

toxicity of cyclosporine

A

predisposes pts to viral infxns, lymphoma, nephrotoxicities (which is preventable with mannitol diuresis), gout

194
Q

tacrolimus

A

aka FK506; immunosuppressive used in organ transplant recipients; similar to cyclosporine; binds to FK-binding protein inhibiting secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines

195
Q

toxicity of tacrolimus

A

nephrotoxic, peripheral neuropathy, hypertension, pleural effusion, hyperglycemia

196
Q

toxicity of sirolimus

A

hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia

197
Q

sirolimus aka

A

rapamycin; binds to mTOR; inhbits T cell proliferation in response to IL-2

198
Q

rapamycin/sirolimus is used when?

A

after kidney transplantation in combo with cyclosporine and corticosteroids

199
Q

daclizumab

A

monoclonal antibody with high affinity for IL-2 receptor on activated T cells

200
Q

mechanism of azathioprine

A

antimetabolite precursor of 6-mercaptopurine that interferes with metabolism and synthesis of nucleic acids

201
Q

toxic effects may be increased by what when pt is using azathioprine

A

by allopurinol because xanthine oxidase metabolizes active mercaptopurine

202
Q

muromonab- CD3 (OKT3)

A

monoclonal antibody that binds to Cd3 (epsilon chain) on surface of T cells, blocks cell interaction with cd3 protein responsible for T cell signal transduction

203
Q

toxicity of muromonab-CD3

A

cytokine release syndrome, hypersensitivity rxn

204
Q

aldesleukin (IL-2) is a recombinant cytokine that is used for

A

renal cell carcinoma and metastatic melanoma

205
Q

filgrastim (G-CSF)and sargramostim (GM-CSF) are recombinant cytokines used for

A

recovery of bone marrow

206
Q

infliximab and adamumab is a therapeutic antibody that target and is used for

A

TNF-alpha; Crohn’s disease, rheumatoid arhtritis, psoritatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis

207
Q

rituximab is a therapeutic antibody that targets and is used for what

A

CD20; B cell non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

208
Q

antidote for digoxin intoxication?

A

digoxin Immune Fab

209
Q

gamma interferon is used to treat

A

chronic granulomatous disease

210
Q

beta interferon is used to treat

A

multiple sclerosis

211
Q

alpha interferon is used to treat

A

hep b, hep c, kaposi’s sarcoma, leukemias, malignant melanoma

212
Q

abciximab is a therapeutic antibody that targets and is used to treat

A

targets glycoprotein Iib/IIIa and prevents cardiac ischemia in unstable angina and in pts treated with percutaneous coronary intervention

213
Q

omalizumab

A

targets IgE and is used for severe asthma

From Flashcardlet (18 decks)

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